International Law Practice Exam - 905 Verified Questions

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International Law Practice Exam

Course Introduction

International Law explores the legal principles and frameworks that govern relationships between sovereign states, international organizations, and, to some extent, individuals on the global stage. The course covers sources of international law such as treaties, customary law, general principles, and judicial decisions, as well as the role of key institutions like the United Nations and the International Court of Justice. Topics include state sovereignty, diplomatic relations, human rights, the law of armed conflict, environmental protection, and the resolution of international disputes. Students will analyze landmark cases and treaties, gaining a foundational understanding of how international law is created, interpreted, and enforced in a complex, interconnected world.

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International Business Law 6th Edition by Ray A. August

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Chapter 1: Introduction to International and Comparative Law

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Q1) Jus cogens is a peremptory norm of general international law, recognized by the international community of states as a norm from which no derogation is permitted.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) ________ are legally binding agreements between states sponsored by international organizations.

A) Conventions

B) Doctrines

C) Treaties

D) Estoppels

Answer: A

Q3) The United Nations is a type of ________.

A) transnational corporation

B) nonprofit non-governmental organization

C) intergovernmental organization

D) multinational enterprise

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: State Responsibility and Environmental Regulation

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Q1) The objection that may be made to an international tribunal's exercise of jurisdiction when there is no real and bona fide relationship between the state bringing the suit and the person on whose behalf the suit is brought is referred to as "lack of standing."

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) ________ is the state's taking or deprivation of the property of foreigners.

A) Expropriation

B) Accommodation

C) Arraignment

D) Easement

Answer: A

Q3) The doctrine of imputability does not make the state liable for an act of terrorism committed by its nationals against foreigners.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: Dispute Settlement

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Q1) ________ is a suit in which the parties are not at odds but instead cooperate to obtain a judgment.

A) Collusive action

B) Arbitration

C) Delict

D) Anti-suit injunction

Answer: A

Q2) Forum non conveniens originated from Scottish Common Law.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) ________ is a form of international dispute settlement that attempts to reconcile parties to a disagreement by use of negotiation, mediation, or inquiry.

A) Litigation

B) Petition

C) Arraignment

D) Diplomacy

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: The Multinational Enterprise

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Q1) The American antitrust laws authorize a court to assume personal jurisdiction if a defendant has the contacts specified by Section 12 of the Clayton Act.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The Japanese Civil Code uses the concept of "strict liability" for imposing liability for defective products.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is true of a subsidiary?

A) A subsidiary is used to operate a parent company's holding company.

B) A subsidiary does not actually conduct business; rather, it functions as a foreign contact point.

C) A subsidiary insulates the parent company from unlimited liability.

D) A subsidiary is a part of the parent company and is not separately incorporated.

Q4) A company's service office in a host nation would be considered a branch of the company.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Foreign Investment

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Q1) Exempt securities typically include those issued by governmental bodies, by banks, and by not-for-profit corporations.

A)True

B)False

Q2) ________ promise foreign investors that the host government will not change its tax, foreign exchange, or other legal régime for a certain period of time, or that changes subsequent to the establishment of an enterprise will not affect that enterprise.

A) Nondiscrimination guarantees

B) Repatriation guarantees

C) Stabilization clauses

D) Appraisal rights

Q3) A(n) ________ is someone who buys in good faith, pays value, and is unaware that the transferor is not the rightful owner.

A) tipper

B) bona fide purchaser

C) tippee

D) insider

Q4) What is a bonded warehouse?

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Chapter 6: Money and Banking

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Q1) According to economist John Maynard Keynes and U.S. Treasury official Harry Dexter White, which of the following was one of the conditions that had helped to produce and prolong the Great Depression of the 1930s?

A) the shortage of production of gold in the U.S.

B) the lack of a standard for determining the value of national currencies

C) the dereliction of the code of conduct by IMF member states

D) the lack of demand for the gold in national treasuries

Q2) Which of the following describes a spot contract?

A) a contract that creates the right-but not the obligation-to buy or sell a specific amount of a commodity at a fixed price within an agreed-upon period of time

B) a contract in which a commodity is presently sold and the price is presently paid but delivery is, by agreement, delayed to a later date

C) a contract for the immediate sale and delivery of a commodity, such as a currency

D) a promise to buy or sell a commodity for a specified price, with both delivery and payment to be made at a specified future date

Q3) Explain a future contract.

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Chapter 7: Trade in Goods

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Q1) Sectoral agreements of the WTO deal with ________.

A) technical barriers to trade

B) customs valuation

C) textiles and clothing

D) import-licensing procedures

Q2) Multilateral Trade Agreements of the WTO Agreement are binding on all members of the WTO.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The World Trade Organization was a result of the ________.

A) Dillon Round

B) Tokyo Round

C) Kennedy Round

D) Uruguay Round

Q4) An actionable subsidy is permissible and nonchallengeable, such as government funding to underwrite research activities, to aid disadvantaged regions, or to help existing facilities adapt to new environmental requirements.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What is an escape clause?

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Chapter 8: Services and Labor

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Q1) The ________ is a GATS requirement that its member states accord immediately and unconditionally to services and service suppliers of other members' treatment that is no less beneficial than that it accords to like services and service suppliers of any other state.

A) foreseeability standard

B) ultra vires rule

C) transparency provision

D) most-favored-nation treatment

Q2) The special list compiled by the Conference Committee of the ILO consists of the list of those member states that have entered into free trade agreements with some other states.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Explain the procedure for settling disputes between ILO members.

Q4) Describe the significance of the Schedule of Specific Commitments. List the categories that a member can apply on sectors mentioned in its Schedule of Specific Commitments?

Q5) Describe the significance of the transnational labor organizations in the EU.

Q6) What are visas? How many types of visas are allowed with respect to duration?

Q7) Describe the International Labor Office's institutional structure.

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Chapter 9: Intellectual Property

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Q1) What are the various marks used by merchants to identify themselves and their products?

Q2) A pecuniary right is the right of an author to exploit a copyrighted work for economic gain.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A ________ is a mark or symbol used to identify a manufacturer or merchant.

A) trade name

B) copyright

C) certification mark

D) patent

Q4) "Gatorade" is an example of a ________.

A) copyright

B) service mark

C) true trademark

D) certification mark

Q5) The right of an author to prohibit others from tampering with a copyrighted work is called the right of performance.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Sales

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Q1) Briefly explain how the CISG is organized.

Q2) Using the ________ method of interpreting a statute would require understanding the legislative history leading up to the adoption of that statute.

A) nolo contendere

B) force majeure

C) de minimis

D) travaux préparatoires

Q3) The force majeure excuse can be used only as long as the underlying impediment continues in existence.

A)True

B)False

Q4) If a contract requires the seller to deliver the goods to a carrier at a named place, who will then carry the goods to the buyer, the risk of loss passes to the buyer

A) when the goods leave the warehouse of the seller

B) as soon as he/she accepts the contract in writing

C) when the goods are handed over to the carrier at that place

D) at the time the contract is concluded

Q5) What is the buyer's obligation for payment?

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Chapter 11: Transportation

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Q1) In the marine insurance industry, a "free from particular average" policy provides more protection than a "with average" policy.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The trade term "________" is used when the seller fulfills his obligations to deliver by making the goods available at his premises.

A) freight forwarder

B) free alongside

C) ex works

D) dead freight

Q3) A "with average" policy contains a ________ that provides for payment only if the loss exceeds a specified minimum amount.

A) Himalaya Clause

B) franchise clause

C) constructive loss clause

D) loss payee clause

Q4) What is the purpose of issuing a bill of lading?

Q5) What is a charterparty?

Q6) Differentiate between a conference line and an independent line.

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Chapter 12: Financing

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Sample Questions

Q1) To be negotiable, a bill or note must contain a promise by the drawer to make payment.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Parties with secondary liability to an instrument can only be sought after the instrument has been dishonored.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Tolling is a type of countertrade which involves the exchange of a monetary debt for another form of debt, such as an equity share or an obligation to deliver products, goods, or services.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The transfer of all or some of the rights under a contract is called a(n) ________.

A) assignment

B) allonge

C) endorsement

D) restrictive endorsement

Q5) Describe the unconditionality feature of a bill or note.

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