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International Marketing explores the strategies and practices involved in marketing goods and services across global markets. The course examines the dynamic international environment, including cultural, economic, legal, and political factors that influence marketing decisions. Students will learn about market entry strategies, product adaptation, pricing, global distribution channels, and international communication techniques. Emphasis is placed on understanding the complexities of globalization, consumer behavior in different regions, and the ethical considerations in international business operations.
Recommended Textbook
Marketing Research 6th Edition by Alvin C. Burns
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20 Chapters
1702 Verified Questions
1702 Flashcards
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63 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In their book, Counterintuitive Marketing, Clancy and Kreig argue that many failures may be attributed to managers making:
A) intuitive decisions without the use of research to make better decisions
B) bad decisions but with good information
C) decisions based only on competitive information
D) good decisions but making them too late to be competitive
E) decisions that do not allow for the counter-actions of competitors
Answer: A
Q2) A marketing information system is a structure consisting of people, equipment, and procedures to gather, sort, analyze, evaluate, and distribute needed, timely, and accurate information to marketing decision makers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Everyday, information about pertinent developments in the environment is gathered through the internal report system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jane Ellen Roberts is concerned about error in a survey that she is conducting for her company. Specifically, she is concerned about nonsampling errors but she realizes nonsampling errors:
A) may be controlled through sample size formulas
B) may be measured and, therefore, controlled
C) can be measured only in percentage terms
D) must be identified and appropriate steps must be taken to limit their occurrence
E) may not be controlled and therefore should not be of concern to Ms. Roberts
Answer: D
Q2) A good way of setting research objectives is to ask, "What information is needed in order to solve the problem?"
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) CATI stands for Computerized Association of Terrestrial Intelligence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of SPAM and the marketing research industry?
A) Marketing research firms are required to submit an anti-SPAM report each year to the Association to Reduce SPAM, ARS.
B) Marketing research firms have not been included in a definition of SPAM abusers.
C) Marketing research firms have not been included in anti-SPAM legislation.
D) The marketing research industry has worked hard to establish codes of ethics dealing with online research.
E) IMRO and CASRO have been leaders in establishing codes of ethics dealing with online research.
Answer: A
Q2) Providing the capability of conducting a "mock jury" for an impending legal trial would be a service provided by:
A) a standardized service firm
B) a syndicated data service firm
C) an internal supplier firm
D) a customized service firm
E) a field service firm
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the sources of problems?
A) There are actually two sources of problems.
B) Problems come only from nonperformance of a key goal.
C) There are three sources of problems: stockholders, customers and distributors .
D) All problems have a single source.
E) If a company does not have an objective, it cannot have a problem.
Q2) Symptoms are:
A) causes of the marketing research problem
B) changes in resources as a result of the marketing management problem
C) changes in the level of some key monitor that measures the achievement of some objective
D) changes in the level of some key objective that measures the achievement of some monitor
E) all of the above
Q3) Although important, properly defining the problem is not as important as analyzing data in marketing research.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dependent variable is always manipulated in the experimental group but never in the control group.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A firm selects a test market city that it believes will give them very favorable results because it knows the media will publicize the "success" of the new test product. This may be considered stupid, but it would not be considered to be unethical.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Causal research is best utilized to define terms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If the research objective is to gain background information, it is likely that the most appropriate research design would be:
A) exploitive
B) exhaustive
C) deductive
D) exploratory
E) causal
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following was NOT discussed as an advantage of using secondary data?
A) may be obtained quickly
B) may be obtained in any form desired by the researcher
C) is relatively inexpensive
D) is usually available
E) may achieve the research objective
Q2) One of the disadvantages of the Survey of Buying Power is that the Elongated Billing Index (EBI)is actually calculated during a very short time period.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Procter & Gamble, owning the major market share for disposable diapers, published a research report showing that cloth diapers were as harmful to the environment as disposable diapers. This example illustrates why it is important to evaluate all secondary research and fully understanding the true purpose of the research.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tracking data is widely available for products sold through "brick and mortar" stores (stores having physical locations). However, there is no tracking data for products purchased online such as music from Apple's iTunes or other products that have been digitized such as movie videos or books.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although useful information, geodemographic information is limited in that one must use only pre-defined geographical boundaries such as cities, counties, or state definitions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tracking consumer attitudes and opinions is not the kind of information that is available from standardized information firms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Dun's Market Identifiers (DMI)is useful for providing market segmentation information on members of the industrial market.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which type of research may begin with exploratory research and then go on to conduct a full-scale, representative survey?
A) qualitative research
B) quantitative research
C) focus group research
D) quant/qual research
E) pluralistic research
Q2) Which type of research involves the use of structured questions where the response options have been predetermined and a large number of respondents are involved?
A) qualitative research
B) quantitative research
C) pluralistic research
D) focus group research
E) Socratic research
Q3) There is only one form of online focus group; focus group members meet in a focus group facility and the focus group is communicated via the Internet to clients who may be in remote locations.
A)True
B)False

Page 10
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Sample Questions
Q1) In selecting the proper survey method, researchers balance:
A) the cost of the project with what the client is willing to pay
B) the time limitation of the client with the speed at which surveys must be conducted in order to have a profitable research firm
C) the quality of information desired with the requirement to take advantage of today's technology
D) the quality of information desired with time deadlines and budget constraints
E) what their employer wants, in addition to what the researchers want
Q2) When time is an important consideration, which data collection method is best?
A) mail surveys
B) drop-off surveys
C) in-home interviews
D) telephone surveys
E) in-office interviews
Q3) Telephone surveys have the potential to provide a high-quality sample.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A CATI is a form of person-administered interview.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following formats provides response options to questions on the questionnaire?
A) response options format
B) categorical format
C) open-ended format
D) probed format
E) optional format
Q2) Some researchers believe that a mid-point, or neutral position, should NOT be included in a scale question because:
A) it violates the statistical assumption of symmetry
B) it creates an odd number
C) it allows respondents to dodge or hide their feelings
D) it creates a problem in trying to code the scale items
E) it creates a problem in terms of how you value the mid-point in the calculation of statistics
Q3) An open-ended question presents no response options to the respondent.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Classification questions are:
A) usually put in the middle of the questionnaire and are used to classify respondents into various groups for purposes of analysis
B) usually put at the beginning of the questionnaire and are used to classify respondents into various groups for purposes of analysis
C) usually put at the end of the questionnaire and are used to classify respondents into various groups for purposes of analysis
D) usually put at the end of the questionnaire and are used to classify the questions themselves, so that report writing is made easier after data collection and analysis are complete
E) usually put at the beginning of the questionnaire and are used to classify the questions themselves, so that report writing is made easier after data collection and analysis are complete
Q2) Complicated and difficult- to-answer questions should be asked at the very beginning of the questionnaire before the respondent becomes fatigued.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Incidence rate refers to:
A) the percent of people on a list who qualify as members of the population
B) the percent of people who qualify as members of the sample frame error
C) the percent of people not on a list who qualify as members of the sample frame error
D) the percent of people who have been previously sampled
E) the number of mistakes made in sampling
Q2) Sampling a geographical area using area sampling is:
A) a form of systematic, geographic sampling
B) a form of simple random sampling
C) a form of nonprobability sampling
D) a form of cluster sampling
E) a form of geosynchronous sampling
Q3) Marketing researchers make use of samples because obtaining information from every single person in a market is impractical.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the problems with online survey samples is sample selection.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you were to graph sample accuracy and sample size, which of the following generalizations would be most accurate?
A) Accuracy is very low, even with small sample sizes of 50 or below.
B) Accuracy constantly increases as sample size increases; a sample of 2,000 is four times more accurate than a sample of 500.
C) With increases in sample size, sample accuracy decreases.
D) We cannot graph sample size and accuracy because we must also include the level of confidence and the variability within the sample data.
E) Accuracy increases rapidly when sample size increases up to about 500 and then levels off.
Q2) Which of the following is the most correct method of determining sample size?
A) percentage of population approach
B) all that can be afforded approach
C) all that time will permit approach
D) using the "100" for local study; "1,000" for national study approach
E) the confidence interval approach
Q3) With the 99% level of confidence, the corresponding z value is 2.58.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) An interviewer gives the respondent very subtle cues such as saying "yes" to statements with which the interviewer agrees. This is an example of:
A) "yes-saying"
B) unintentional respondent fraud
C) leading the respondent
D) interviewer misunderstanding
E) misunderstandings
Q2) An unintentional respondent error occurs when a respondent's interest in the survey wanes, and this is known as:
A) ADD
B) attention loss
C) attention sampling error
D) misunderstanding
E) leading behavior
Q3) Assuring confidentiality is one way to minimize falsehoods on surveys.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you have a question that has an interval or ratio scale, which of the following should be used to report the variability?
A) frequency distribution
B) cumulative percentage distribution
C) percentage distribution and range
D) standard deviation and range
E) accumulative percentage standard deviation
Q2) The range tells you how often the minimum and maximum values occur.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the SPSS FREQUENCIES command, you may ask for the mean, median, or mode via the STATISTICS options.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Frequency distributions, standard deviation, and the range are all measures of variability.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Detailed confidence intervals are typically reported to clients.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following refers to using sample data to accept or reject some exact specification as to what the population parameter is?
A) confidence analysis
B) standard error analysis
C) hypothesis testing
D) specification support/rejection
E) theory testing
Q3) You test a directional hypothesis that consumers spend less than $12 a person to go to the movies. Your z value turns out to be -1.64. Your data supports your hypothesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When we use SPSS to test a hypothesis for a percentage, we use the F value instead of the z value.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Tommy Prothro, a marketing manager for Golden Snack Bars, has commissioned marketing research to determine if one recipe of snack bar is superior to another recipe. More than 400 persons who were "snack bar eaters" were involved in taste tests and, after tasting both recipes, they were asked which recipe they would purchase the next time they purchased snack bars. Tommy is now looking at the data and he sees that recipe A had 53 percent stating a preference whereas recipe B had 47 percent. Tommy's brand manager felt this was "significant" evidence that the firm should produce recipe A. But Tommy wanted more evidence so he asked the research firm to run a test to determine if there was a significant difference between the two recipes. When the firm ran the test, they reported a z value of 5.64. This means:
A) Tommy should follow the advice of his brand manager.
B) There is no statistical significance.
C) There is no statistical difference but there is an actionable difference.
D) There is no statistical difference but there is a meaningful difference.
E) There are real differences between the two recipe preferences in the population and Tommy will have to determine if this difference is meaningful before going further.
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Sample Questions
Q1) You do not have a "relationship" that links the labels (or levels)for two variables unless the relationship is:
A) causal and consistent
B) consistent and systematic
C) systematic and causal
D) systematic and important
E) consistent and important
Q2) The fact that most tourists at sunny beach resorts use sun block is a curvilinear relationship.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Associative analysis procedures are useful because they determine if there is a consistent and systematic relationship between the presence (label)or amount of one variable and the:
A) nonpresence of a regressive relationship
B) presence (label) or amount of another variable
C) presence (label) or amount of the same variable
D) covariance of the other variable
E) presence of unobservable variables
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multiple regression requires specification of a general conceptual model that identifies independent and dependent variables and shows their expected relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In evaluating your bivariate regression analysis findings you first determine whether or not a linear relationship between the independent and dependent variable exists in the population. Which of the following best describes what you are doing in this step?
A) determining if the two variables have any covariation
B) determining if the two variables vary together
C) determining if the two variables belong in the same regression matrix
D) determining if the two variables are isotonic
E) determining if there is statistical significance
Q3) In the following straight line formula, y = a + bx, the variable being predicted is the beta weight, b.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Research is conducted to determine which recipe of cookie mix is most preferred. Cookie recipe "D" has the highest preference ratings among four cookie mixes tested. This is:
A) a recommendation
B) a conclusion
C) information that should be included in the front matter
D) a method
E) a methodology
Q2) Research is conducted to determine which recipe of cookie mix is most preferred. Cookie recipe "D" has the highest preference ratings among four cookie mixes tested. The report states that cookie mix "D" should replace all existing recipes as soon as possible. This last sentence is:
A) a recommendation
B) a conclusion
C) information that should be included in the front matter
D) a method
E) a methodology
Q3) A reference page or endnotes (if appropriate)should precede the appendix.
A)True
B)False

Page 22
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