Intercultural Communication Question Bank
Course Introduction
Intercultural Communication explores the theories, practices, and challenges of communication between people from different cultural backgrounds. This course examines the impact of culture on language, verbal and nonverbal messages, perception, and interaction styles within a global context. Students will analyze cultural values, identity, and power dynamics, while developing skills to recognize and overcome barriers to effective intercultural communication. Emphasis is placed on practical strategies for adapting communication to enhance mutual understanding and collaboration in diverse personal, academic, and professional environments.
Recommended Textbook
Intercultural Communication A Contextual Approach 6th Edition by James W. Neuliep
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
56 Chapters
4808 Verified Questions
4808 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1695
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33558
Sample Questions
Q1) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a A)biosystem.
B)community.
C)population.
D)ecosystem.
E)family.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of these individuals is likely to be most successful in an evolutionary sense?
A)a reproductively sterile individual who never falls ill
B)an organism that dies after five days of life but leaves 10 offspring, all of whom survive to reproduce
C)a male who mates with 20 females and fathers one offspring
D)an organism that lives 100 years and leaves two offspring, both of whom survive to reproduce
E)a female who mates with 20 males and produces one offspring that lives to reproduce
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33559
Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical bond/interaction strength appears in what order?
A)Hydrogen > covalent > ionic > VanderWaals.
B)Covalent > ionic > hydrogen > VanderWaals.
C)Covalent > hydrogen > ionic > VanderWaals.
D)VanderWaals > hydrogen > ionic > covalent.
E)Ionic > hydrogen > VanderWaals > covalent.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following would be regarded as compounds?
A)H O, O , and CH
B)H O and O
C)O and CH
D)CH and O , but not H O
E)H O and CH , but not O
Answer: E
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 3: Water and Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33560
Sample Questions
Q1) How many grams would be equal to 1 mol of the compound shown in the figure above? (carbon = 12, oxygen = 16, hydrogen = 1)
A)29
B)30
C)60
D)150
E)342
Answer: C
Q2) Research indicates that acid precipitation can damage living organisms by
A)buffering aquatic systems such as lakes and streams.
B)decreasing the H concentration of lakes and streams.
C)increasing the OH concentration of lakes and streams.
D)washing away certain mineral ions that help buffer soil solution and are essential nutrients for plant growth.
E)both decreasing the H concentration of lakes and streams and increasing the OH concentration of lakes and streams.
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 5
Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33561
Sample Questions
Q1) Which molecule shown above contains a carboxyl group?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Organic chemistry is currently defined as
A)the study of compounds made only by living cells.
B)the study of carbon compounds.
C)the study of vital forces.
D)the study of natural (as opposed to synthetic)compounds.
E)the study of hydrocarbons.
Q3) Which molecule(s)shown above is (are)ionized in aqueous solution at pH 7?
A)A
B)B and D
C)D and E
D)D
E)E
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
6
Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33562
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true for the class of biological molecules known as lipids?
A)They are insoluble in water.
B)They are made from glycerol, fatty acids, and phosphate.
C)They contain less energy than proteins and carbohydrates.
D)They are made by dehydration reactions.
E)They contain nitrogen.
Q2) The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is the
A)primary level.
B)secondary level.
C)tertiary level.
D)quaternary level.
E)All structural levels are equally affected.
Q3) What is the structure shown in the figure above?
A)pentose molecule
B)fatty acid molecule
C)steroid molecule
D)oligosaccharide molecule
E)phospholipid molecule
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33563
Sample Questions
Q1) Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following structures in animal cells?
A)peroxisomes
B)desmosomes
C)gap junctions
D)extracellular matrix
E)tight junctions
Q2) When a potassium ion (K )moves from the soil into the vacuole of a cell on the surface of a root, it must pass through several cellular structures. Which of the following correctly describes the order in which these structures will be encountered by the ion?
A)plasma membrane primary cell wall cytoplasm vacuole
B)secondary cell wall plasma membrane primary cell wall cytoplasm vacuole
C)primary cell wall plasma membrane cytoplasm vacuole
D)primary cell wall plasma membrane lysosome cytoplasm vacuole
E)primary cell wall plasma membrane cytoplasm secondary cell wall vacuole
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33564
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a carrier protein in a plasma membrane?
A)It is a peripheral membrane protein.
B)It exhibits a specificity for a particular type of molecule.
C)It requires the expenditure of cellular energy to function.
D)It works against diffusion.
E)It has few, if any, hydrophobic amino acids.
Q2) The formulation of a model for a structure or for a process serves which of the following purposes?
A)It asks a scientific question.
B)It functions as a testable hypothesis.
C)It records observations.
D)It serves as a data point among results.
E)It can only be arrived at after years of experimentation.
Q3) After the system reaches equilibrium, what changes are observed?
A)The molarity of sucrose and glucose are equal on both sides.
B)The molarity of glucose is higher in side A than in side B.
C)The water level is higher in side A than in side B.
D)The water level is unchanged.
E)The water level is higher in side B than in side A.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
88 Verified Questions
88 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33565
Sample Questions
Q1) This treatment functions under the principle of A)competitive inhibition.
B)non-competitive inhibition.
C)feedback inhibition.
D)decreasing substrate availability.
E)there is no treatment.
Q2) Energy coupling occurs when
A)an endergonic reaction drives an exergonic reaction.
B)an exergonic reaction drives an endergonic reaction.
C)heat is generated.
D)allosteric interactions are at work.
E)chemical equilibrium is reached.
Q3) A reaction that absorbs free energy from its surroundings is a(n)________ reaction.
A)spontaneous
B)endothermic
C)exothermic
D)endergonic
E)exergonic
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33566
Sample Questions
Q1) During glycolysis, when each molecule of glucose is catabolized to two molecules of pyruvate, most of the potential energy contained in glucose is
A)transferred to ADP, forming ATP.
B)transferred directly to ATP.
C)retained in the two pyruvates.
D)stored in the NADH produced.
E)used to phosphorylate fructose to form fructose 6-phosphate.
Q2) What happens at the end of the chain in the figure above?
A)2 electrons combine with a proton and a molecule of NAD .
B)2 electrons combine with a molecule of oxygen and two hydrogen atoms.
C)4 electrons combine with a molecule of oxygen and 4 protons.
D)4 electrons combine with four hydrogen and two oxygen atoms.
E)1 electron combines with a molecule of oxygen and a hydrogen atom.
Q3) An electron loses potential energy when it
A)shifts to a less electronegative atom.
B)shifts to a more electronegative atom.
C)increases its kinetic energy.
D)increases its activity as an oxidizing agent.
E) .
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33567
Sample Questions
Q1) In C photosynthesis, the reactions that require ATP take place in
A)the light reactions alone.
B)the Calvin cycle alone.
C)both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle.
D)neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle.
E)the chloroplast, but are not part of photosynthesis.
Q2) What are the products of linear photophosphorylation?
A)heat and fluorescence
B)ATP and P700
C)ATP and NADPH
D)ADP and NADP
E)P700 and P680
Q3) Reduction of oxygen to form water occurs during
A)photosynthesis only.
B)respiration only.
C)both photosynthesis and respiration.
D)neither photosynthesis nor respiration.
E)photorespiration only.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
77 Verified Questions
77 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33568
Sample Questions
Q1) In the formation of biofilms, such as those forming on unbrushed teeth, cell signalling serves which function?
A)formation of mating complexes
B)secretion of apoptotic signals
C)aggregation of bacteria that can cause cavities
D)secretion of substances that inhibit foreign bacteria
E)digestion of unwanted parasite populations
Q2) Consider this pathway: epinephrine G protein-coupled receptor G protein adenylyl cyclase cAMP. Identify the second messenger.
A)cAMP
B)G protein
C)GTP
D)adenylyl cyclase
E)G protein-coupled receptor
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33569
Sample Questions
Q1) Which number represents the point in the cell cycle during which the chromosomes are replicated?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
E)V
Q2) For a chemotherapeutic drug to be useful for treating cancer cells, which of the following is most desirable?
A)It is safe enough to limit all apoptosis.
B)It does not alter metabolically active cells.
C)It only attacks cells that are density dependent.
D)It interferes with cells entering G .
E)It interferes with rapidly dividing cells.
Q3) Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis?
A)to increase their potential energy
B)to allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled and breaking
C)to allow the chromosomes to fit within the nuclear envelope
D)to allow the sister chromatids to remain attached
E)to provide for the structure of the centromere
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33570
Sample Questions
Q1) When does the synaptonemal complex disappear?
A)late prophase of meiosis I
B)during fertilization or fusion of gametes
C)early anaphase of meiosis I
D)mid-prophase of meiosis II
E)late metaphase of meiosis II
Q2) The human X and Y chromosomes
A)are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.
B)are of approximately equal size and number of genes.
C)are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names.
D)include genes that determine an individual's sex.
E)include only genes that govern sex determination.
Q3) How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes made by an organism with a diploid number of 8 (2n = 8)?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33571
Sample Questions
Q1) Most genes have many more than two alleles. However, which of the following is also true?
A)At least one allele for a gene always produces a dominant phenotype.
B)Most of the alleles will never be found in a live-born organism.
C)All of the alleles but one will produce harmful effects if homozygous.
D)There may still be only two phenotypes for the trait.
E)More than two alleles in a genotype is considered lethal.
Q2) Mendel's second law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis I?
A)synapsis of homologous chromosomes
B)crossing over
C)alignment of tetrads at the equator
D)separation of homologues at anaphase
E)separation of cells at telophase
Q3) An individual that has two different alleles for the same trait is said to be
A)homozygotic.
B)heterozygotic.
C)recessive.
D)polygenic.
E)pleiotropic.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33572
Sample Questions
Q1) In humans, clear gender differentiation occurs, not at fertilization, but after the second month of gestation. What is the first event of this differentiation?
A)formation of testosterone in male embryos
B)formation of estrogens in female embryos
C)anatomical differentiation of a penis in male embryos
D)activation of SRY in male embryos and masculinization of the gonads
E)activation of SRY in females and feminization of the gonads
Q2) A woman is found to have 47 chromosomes, including three X chromosomes. Which of the following describes her expected phenotype?
A)masculine characteristics such as facial hair
B)enlarged genital structures
C)excessive emotional instability
D)normal female
E)sterile female
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33573
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following help(s)to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated?
A)primase
B)ligase
C)DNA polymerase
D)single-strand binding proteins
E)exonuclease
Q2) Once the pattern found after one round of replication was observed, Meselson and Stahl could be confident of which of the following conclusions?
A)Replication is semi-conservative.
B)Replication is not dispersive.
C)Replication is not semi-conservative.
D)Replication is not conservative.
E)Replication is neither dispersive nor conservative.
Q3) How do we describe transformation in bacteria?
A)the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule
B)the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule
C)the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule
D)the type of semiconservative replication shown by DNA
E)assimilation of external DNA into a cell
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33574
Sample Questions
Q1) There are 61 mRNA codons that specify an amino acid, but only 45 tRNAs. This is best explained by the fact that
A)some tRNAs have anticodons that recognize four or more different codons.
B)the rules for base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are flexible.
C)many codons are never used, so the tRNAs that recognize them are dispensable.
D)the DNA codes for all 61 tRNAs but some are then destroyed.
E)competitive exclusion forces some tRNAs to be destroyed by nucleases.
Q2) Which components of the previous molecule will also be found in mRNA in the cytosol?
A)5' UTR I I I UTR 3'
B)5' E E E E 3'
C)5' UTR E E E E UTR 3'
D)5' I I I 3'
E)5' E I E I E I E 3'
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
107 Verified Questions
107 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33575
Sample Questions
Q1) What has happened to make the products C and D?
A)frame shift mutation
B)loss of introns
C)mRNA degradation
D)incorrect 5' cap placement
E)alternative splicing
Q2) Absence of bicoid mRNA from a Drosophila egg leads to the absence of anterior larval body parts and mirror-image duplication of posterior parts. This is evidence that the product of the bicoid gene
A)is transcribed in the early embryo.
B)normally leads to formation of tail structures.
C)normally leads to formation of head structures.
D)is a protein present in all head structures.
E)leads to programmed cell death.
Q3) Where would B be located in the cell?
A)cytoplasm
B)ER
C)nucleus
D)attached to ribosomes
E)in a vesicle
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Viruses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33576
Sample Questions
Q1) If this virus has a positive RNA strand as its genome, it begins the infection by using this strand as mRNA. Therefore, which of the following do you expect to be able to measure?
A)replication rate
B)transcription rate
C)translation rate
D)accumulation of new ribosomes
E)formation of new transcription factors
Q2) Which viruses have single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis?
A)lytic phages
B)proviruses
C)viroids
D)bacteriophages
E)retroviruses
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
21
Chapter 20: Dna Tools and Biotechnology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33577
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium? I. Transform bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule.
II. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes.
III. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.
IV. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments.
V. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA.
A)I, II, IV, III, V
B)II, III, V, IV, I
C)III, II, IV, V, I
D)III, IV, V, I, II
E)IV, V, I, II, III
Q2) What would be a plausible suggestion to produce this protein for human use?
A)Breed less aggressive spiders until they are "domesticated."
B)Identify the protein and synthesize it using other materials.
C)Insert the gene into another organism that is easier to culture and have it produce the silk protein.
D)Never mind-it's too difficult and too small a product to try.
E)There is nothing that can be done at this stage in our understanding but in time there may be a solution.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33578
Sample Questions
Q1) The -globin and -globin gene families are found on different chromosomes in humans. What is the suspected reason for this?
A)They evolved at different times.
B)There was a gene duplication event.
C)The -globin originally coded for a different protein family.
D)Our ancestors didn't use the -globin genes.
E)They were originally on the same chromosome but one set was moved via transposable elements.
Q2) The comparison between the number of human genes and those of other animal species has led to many conclusions, including
A)the density of the human genome is far higher than in most other animals.
B)the number of proteins expressed by the human genome is far more than the number of its genes.
C)most human DNA consists of genes for protein, tRNA, rRNA, and miRNA.
D)the genomes of other organisms are most significantly smaller than the human genome.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Descent With Modification: a Darwinian View of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33579
Sample Questions
Q1) Which pair would probably have agreed with the process that is depicted by this tree?
A)Cuvier and Lamarck
B)Lamarck and Wallace
C)Aristotle and Lyell
D)Wallace and Linnaeus
E)Linnaeus and Lamarck
Q2) What is true of pseudogenes?
A)They are composed of RNA, rather than DNA.
B)They are the same things as introns.
C)They are unrelated genes that code for the same gene product.
D)They are vestigial genes.
Q3) Which of the following statements about natural selection is a misconception?
A)Natural selection involves differential reproductive success.
B)Natural selection occurs when individuals evolve.
C)In natural selection, traits that are favoured depend on current environmental conditions.
D)Natural selection occurs as a result of competition among individuals in a population.
E)Natural selection acts on heritable variations in a population.
Page 24
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33580
Sample Questions
Q1) Sexual dimorphism is most often a result of
A)pansexual selection.
B)stabilizing selection.
C)intrasexual selection.
D)intersexual selection.
E)artificial selection.
Q2) In Kluane National Park, red squirrels have been recorded giving birth 18 days earlier than a decade ago. Offspring born earlier become larger and more likely to survive. What mode of selection best describes these current research findings?
A)stabilizing selection
B)directional selection
C)disruptive selection
D)transitional selection
E)Selection will vary depending on temperature and amount of snow in spring.
Q3) What is the estimated frequency of allele A in the gene pool?
A)0.25
B)0.50
C)0.75
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
25
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
71 Verified Questions
71 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33581
Sample Questions
Q1) Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum)and one-seeded juniper (J. monosperma)have overlapping ranges. If pollen grains (which contain sperm cells)from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes on female ovules (which contain egg cells)of the other species, then which of these terms is applicable?
A)behavioural isolation
B)mechanical isolation
C)hybrid breakdown
D)reduced hybrid viability
Q2) Polyploidy can be best described as
A)a form of speciation that commonly occurs in plants and animals.
B)an error in mitosis.
C)a condition that could lead to speciation as a result of duplication of chromosomes.
D)a condition that requires geographic isolation.
E)a condition that enhances gene flow.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33582
Sample Questions
Q1) Fossil evidence indicates that several kinds of flightless dinosaurs possessed feathers. If some of these feather-bearing dinosaurs incubated clutches of eggs in carefully constructed nests, this might be evidence supporting the claim that A)dinosaurs were as fully endothermal (warm-blooded)as modern birds and mammals. B)their feathers originally served as insulation, and only later became flight surfaces.
C)the earliest reptiles could fly, and the feathers of flightless dinosaurs were vestigial flight surfaces.
D)the feathers were plucked from the bodies of other adults to provide nest-building materials.
E)all fossils with feathers are actually some kind of bird.
Q2) A swim bladder is a gas-filled sac that helps fish maintain buoyancy. The evolution of the swim bladder from lungs of an ancestral fish is an example of A)an evolutionary trend.
B)exaptation.
C)changes in Hox gene expression.
D)paedomorphosis.
E)adaptive radiation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 27
Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33583
Sample Questions
Q1) If it turns out that the whale lineage diverged from the lineage leading to hippos after the divergence of the lineage leading to the pigs and other artiodactyls, and if the whales continue to be classified in the order Cetacea, then what becomes true of the order Artiodactyla?
A)It becomes monophyletic.
B)It becomes paraphyletic.
C)It becomes polyphyletic.
D)It is incorporated into the order Cetacea.
Q2) Which portion of the above figure may ultimately be better depicted as a "ring"?
A)the bacterial lineage
B)the archaean lineage
C)the eukaryotic lineage
D)the trunk of the tree
E)the part corresponding to the first living cell on Earth
Q3) Which kingdom has been replaced with two domains?
A)Plantae
B)Fungi
C)Animalia
D)Protista
E)Monera
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33584
Sample Questions
Q1) If all prokaryotes on Earth suddenly vanished, which of the following would be the most likely and most direct result?
A)The number of organisms on Earth would decrease by 10-20%.
B)Human populations would thrive in the absence of disease.
C)Bacteriophage numbers would dramatically increase.
D)The recycling of nutrients would be greatly reduced, at least initially.
E)There would be no more pathogens on Earth.
Q2) In which feature(s)should one be able to locate a complete chromosome of this bacterium? 1. nucleolus
2. prophage
3. endospore
4. nucleoid
A)4 only
B)1 and 3
C)2 and 3
D)3 and 4
E)2, 3, and 4
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 28: Protists
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33585
Sample Questions
Q1) If true, which of the following is the best evidence that the cyanelles are providing nutrition (in other words, calories)to the surrounding cercozoan?
A)if the cyanelle performs aerobic photosynthesis
B)if the vesicle membrane that surrounds each cyanelle possesses glucose-transport proteins
C)if the cyanelle performs aerobic respiration
D)if radiolabelled ¹ CO enters the cyanelle and if, subsequently, radiolabelled glucose is present in cercozoan cytosol
E)if radiolabelled "heavy" water, ²H O, enters the cyanelle and if, subsequently, radiolabelled oxygen appears in cercozoan cytosol
Q2) The chloroplasts of all of the following are thought to be derived from ancestral red algae, except those of
A)golden algae.
B)diatoms.
C)dinoflagellates.
D)green algae.
E)brown algae.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 30
Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33586
Sample Questions
Q1) A botanist discovers a new species of plant in a tropical rain forest. After observing its anatomy and life cycle, he notes the following characteristics: flagellated sperm, xylem with tracheids, separate gametophyte and sporophyte generations with the sporophyte dominant, and no seeds. This plant is probably most closely related to A)mosses.
B)charophytes.
C)ferns.
D)gymnosperms.
E)flowering plants.
Q2) This organism probably belongs to the same phylum as the A)ferns, horsetails, and whisk ferns.
B)club mosses, quillworts, and spike mosses.
C)mosses, hornworts, and liverworts.
D)conifers.
E)charophytes.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 30: Plant Diversity Ii: the Evolution of Seed Plants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
110 Verified Questions
110 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33587
Sample Questions
Q1) In the figure above, which number represents the mature gametophyte?
Q2) In a typical angiosperm, what is the sequence of structures encountered by the tip of a growing pollen tube on its way to the egg? 1. micropyle
2. style
3. ovary
4. stigma
2 3 1 B)4 3 2 1
4 2 3 D)1 3 4 2
E)3 2 4 1
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
32
Chapter 31: Fungi
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
97 Verified Questions
97 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33588
Sample Questions
Q1) In what structures do both Penicillium and Aspergillus produce asexual spores?
A)asci
B)zygosporangia
C)rhizoids
D)gametangia
E)conidiophores
Q2) Surface area represents the area available for exchange with the environment, whereas volume represents the cytoplasm which requires nutrients and from which waste products (usually toxic)must be removed. Which of the following should provide the most favourable conditions for effective exchange?
A)a smaller unicellular yeast
B)a larger unicellular yeast
C)a shorter filamentous hypha
D)a longer filamentous hypha
Q3) What do fungi and arthropods have in common?
A)Both groups are commonly coenocytic.
B)The haploid state is dominant in both groups.
C)Both groups are predominantly heterotrophs that ingest their food.
D)The protective coats of both groups are made of chitin.
E)Both groups have cell walls.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 33
Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33589
Sample Questions
Q1) This embryo may potentially develop into a(n)
A)turtle.
B)earthworm.
C)sea star.
D)fish.
E)sea urchin.
Q2) What is true of the deuterostomes in the molecular phylogeny (B)that is not true in the traditional phylogeny (A)?
A)Deuterostomia is a clade.
B)To maintain Deuterostomia as a clade, some phyla had to be removed from it.
C)Deuterostomia now includes the Acoela.
D)It is actually a grade, rather than a clade.
E)It diverged from the rest of the Bilateria earlier than did the Acoela.
Q3) The distinction between sponges and other animal phyla is based mainly on the absence versus the presence of
A)a body cavity.
B)a complete digestive tract.
C)a circulatory system.
D)true tissues.
E)mesoderm.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 34
Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33590
Sample Questions
Q1) How many of the following can be used to distinguish a nematode worm from an annelid worm? 1. type of body cavity
2. number of muscle layers in the body wall
3. presence of segmentation
4. number of embryonic tissue layers
5. shape of worm in cross-sectional view
A)one of these
B)two of these
C)three of these
D)four of these
E)five of these
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of adult echinoderms?
A)bilateral symmetry
B)spiral cleavage
C)gastrovascular cavity
D)exoskeleton
E)lophophore
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 35
Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33591
Sample Questions
Q1) Hagfish have slime glands that can produce large amounts of slime. What is an important function of slime production?
A)Slime makes the hagfish slippery, enabling it to swim faster and escape predators.
B)Slime makes the hagfish slippery, so it slips out of a predator's grasp.
C)The slime can coat the gills of predators and suffocate them.
D)Slime clouds the water, allowing the hagfish time to escape.
E)Slime is toxic and poisons the predator.
Q2) During chordate evolution, what is the sequence (from earliest to most recent)in which the following structures arose? 1. amniotic egg
2. paired fins
3. jaws
4. swim bladder
5. four-chambered heart
A)2, 3, 4, 1, 5
B)3, 2, 4, 1, 5
C)3, 2, 1, 4, 5
D)2, 1, 4, 3, 5
E)2, 4, 3, 1, 5
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 36
Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33592
Sample Questions
Q1) A cell that is most likely to retain the ability to divide, perform metabolic functions, and store photosynthate would be a
A)parenchyma cell in a leaf.
B)vessel element in the vascular system.
C)endodermal cell in a root.
D)bark cell.
E)fibre cell.
Q2) Which part of a plant absorbs most of the water and minerals taken up from the soil?
A)taproots
B)root hairs
C)the thick parts of the roots near the base of the stem
D)storage roots
E)sections of the root that have secondary xylem
Q3) A monocot stem is represented by
A)I only.
B)II only.
C)III only.
D)IV only.
E)both I and III.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 37
Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33593
Sample Questions
Q1) Pine seedlings grown in sterile potting soil grow much more slowly than seedlings grown in soil from the area where the seeds were collected. This is most likely because A)the sterilization process kills the root hairs as they emerge from the seedling.
B)the normal symbiotic fungi are not present in the sterilized soil.
C)sterilization removes essential nutrients from the soil.
D)water and mineral uptake are faster when mycorrhizae are present.
E)B and D.
Q2) Given that early land plants most likely share a common ancestor with green algae, the earliest land plants were most likely
A)nonvascular plants that grew leafless photosynthetic shoots above the shallow fresh water in which they lived.
B)species that did not exhibit alternation of generations.
C)vascular plants with well-defined root systems.
D)plants with well-developed leaves.
E)species with a well-developed, thick cuticle.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 38
Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33594
Sample Questions
Q1) In what way do nitrogen compounds differ from other minerals needed by plants?
A)Only nitrogen can be lost from the soil.
B)Only nitrogen requires the action of bacteria to be made available to plants.
C)Only nitrogen is needed for protein synthesis.
D)Only nitrogen is held by cation exchange capacity in the soil.
E)Only nitrogen can be absorbed by root hairs.
Q2) Micronutrients are needed in very small amounts because
A)most of them are mobile in the plant.
B)most serve mainly as cofactors of enzymes.
C)most are supplied in large enough quantities in seeds.
D)they play only a minor role in the growth and health of the plant.
E)only the most actively growing regions of the plants require micronutrients.
Q3) Which of the following habitats would most likely have a high proportion of species of plants that are in symbiotic association with nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
A)anoxic soils such as fens and bogs
B)nutrient-limiting soils such as wet tropical rain forests
C)loamy soils such as temperate forests
D)agriculturally productive regions that have gone fallow
E)alpine coniferous forests
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 39
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33595
Sample Questions
Q1) A transgenic plant is one that
A)contains a graft from another individual of the same species.
B)contains genes from another species.
C)has had genes from another individual of the same species inserted into its genome.
D)has been selected to withstand severe environmental stresses.
E)has had certain traits modified by artificial selection for many generations.
Q2) A flowering plant with a deleterious mutation in microsporogenesis would most likely
A)fail to produce sepals.
B)fail to produce petals.
C)fail to produce anthers.
D)fail to produce pollen.
E)fail to produce ovules.
Q3) The ________ produces the pollen tube in the above figure.
A)anther
B)microspore
C)tube cell
D)generative cell
E)filament
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33596
Sample Questions
Q1) The ripening of fruit and the dropping of leaves and fruit are principally controlled by A)auxins.
B)cytokinins.
C)indole acetic acid.
D)ethylene.
E)carbon dioxide concentration (in air).
Q2) We know from the experiments of the past that plants bend toward light because A)they need sunlight energy for photosynthesis.
B)the sun stimulates stem growth.
C)cell expansion is greater on the dark side of the stem.
D)auxin is inactive on the dark side of the stem.
E)phytochrome stimulates florigen production.
Q3) The plant hormone involved in aging and ripening of fruit is A)auxin.
B)ethylene.
C)florigen.
D)abscisic acid.
E)gibberellin.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 41
Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33597
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following choices, the epithelium with the shortest diffusion distance is
A)simple squamous epithelium.
B)simple cuboidal epithelium.
C)simple columnar epithelium.
D)pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
E)stratified squamous epithelium.
Q2) During its months-long hibernation in its burrow, the body temperature of a ground squirrel
A)is held at a constant 37°C.
B)is held at a constant 5°C.
C)varies between 5°C and 37°C, depending on the frequency of arousals from hibernation.
D)varies between 5°C and 15°C, depending on the external temperature outside of the burrow.
E)varies between -5°C and +5°C, depending on the temperature in the burrow.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33598
Sample Questions
Q1) A significant contribution of intestinal bacteria to human nutrition is the benefit of bacterial
A)production of vitamins A and C.
B)generation of gases needed for elimination.
C)absorption of organic materials.
D)production of vitamin K.
E)recovery of water from fecal matter.
Q2) After surgical removal of an infected gallbladder, a person must be especially careful to restrict dietary intake of
A)starch.
B)protein.
C)sugar.
D)fat.
E)water.
Q3) Which of the following organs is incorrectly paired with its function?
A)stomach-protein digestion
B)oral cavity-starch digestion
C)large intestine-bile production
D)small intestine-nutrient absorption
E)pancreas-enzyme production
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33599
Sample Questions
Q1) If a molecule of CO released into the blood in your left toe is exhaled from your nose, it must pass through all of the following except
A)the pulmonary vein.
B)an alveolus.
C)the trachea.
D)the right atrium.
E)the right ventricle.
Q2) An atmospheric scientist has created a mixture of air consisting of 15% oxygen and PO of 75 mm Hg. The overall air pressure is
A)500 mm Hg.
B)5 mm Hg.
C)50 mm Hg.
D)0.5 mm Hg.
E)5000 mm Hg.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 44
Chapter 43: The Immune System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
110 Verified Questions
110 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33600
Sample Questions
Q1) Following radiation, a person's bone marrow is been destroyed. Which of the following cells are no longer produced? I. B cells
II. T cells
III. erythrocytes
IV. lysosome
A)I and II
B)I, II, and III
C)I, II, and IV
D)II, III, an IV
E)II and III
Q2) In the human disease known as lupus, there is an immune reaction against a patient's own DNA from broken or dying cells, which categorizes lupus as
A)an allergy.
B)an immunodeficiency.
C)an autoimmune disease.
D)an antigenic variation.
E)a cancer.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 45
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33601
Sample Questions
Q1) Human urine is usually more acidic than most other body fluids because A)hydrogen ions are actively moved into the filtrate.
B)the sodium transporter exchanges one hydrogen ion for each sodium ion.
C)excreted plasma proteins are nearly all acidic ions.
D)excreted amino acids are in abundance.
E)potassium and sodium exchange generates lots of acidity.
Q2) Which excretory system modification do you expect to find?
A)absent juxtamedullary nephron
B)short loop of Henle, excreting dilute urine
C)long loop of Henle extending deep into the medulla
D)extensive capillary network on the metanephridia
E)very long flame bulbs in the protonephridia
Q3) Excretory structures known as protonephridia are present in A)flatworms.
B)earthworms.
C)insects.
D)vertebrates.
E)cnidarians.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33602
Sample Questions
Q1) Endocrine structures derived from nervous tissue include the A)thymus and the thyroid.
B)ovaries and the testes.
C)liver and the pancreas.
D)anterior pituitary gland and the adrenal cortex.
E)posterior pituitary gland and the adrenal medulla.
Q2) The higher level of metabolic activity typical of nonhibernating temperate mammals during the winter months is due to increased secretion of A)ecdysteroid.
B)glucagon.
C)thyroxine.
D)oxytocin.
E)growth hormone.
Q3) After eating a carbohydrate-rich meal, the mammalian pancreas increases its secretion of A)ecdysteroid.
B)glucagon.
C)thyroxine.
D)oxytocin. E)insulin.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33603
Sample Questions
Q1) External chemical signals that coordinate potential reproductive partners are called A)hormones.
B)pheromones.
C)paracrine signals.
D)cytokines.
E)gametes.
Q2) The incidence of tubal or ectopic pregnancy can be increased by all of the following conditions except
A)endometriosis.
B)sexually transmitted infection.
C)uterine bacterial infection.
D)cilia damage in Fallopian tubes.
E)natural vaginal birth.
Q3) In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human ovarian cycle are
A)menstrual ovulation luteal.
B)follicular luteal secretory.
C)menstrual proliferative secretory.
D)follicular ovulation luteal.
E)proliferative luteal ovulation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 48
Chapter 47: Animal Development
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
98 Verified Questions
98 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33604
Sample Questions
Q1) The nematode Caenorhabditis elegans
A)is composed of a single cell, in which the developmental origin of each protein has been mapped.
B)is composed of about 1000 cells, in which the developmental origin of each cell has been mapped.
C)has only a single chromosome, which has been fully sequenced.
D)has about 1000 genes, each of which has been fully sequenced.
E)uniquely, among animals, utilizes programmed cell death during normal development.
Q2) When you slice up a pie that contains a swirled mixture of chocolate and vanilla filling, you notice that some slices have more chocolate than vanilla and that other slices have more vanilla than chocolate. This uneven distribution of chocolate and vanilla is most like the uneven distribution of
A)nuclei in a zygote.
B)nuclei in an early embryo.
C)nuclei in an egg prior to fertilization.
D)cytoplasmic determinants in a newly formed zygote.
E)cytoplasmic determinants in a baby just prior to birth.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 49
Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signalling
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33605
Sample Questions
Q1) The following steps refer to various stages in transmission at a chemical synapse. 1. Neurotransmitter binds with receptors associated with the postsynaptic membrane.
2. Calcium ions rush into neuron's cytoplasm.
3. An action potential depolarizes the membrane of the axon terminal.
4. The ligand-gated ion channels open.
5. The synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft. Which sequence of events is correct?
A)1 2 3 4 5
B)2 3 5 4 1
C)3 2 5 1 4
D)4 3 1 2 5
E)5 1 2 4 3
Q2) Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction?
A)The nodes of Ranvier conduct potentials in one direction.
B)The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated Na channels.
C)The axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than the terminals of the axon.
D)Ions can flow along the axon in only one direction.
E)Voltage-gated channels for both Na and K open in only one direction.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33606
Sample Questions
Q1) Learning a new language during adulthood alters activity in the brain's language-processing locations by
A)altering synaptic effectiveness in these locations.
B)increasing the rate of mitosis in these locations.
C)inhibiting synapses that work in the previously learned language.
D)causing established neurons to produce different neurotransmitter molecules.
E)forming electrical synapses between cells.
Q2) Early onset Alzheimer's is similar to early-onset Parkinson's in that both A)result in amyloid plaques on neurons.
B)have a genetic basis.
C)activate the VTA.
D)involve the neurotransmitter glutamate.
E)inhibit the release of dopamine.
Q3) The coordination of groups of skeletal muscles is driven by activity in the A)cerebrum.
B)cerebellum.
C)thalamus.
D)hypothalamus.
E)medulla oblongata.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 51
Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33607
Sample Questions
Q1) A ball-and-socket joint connects
A)the radius to the ulna.
B)the radius to the humerus.
C)the ulna to the humerus.
D)the humerus to the scapula.
E)the radius to the scapula.
Q2) Muscle cells are stimulated by neurotransmitters released from the synaptic terminals of
A)T tubules.
B)motor neuron axons.
C)sensory neuron axons.
D)motor neuron dendrites.
E)sensory neuron dendrites.
Q3) Which sensory distinction is not encoded by a difference in neuron identity?
A)white and red
B)red and green
C)loud and faint
D)salty and sweet
E)spicy and cool
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 52
Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33608
Sample Questions
Q1) If mayflies lay eggs on roads instead of in water, it would indicate which of the following?
A)a defective gene
B)trial-and-error learning
C)a misdirected response to a sign stimulus
D)a natural behavioural variation in the mayfly population
E)aberrant behaviour due to insecticide poisoning
Q2) A region of the canary forebrain shrinks during the nonbreeding season and enlarges when breeding season begins. This change is probably associated with the annual
A)addition of new syllables to a canary's song repertoire.
B)crystallization of subsong into adult songs.
C)sensitive period in which canary parents imprint on new offspring.
D)renewal of mating and nest-building behaviours.
E)elimination of the memorized template for songs sung the previous year.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
53
Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33609
Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose that the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of vertical strata found in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes would you find the greatest number of bird species?
A)tropical rain forest
B)savanna
C)desert
D)temperate broadleaf forest
E)temperate grassland
Q2) "How do seed-eating animals affect the distribution and abundance of the trees?"
This question
A)would require an elaborate experimental design to answer.
B)would be difficult to answer because a large experimental area would be required.
C)would be difficult to answer because a long-term experiment would be required.
D)is one that a present-day ecologist would be likely to ask.
E)All options are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 53: Population Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33610
Sample Questions
Q1) Population ecologists are primarily interested in
A)studying interactions among populations of organisms that inhabit the same area.
B)understanding how biotic and abiotic factors influence the density, distribution, size, and age structure of populations.
C)how humans affect the size of wild populations of organisms.
D)how populations evolve as natural selection acts on heritable variations among individuals and changes in gene frequency.
E)the overall vitality of a population of organisms.
Q2) Why did the 2009 U.S. population continue to grow even though the United States had essentially established a zero population growth?
A)emigration
B)immigration
C)better sanitation
D)baby boomer reproduction
E)the 2007-2009 economic recession
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 55
Chapter 54: Community Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33611
Sample
Questions
Q1) Elephants are not the most dominant species in African grasslands, yet they influence community structure. The grasslands contain scattered woody plants, but they are kept in check by the uprooting activities of the elephants. Take away the elephants, and the grasslands convert to forests or to shrublands. The newly growing forests support fewer species than the previous grasslands. Which of the following describes why elephants are the keystone species in this scenario?
A)Essentially all of the other species depend on the presence of the elephants to maintain the community.
B)Grazing animals depend upon the elephants to convert forests to grassland.
C)Elephants prevent drought in African grasslands.
D)Elephants are the biggest herbivore in this community.
E)Elephants help other populations survive by keeping out many of the large African predators.
Q2) What interactions exist between a "carrier crab" and "sea urchin hitch-hiker"? A)+/+
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 56
Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33612
Sample Questions
Q1) Which trophic level is most vulnerable to extinction?
A)producer level
B)primary consumer level
C)secondary consumer level
D)tertiary consumer level
E)decomposer level
Q2) On the diagram of the nitrogen cycle, which number represents nitrite (NO )?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q3) How do the Taylor Glacier bacteria produce their energy?
A)photosynthesis
B)heterotrophism
C)chemoautotrophism
D)thermophobism
E)chemosynthesis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 57
Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33613
Sample Questions
Q1) How might the extinction of some Pacific Island bats called "flying foxes" threaten the survival of over 75% of the tree species in those islands?
A)The bats eat the insects that harm competitor plants.
B)The bats consume the fruit including the seeds that would disrupt the trees' reproductive cycle.
C)The bats roost in the trees and fertilize soil around the trees with their nitrogen-rich droppings.
D)The bats pollinate the trees and disperse seeds.
E)The bats pierce the fruit, which allows the seeds to germinate.
Q2) Which of the following is a type of research in which a conservation biologist would be involved?
A)reestablishing whooping cranes in their former breeding grounds in North Dakota
B)studying species diversity and interaction in the Florida Everglades, past and present
C)studying population ecology of grizzly bears in Yellowstone National Park
D)determining the effects of hunting white-tailed deer in Vermont
E)determining the effect of protection programs on the recovery of the North Atlantic cod fishery
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 58