Intercultural Communication Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Intercultural Communication explores the theories, principles, and practices involved in communicating across diverse cultural contexts. The course examines how cultural values, beliefs, and norms influence verbal and nonverbal interactions, and addresses the challenges and opportunities that arise in multicultural settings. Topics include cultural identity, perception, language barriers, intercultural conflict, adaptation, and the impact of globalization on communication. Students will develop skills to enhance their competence in communicating effectively and ethically with individuals from different cultural backgrounds in both personal and professional environments.
Recommended Textbook
Intercultural Communication A Contextual Approach 6th Edition by James W. Neuliep
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56 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A)A kingdom can include several subgroups known as domains.
B)All eukarya belong to one domain.
C)All prokaryotes belong to one domain.
D)The importance of fungi has led scientists to make them the whole of one domain.
E)Only organisms that produce their own food belong to one of the domains.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of these individuals is likely to be most successful in an evolutionary sense?
A)a reproductively sterile individual who never falls ill
B)an organism that dies after five days of life but leaves 10 offspring, all of whom survive to reproduce
C)a male who mates with 20 females and fathers one offspring
D)an organism that lives 100 years and leaves two offspring, both of whom survive to reproduce
E)a female who mates with 20 males and produces one offspring that lives to reproduce
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What bonding or interaction is most likely to occur among a broad array of molecules of various types (polar, nonpolar, hydrophilic, hydrophobic)?
A)covalent bonding
B)polar covalent bonding
C)ionic bonding
D)hydrogen bonding
E)van der Waals interactions
Answer: E
Q2) The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen-15 is heavier than nitrogen-14 because the atomic nucleus of nitrogen-15 contains how many neutrons?
A)6
B)7
C)8
D)12
E)14
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have a freshly prepared 0.1 M solution of glucose in water. Each litre of this solution contains how many glucose molecules?
A)6.02 × 10²³
B)3.01 × 10²³
C)6.02 × 10²
D)12.04 × 10²³
E)6.02 × 10²²
Answer: E
Q2) A slice of pizza has 2092 kJ. If we could burn the pizza and use all the heat to warm a 50-L container of cold water, what would be the approximate increase in the temperature of the water? (Note: A litre of cold water weighs about 1 kg.)
A)50°C
B)5°C
C)1°C
D)100°C
E)10°C
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the groups above is a basic functional group that can accept H and become positively charged?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Compared to a hydrocarbon chain where all the carbon atoms are linked by single bonds, a hydrocarbon chain with the same number of carbon atoms, but with one or more double bonds, will
A)be more flexible in structure.
B)be more constrained in structure.
C)be more polar.
D)have more hydrogen atoms.
E)have fewer structurally distinct isomers.
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6
Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is -CH -OH. The R group or side chain of the amino acid leucine is -CH -CH-(CH . Where would you expect to find these amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution?
A)Serine would be in the interior, and leucine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
B)Leucine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
C)Both serine and leucine would be in the interior of the globular protein.
D)Both serine and leucine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
E)Both serine and leucine would be in the interior and on the exterior of the globular protein.
Q2) The amino acids of the protein keratin are arranged predominantly in an helix. This secondary structure is stabilized by
A)covalent bonds.
B)peptide bonds.
C)ionic bonds.
D)polar bonds.
E)hydrogen bonds.
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) You immediately identify this as a(n)________ cell.
A)plant
B)animal
C)archaea
D)bacteria
E)protist
Q2) The image above is a ________ image.
A)light microscope
B)phase contrast
C)scanning electron micrograph
D)transmission electron micrograph
E)confocal
Q3) All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except A)DNA.
B)a cell wall.
C)a plasma membrane.
D)ribosomes.
E)an endoplasmic reticulum.
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8
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) Nitrous oxide gas molecules diffusing across a cell's plasma membrane is an example of
A)diffusion across the lipid bilayer.
B)facilitated diffusion.
C)active transport.
D)osmosis.
E)cotransport.
Q2) After the system reaches equilibrium, what changes are observed?
A)The molarity of sucrose and glucose are equal on both sides.
B)The molarity of glucose is higher in side A than in side B.
C)The water level is higher in side A than in side B.
D)The water level is unchanged.
E)The water level is higher in side B than in side A.
Q3) Which component is the fibre of the extracellular matrix?
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Page 9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) Most cells cannot harness heat to perform work because
A)heat is not a form of energy.
B)cells do not have much heat; they are relatively cool.
C)temperature is usually uniform throughout a cell.
D)heat can never be used to do work.
E)heat must remain constant during work.
Q2) For living organisms, which of the following is an important consequence of the first law of thermodynamics?
A)The energy content of an organism is constant.
B)The organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary energy for life from its environment.
C)The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in complexity.
D)Organisms grow by converting energy into organic matter.
E)Life does not obey the first law of thermodynamics.
Q3) The active site of an enzyme is the region that
A)binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme.
B)is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme.
C)binds noncompetitive inhibitors of the enzyme.
D)is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a glucose molecule loses a hydrogen atom as the result of an oxidation-reduction reaction, the molecule becomes
A)hydrolyzed.
B)hydrogenated.
C)oxidized.
D)reduced.
E)an oxidizing agent.
Q2) Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction?
6 CO + 6 H O + Energy
A)C H O is oxidized and O is reduced.
B)O is oxidized and H O is reduced.
C)CO is reduced and O is oxidized.
D)C H O is reduced and CO is oxidized.
E)O is reduced and CO is oxidized.
Q3) These three steps result in the formation of
A)acetyl CoA, O , and ATP.
B)acetyl CoA, FADH , and CO .
C)acetyl CoA, FAD, H , and CO .
D)acetyl CoA, NADH, H , and CO .
E)acetyl CoA, NAD , ATP, and CO .
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since the spaceship will be too far from the sun for photosynthesis, an artificial light source will be needed. What wavelengths of light should be used to maximize plant growth with a minimum of energy expenditure?
A)full-spectrum white light
B)green light
C)a mixture of blue and red light
D)yellow light
E)UV light
Q2) Reduction of oxygen to form water occurs during
A)photosynthesis only.
B)respiration only.
C)both photosynthesis and respiration.
D)neither photosynthesis nor respiration.
E)photorespiration only.
Q3) Plants photosynthesize only in the light. Plants respire
A)in the dark only.
B)in the light only.
C)both in light and dark.
D)never-they get their ATP from photophosphorylation.
E)only when excessive light energy induces photorespiration.
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider this pathway: epinephrine G protein-coupled receptor G protein adenylyl cyclase cAMP. Identify the second messenger.
A)cAMP
B)G protein
C)GTP
D)adenylyl cyclase
E)G protein-coupled receptor
Q2) When an excess of the ligand (hormone)is poured through the column after the receptor binding step, what do you expect will occur?
A)The ligand will attach to those beads that have the receptor and remain on the column.
B)The ligand will cause the receptor to be displaced from the beads and eluted out.
C)The ligand will attach to the bead instead of the receptor.
D)The ligand will cause the bead to lose its affinity by changing shape.
E)The reaction will cause a pH change due to electron transfer.
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13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) For anaphase to begin, which of the following must occur?
A)Chromatids must lose their kinetochores.
B)Cohesin must attach the sister chromatids to each other.
C)Cohesin must be cleaved enzymatically.
D)Kinetochores must attach to the metaphase plate.
E)Spindle microtubules must begin to depolymerize.
Q2) The research team used the setup to study the incorporation of labelled nucleotides into a culture of lymphocytes and found that the lymphocytes incorporated the labelled nucleotide at a significantly higher level after a pathogen was introduced into the culture. They concluded that
A)the presence of the pathogen made the experiment too contaminated to trust the results.
B)their tissue culture methods needed to be relearned.
C)infection causes lymphocytes to divide more rapidly.
D)infection causes cell cultures in general to reproduce more rapidly.
E)infection causes lymphocyte cultures to skip some parts of the cell cycle.
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is
A)a sperm.
B)an egg.
C)a zygote.
D)a somatic cell of a male.
E)a somatic cell of a female.
Q2) The human genome is minimally contained in which of the following?
A)every human cell
B)each human chromosome
C)the entire DNA of a single human
D)the entire human population
E)each human gene
Q3) A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. We can therefore conclude which of the following?
A)It must be human.
B)It must be a primate.
C)It must be an animal.
D)It must be sexually reproducing.
E)Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a possible phenotype for the father?
A)A negative
B)O negative
C)B positive
D)AB negative
E)impossible to determine
Q2) In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?
A)1
B)1/2
C)1/4
D)1/6
E)0
Q3) Which of the following describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects?
A)incomplete dominance
B)multiple alleles
C)pleiotropy
D)epistasis
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Abnormal chromosomes are frequently found in malignant tumours. Errors such as translocations may place a gene in close proximity to different control regions. Which of the following might then occur to make the cancer worse?
A)an increase in nondisjunction
B)expression of inappropriate gene products
C)a decrease in mitotic frequency
D)death of the cancer cells in the tumour
E)sensitivity of the immune system
Q2) What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together?
A)They are located close together on the same chromosome.
B)The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
C)Chromosomes are unbreakable.
D)Alleles are paired together during meiosis.
E)Genes align that way during metaphase I of meiosis.
Q3) An organism with three sets of complete chromosomes is
A)aneuploid.
B)diploid.
C)trisomic.
D)triassic.
E)triploid.
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do we describe transformation in bacteria?
A)the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule
B)the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule
C)the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule
D)the type of semiconservative replication shown by DNA
E)assimilation of external DNA into a cell
Q2) Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?
A)8%
B)16%
C)31%
D)42%
E)It cannot be determined from the information provided.
Q3) Which image represents the chromatid?
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Page 18
Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does tRNA #2 move to after this bonding of lysine to the polypeptide?
A)A site
B)P site
C)E site
D)exit tunnel
E)directly to the cytosol
Q2) An experimenter has altered the 3' end of the tRNA corresponding to the amino acid methionine in such a way as to remove the 3' AC. Which of the following hypotheses describes the most likely result?
A)tRNA will not form a cloverleaf.
B)The nearby stem end will pair improperly.
C)The amino acid methionine will not bind.
D)The anticodon will not bind with the mRNA codon.
E)The aminoacylsynthetase will not be formed.
Q3) Which of the following is true of transcription in domain Archaea?
A)It is regulated in the same way as in domain Bacteria.
B)There is only one kind of RNA polymerase.
C)It is roughly simultaneous with translation.
D)Promoters are identical to those in domain Eukarya.
E)It terminates in a manner similar to bacteria.
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is A)permanently turned on.
B)turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium.
C)turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
D)turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
E)turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
Q2) Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are all examples of A)genetic mutation.
B)chromosomal rearrangements.
C)karyotypes.
D)epigenetic phenomena.
E)translocation.
Q3) Given the damage caused by UV, the kind of gene affected in those with XP is one whose product is involved with A)mending of double-strand breaks in the DNA backbone.
B)breakage of cross-strand covalent bonds.
C)the ability to excise single-strand damage and replace it.
D)the removal of double-strand damaged areas.
E)causing affected skin cells to undergo apoptosis.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) The spread of viral disease in a human population occurs through which means?
A)mutation of existing viruses
B)transmission through travel and movement
C)handling animals that have viruses that jump the species barrier
D)not getting vaccinated against the virus
E)All of these examples can help spread a viral disease.
Q2) Which of the three types of viruses shown above would you expect to include a capsid(s)?
A)I only
B)II only
C)III only
D)I and II only
E)all three
Q3) In a cell-free system, what other components would you have to provide for this virus to express its genes?
A)ribosomes, tRNAs and amino acids
B)ribosomes, tRNAs, amino acids, and GTP
C)RNA nucleotides and GTP
D)RNA nucleotides, RNA polymerase, and GTP
E)bean cell enzymes
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Chapter 20: Dna Tools and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetically engineered plants
A)are more difficult to engineer than animals.
B)include a transgenic rice plant that can help prevent vitamin A deficiency.
C)are being rapidly developed, but traditional plant breeding programs are still the only method used to develop new plants.
D)are able to fix nitrogen themselves.
E)are banned throughout the world.
Q2) Which of the following statements is most likely true?
A)D is the child of A and C.
B)D is the child of A and B.
C)D is the child of B and C.
D)A is the child of C and D.
E)B is the child of A and C.
Q3) Bacteria that do not take up any plasmids would grow on which media?
A)the nutrient broth only
B)the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth
C)the nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth
D)the tetracycline broth and the ampicillin broth
E)all three broths
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following represents another example of the same phenomenon as that shown in the above figure?
A)the apparent centric fusion between two chromosome pairs of primates such as chimps to form the ancestor of human chromosome 2
B)the difference in the numbers of chromosomes in five species of one genus of birds
C)the formation of several pseudogenes in the globin gene family subsequent to human divergence from other primates
D)the high frequency of polyploidy in many species of angiosperms
Q2) A recent report has indicated several conclusions about comparisons of our genome with that of Neanderthals. This report concludes, in part, that, at some period in evolutionary history, there was an admixture of the two genomes. This is evidenced by A)some Neanderthal sequences not found in humans.
B)a small number of modern H. sapiens with Neanderthal sequences.
C)Neanderthal Y chromosomes preserved in the modern population of males.
D)mitochondrial sequences common to both groups.
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23
Chapter 22: Descent With Modification: a Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Currently, two extant elephant species (X and Y)are placed in the genus Loxodonta, and a third species (Z)is placed in the genus Elephas. Thus, which statement should be true?
A)Species X and Y are not related to species Z.
B)Species X and Y share a greater number of homologies with each other than either does with species Z.
C)Species X and Y share a common ancestor that is still extant (in other words, not yet extinct).
D)Species X and Y are the result of artificial selection from an ancestral species Z.
E)Species X, Y, and Z share a common ancestor, but nothing more can be claimed than this.
Q2) Charles Darwin was the first person to propose
A)that evolution occurs.
B)a mechanism for how evolution occurs.
C)that Earth is older than a few thousand years.
D)a mechanism for evolution that was supported by evidence.
E)that population growth can outpace the growth of food resources.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) The recessive allele that causes phenylketonuria (PKU)is harmful, except when an infant's diet lacks the amino acid phenylalanine. What maintains the presence of this harmful allele in a population's gene pool?
A)heterozygote advantage
B)stabilizing selection
C)diploidy
D)balancing selection
Q2) No two people are genetically identical, except for identical twins. The main source of genetic variation among human individuals is
A)new mutations that occurred in the preceding generation.
B)genetic drift due to the small size of the population.
C)the reshuffling of alleles in sexual reproduction.
D)geographic variation within the population.
E)environmental effects.
Q3) What is the estimated frequency of allele A in the gene pool?
A)0.25
B)0.50
C)0.75
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Why should deep-water shrimp on different sides of the isthmus have diverged from each other earlier than shallow-water shrimp?
A)They have been geographically isolated from each other for a longer time.
B)Cold temperatures, associated with deep water, have accelerated the mutation rate, resulting in faster divergence in deep-water shrimp.
C)The rise of the land bridge was accompanied by much volcanic activity. Volcanic ash contains heavy metals, which are known mutagens. Ash fall caused high levels of heavy metals in the ocean sediments underlying the deep water, resulting in accelerated mutation rates and faster divergence in deep-water shrimp.
D)Fresh water entering the ocean from the canal is both less dense and cloudier than seawater. The cloudy fresh water interferes with the ability of shallow-water shrimp to locate mating partners, which reduces the frequency of mating, thereby slowing the introduction of genetic variation.
Q2) Which species is most closely related to species W?
A)V is most closely related to species W.
B)X is most closely related to species W.
C)Y and Z are equally closely related to W.
D)It is not possible to say from this tree.
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26
Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) The hypothesis for the origin of eukaryotes through serial endosymbiosis proposes that
A)the ancestors of mitochondria were aerobic heterotrophic prokaryotes, while the ancestors of plastids were photosynthetic prokaryotes.
B)mitochondria and plastids replicate in a manner similar to eukaryotes.
C)genes in mitochondria and plastids are similar to genes of ancient eukaryotes.
D)eukaryotes likely evolved from the fusion of small prokaryotic and small eukaryotic cells.
Q2) If the half-life of carbon-14 is about 5730 years, then a fossil that has one-sixteenth the normal proportion of carbon-14 to carbon-12 should be about how many years old?
A)1400
B)2800
C)11 200
D)16 800
E)22 900
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) If you were using cladistics to build a phylogenetic tree of cats, which of the following would be the best outgroup?
A)lion
B)domestic cat
C)wolf
D)leopard
E)tiger
Q2) Which of the following is (are)problematic when the goal is to construct phylogenies that accurately reflect evolutionary history?
A)polyphyletic taxa
B)paraphyletic taxa
C)monophyletic taxa
D)Two of the responses are correct.
Q3) Which individual would make the worst systematist? One who is uncomfortable with the
A)Linnaean system of classification.
B)notion of hypothetical phylogenies.
C)PhyloCode method of classification.
D)notion of permanent polytomies.
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) What is occurring at Time C that is decreasing the DNA content?
A)crossing over
B)cytokinesis
C)meiosis
D)degradation of DNA that was not retained in the recipient's chromosome
E)reversal of the direction of conjugation
Q2) Which statement about the genomes of prokaryotes is correct?
A)Prokaryotic genomes are diploid throughout most of the cell cycle.
B)Prokaryotic chromosomes are sometimes called plasmids.
C)Prokaryotic cells have multiple chromosomes "packed" with a relatively large amount of protein.
D)The prokaryotic chromosome is not contained within a nucleus but, rather, is found at the nucleolus.
E)Prokaryotic genomes are composed of circular DNA.
Q3) Which species should be able to respond most readily to taxes (plural of taxis)?
A)species A
B)species B
C)species C
D)species D
E)species E
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system by frequently changing their surface proteins? 1. Plasmodium
2. Trichomonas
3. Paramecium
4. Trypanosoma
5. Entamoeba
A)1 and 2
B)1 and 4
C)2 and 3
D)2 and 4
E)4 and 5
Q2) Test tube 2 contains
A)Paramecium.
B)Navicula (diatom).
C)Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate).
D)Entamoeba.
E)Plasmodium.
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) The resolution of the relationships indicated by dashed lines in the figure above will most probably come from
A)more whole-genome analyses of extant (living)species.
B)more detailed analyses of the morphologies of extant species.
C)the discovery of more fossils of extinct taxa from the time of seed-plant origins.
D)more detailed analyses of the life cycles of extant species.
E)more molecular analyses of the types and structures of photosynthetic pigments present in extant species.
Q2) You are hiking in a forest and come upon a mysterious plant, which you determine is either a lycophyte sporophyte or a pterophyte sporophyte. Which of the following would be most helpful in determining the correct classification of the plant?
A)whether or not it has true leaves
B)whether it has microphylls or megaphylls
C)whether or not it has seeds
D)its height
E)whether or not it has chlorophyll a
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity Ii: the Evolution of Seed Plants
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Q1) Cutting down rain forests can lead to
A)decreased temperatures.
B)decreased rainfall.
C)decreased atmospheric carbon dioxide.
D)increased biodiversity.
E)more than one of these.
Q2) Which feature of cycads distinguishes them from most other gymnosperms? 1. They have exposed ovules.
2. They have flagellated sperm.
3. They are pollinated by animals.
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)2 and 3
E)1, 2, and 3
Q3) Which of the following structures in the life cycle of a pine are haploid?
A)pollen grains, megaspore, female gametophyte, egg nucleus
B)new sporophyte, pollen cone, pollen grains, microsporocytes
C)mature sporophyte, ovulate cone, pollen cone, female gametophyte
D)megasporocyte, megasporangium, megaspore, female gametophyte
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) If Bd cannot grow properly at temperatures above 28°C (82°F), then, assuming the amphibians can survive, in which time or place should the chytrid infection proceed most rapidly? 1. cooler months
2. warmer months
3. lower altitudes
4. higher altitudes
A)1 or 3
B)1 or 4
C)2 or 3
D)2 or 4
Q2) The following statements about mycorrizhae are true, with the exception of A)almost all vascular plants have mycorrhizae.
B)nutrients are transferred between different trees by mycorrhizae.
C)in reforestation, seedlings are innoculated with mycorrhizae to enhance their growth. D)arbuscular mycorrhizae is parasitic on some species of plants.
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33
Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) Evidence of which structure or characteristic would be most surprising to find among fossils of the Ediacaran fauna?
A)true tissues
B)hard parts
C)bilateral symmetry
D)cephalization
E)embryos
Q2) On the basis of information in the previous paragraph, which of these should be able to be observed in Tp?
A)the act of fertilization
B)the process of gastrulation
C)eggs
D)All three of the responses above are correct.
E)Two of the responses above are correct.
Q3) What do animals as diverse as corals and monkeys have in common?
A)body cavity between body wall and digestive system
B)number of embryonic tissue layers
C)type of body symmetry
D)presence of Hox genes
E)degree of cephalization
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Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Q1) How many of the following are characteristics of at least some members of the phylum Cnidaria? 1. a gastrovascular cavity
2. a polyp stage
3. a medusa stage
4. cnidocytes
5. a pseudocoelom
A)one of these
B)two of these
C)three of these
D)four of these
E)five of these
Q2) Which of the following are entirely, or partly, composed of calcium carbonate?
A)spicules of siliceous sponges
B)coral animals' exoskeletons
C)molluscs' mantles
D)insects' cuticles
E)nematodes' cuticles
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35
Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) Gd is a cold-loving fungus. Thus, which characteristics of normal bat behaviour can be most expected to favour the growth of this fungus?
A)southward migration during the winter
B)communal roosting in tightly packed clusters during hibernation
C)reliance on fat reserves for calories during hibernation
D)much-reduced metabolic rate during hibernation
E)hibernating in parts of the cave that are farthest away from the mouth of the cave
Q2) Which number represents the closest relative to the parareptiles?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)9
E)It is not possible to say.
Q3) Vertebrates and tunicates share
A)jaws adapted for feeding.
B)a high degree of cephalization.
C)the formation of structures from the neural crest.
D)an endoskeleton that includes a skull.
E)a notochord and a dorsal, hollow nerve cord.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Using the example of the oak leaves, what is the best explanation for why a single genotype can produce different phenotypes?
A)The smaller leaves are not fully grown yet, and will keep growing until they reach their full size.
B)Shade leaves are large, providing a large surface area for absorption of light, whereas leaves that grow in the sun receive abundant light and have a smaller surface area to decrease water loss.
C)The oak tree consists of two genotypes; someone had grafted a branch from another oak tree.
D)Smaller leaves may have a mutation that inhibits growth and photosynthesis.
Q2) A vessel element would likely lose its protoplast in which section of a root?
A)zone of cell division
B)zone of elongation
C)zone of maturation
D)root cap
E)apical meristem
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Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Q1) Active transport would be least important in the normal functioning of which of the following plant tissue types?
A)leaf transfer cells
B)stem tracheary elements
C)root endodermal cells
D)leaf mesophyll cells
E)root sieve-tube elements
Q2) Transpiration in plants requires all of the following except
A)adhesion of water molecules to cellulose.
B)cohesion between water molecules.
C)evaporation of water molecules.
D)active transport through xylem cells.
E)transport through tracheids.
Q3) Which of the following statements about xylem is incorrect?
A)It conducts material from root tips to leaves.
B)The conducting cells are part of the apoplast.
C)It transports mainly sugars and amino acids.
D)It typically has a lower water potential than is found in soil.
E)No energy input is required for transport.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Q1) If you were the county agriculture agent, what would be the best advice you could give the farmer who owns the field under study in the above figure?
A)Plant a variety of cotton that requires less water and can tolerate salinity.
B)Continue to fertilize, but stop irrigating the field and rely on rainfall.
C)Continue to irrigate, but stop fertilizing the field and rely on organic nutrients in the soil.
D)Continue to fertilize and irrigate, but add the nitrogen-fixing bacteria Rhizobium to the irrigation water until the productivity increases.
E)Add acid to the soil and increase its cation exchange capabilities so more nutrients are retained in the soil.
Q2) Which soil type or habitat would be least likely to have high populations of mycorrhizae?
A)acidic bogs and fens
B)loamy soils
C)sandy soils
D)tropical forests
E)desert soils
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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fruit is
A)a mature ovary.
B)a mature ovule.
C)a seed plus its integuments.
D)a fused carpel.
E)an enlarged embryo sac.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of protoplast fusion?
A)It occurs when the second sperm nucleus fuses with the polar nuclei in the embryo sac.
B)It can be used to form new plant varieties by combining genomes from two plants.
C)It is used to develop gene banks to preserve genetic variability.
D)It is the method of test-tube cloning that produces whole plants from callus.
E)It occurs within a callus that is developing in tissue culture.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about fruits?
A)Fruits form from megasporangia and integuments.
B)All fruits contain seeds.
C)Green beans, corn, tomatoes, and wheat are all vegetables.
D)Pollination is always required for fruit maturation.
E)During fruit development, the wall of the ovary becomes the integument.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals
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Q1) Charles and Francis Darwin concluded from their experiments on phototropism by grass seedlings that the part of the seedling that detects the direction of light is the A)tip of the coleoptile.
B)part of the coleoptile that bends during the response.
C)base of the coleoptile.
D)cotyledon.
E)phytochrome in the leaves.
Q2) According to the acid growth hypothesis, auxin works by
A)dissolving sieve plates, permitting more rapid transport of nutrients.
B)dissolving the cell membranes temporarily, permitting cells that were on the verge of dividing to divide more rapidly.
C)changing the pH within the cell, which would permit the electron transport chain to operate more efficiently.
D)increasing wall plasticity and allowing the affected cell walls to elongate.
E)greatly increasing the rate of deposition of cell wall material.
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Q1) During its months-long hibernation in its burrow, the body temperature of a ground squirrel
A)is held at a constant 37°C.
B)is held at a constant 5°C.
C)varies between 5°C and 37°C, depending on the frequency of arousals from hibernation.
D)varies between 5°C and 15°C, depending on the external temperature outside of the burrow.
E)varies between -5°C and +5°C, depending on the temperature in the burrow.
Q2) Standard metabolic rate (SMR)and basal metabolic rate (BMR)are
A)used differently: SMR is measured during exercise, whereas BMR is measured at rest.
B)used to compare metabolic rate between hibernating and nonhibernating states.
C)both measured across a wide range of temperatures for a given species.
D)both standard measurements of fat metabolism in mammals.
E)both measured in animals in a resting and fasting state.
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42
Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cells that secrete acidic fluid in the stomach are
A)the chief cells of the stomach.
B)the parietal cells of the stomach.
C)not needed for the transformation of pepsinogen to pepsin.
D)in the lumen of the stomach.
E)adding secretions along the esophagus.
Q2) Salivary amylase digests
A)protein.
B)starches.
C)monosaccharides.
D)glucose.
E)maltose.
Q3) Which pair correctly associates a physiological process with the appropriate vitamin?
A)blood clotting and vitamin C
B)normal vision and vitamin A
C)synthesis of cell membranes and vitamin D
D)protection of skin from cancer and vitamin E
E)production of white blood cells and vitamin K
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) The velocity of blood flow is the lowest in capillaries because
A)the capillary walls are not thin enough to allow oxygen to exchange with the cells.
B)the capillaries are far from the heart, and blood flow slows as distance from the heart increases.
C)the diastolic blood pressure is too low to deliver blood to the capillaries at a high flow rate.
D)the systemic capillaries are supplied by the left ventricle, which has a lower cardiac output than the right ventricle.
E)the total cross-sectional area of the capillaries is greater than the total cross-sectional area of the arteries or any other part of the circulatory system.
Q2) Gas exchange is more difficult for aquatic animals with gills than for terrestrial animals with lungs because
A)water is less dense than air.
B)water contains much less O than air per unit volume.
C)gills have less surface area than lungs.
D)gills allow only unidirectional transport.
E)gills allow water to flow in one direction.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin would likely benefit from
A)vaccination with a weakened form of the toxin.
B)injection of antibodies to the toxin.
C)injection of interleukin-1.
D)injection of interleukin-2.
E)injection of interferon.
Q2) The EBV antigen fragments will be presented by the virus-infected cells along with A)complement.
B)antibodies.
C)class I MHC molecules.
D)class II MHC molecules.
E)dendritic cells.
Q3) Clonal selection implies that
A)brothers and sisters have similar immune responses.
B)antigens increase mitosis in specific lymphocytes.
C)only certain cells can produce interferon.
D)a B cell has multiple types of antigen receptors.
E)the body selects which antigens it will respond to.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nitrogenous waste that requires the most energy to produce is A)ammonia.
B)ammonium.
C)urea.
D)uric acid.
Q2) Which of the following is synthesized by mammals, most amphibians, sharks, and some bony fishes, and has lower toxicity than its nitrogenous substrate?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) Excretory structures known as protonephridia are present in A)flatworms.
B)earthworms.
C)insects. D)vertebrates. E)cnidarians.
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) A fantasy movie features a caterpillar that never matures into an adult, but simply gets larger and larger with each moult. It might be possible that the caterpillar did not mature into an adult because of
A)a lack of ecdysone.
B)a lack of juvenile hormone.
C)a decreased level of ecdysteroid.
D)an increased level of juvenile hormone.
E)a lack of melatonin.
Q2) The interrelationships between the endocrine and the nervous systems are especially apparent in
A)a neuron in the spinal cord.
B)a steroid-producing cell in the adrenal cortex.
C)a neurosecretory cell in the hypothalamus.
D)a brain cell in the cerebral cortex.
E)a cell in the pancreas that produces digestive enzymes.
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Imagine that a woman is in the final week of her pregnancy. Her doctor gives her an injection of oxytocin. The likely result of this is that the pregnant woman would
A)undergo the loss of oxytocin receptors from her uterine smooth muscle cells.
B)stop secreting prostaglandins from the placenta.
C)undergo vigorous contractions of her uterine muscles.
D)increase the synthesis and secretion of progesterone.
E)be prevented from lactation.
Q2) The surgical removal of the seminal vesicles would likely
A)cause sterility because sperm would not be produced.
B)cause sterility because sperm would not be able to exit the body.
C)greatly reduce the volume of semen.
D)enhance the fertilization potency of sperm in the uterus.
E)cause the testes to migrate back into the abdominal cavity.
Q3) During human heterosexual (mutual)excitement, vasocongestion
A)occurs only in the penis.
B)occurs only in the testes.
C)occurs only in the clitoris.
D)occurs only in the upper vagina.
E)occurs in the clitoris, vagina, and penis.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Q1) An open space within the gastrula is the
A)ectoderm.
B)mesoderm.
C)archenteron.
D)endoderm.
E)neural crest cells.
Q2) The vegetal pole of the zygote differs from the animal pole in that
A)the vegetal pole has a higher concentration of yolk.
B)the blastomeres originate only in the vegetal pole.
C)the posterior end of the embryo forms at the vegetal pole.
D)the vegetal pole cells undergo mitosis but not cytokinesis.
E)the polar bodies bud from this region.
Q3) In humans, identical twins are possible because
A)cytoplasmic determinants are distributed unevenly in unfertilized eggs.
B)extraembryonic cells interact with the zygote nucleus.
C)convergent extension occurs.
D)early blastomeres can form a complete embryo if isolated.
E)the grey crescent divides the dorsal-ventral axis into new cells.
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Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signalling
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chemical that affects neuronal function but is not stored in presynaptic vesicles is
A)acetylcholine.
B)epinephrine.
C)endorphin.
D)nitric oxide.
E)GABA.
Q2) Temporal summation always involves
A)both inhibitory and excitatory inputs.
B)synapses at more than one site.
C)inputs that are not simultaneous.
D)electrical synapses.
E)multiple inputs at a single synapse.
Q3) The membrane potential that exactly offsets an ion's concentration gradient is called the
A)graded potential.
B)threshold potential.
C)equilibrium potential.
D)action potential.
E)inhibitory postsynaptic potential.
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Q1) Cephalization, the clustering of neurons and interneurons in the anterior part of the animal, is apparent in A)Hydra.
B)cnidarians.
C)Planaria.
D)sea stars.
E)invertebrate animals with radial symmetry.
Q2) In mammals, advanced cognition is usually correlated with a large and very convoluted neocortex, but birds are capable of sophisticated cognition because they have
A)a more advanced cerebellum.
B)a cerebellum with several flat layers.
C)a pallium with neurons clustered into nuclei.
D)microvilli to increase the brain's surface area.
Q3) The cerebral cortex plays a major role in all of the following except A)short-term memory.
B)long-term memory.
C)circadian rhythm.
D)foot-tapping rhythm.
E)breath holding.
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Q1) Which of the following sensory receptors is incorrectly paired with its category?
A)hair cell-mechanoreceptor
B)muscle spindle-mechanoreceptor
C)taste receptor-chemoreceptor
D)rod-electromagnetic receptor
E)olfactory receptor-electromagnetic receptor
Q2) Vibrations of the tympanic membrane to the oval window are transmitted by the structures at which numbers?
A)1, 2, 3, and 4
B)2, 3, and 4
C)3 and 4
D)4
E)5
Q3) Statoliths are similar to otoliths in that both
A)are grains of sand.
B)stimulate hair-like mechanoreceptors.
C)are located in statocysts.
D)are located in the cochlea.
E)are located in the lateral line system.
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Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) A human baby performs a sucking behaviour perfectly when it is put in the presence of the nipple of its mother's breast.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) A chemical produced by an animal that serves as a communication to another animal of the same species is called
A)a sign stimulus.
B)an inducer.
C)a pheromone.
D)an imprinter.
E)an agonistic promoter.
Q3) Displays of nocturnal mammals are usually
A)visual and auditory.
B)tactile and visual.
C)olfactory and auditory.
D)visual and olfactory.
E)tactile and auditory.
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) What might be the adaptive significance of these unusual forests growing the way they do in this marginal habitat?
A)Needles are adapted to withstand cold arctic temperatures.
B)Branches are adapted to absorb more CO with this displaced alignment.
C)Taproot formation is impossible, so trees developed shallow root beds.
D)Trees are tilted so snow prevents them from breaking or tipping over.
E)Trees tip so that they do not compete with each other for sunlight.
Q2) Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is made possible by which of the following?
A)warm, less dense water layered at the top
B)cold, more dense water layered at the bottom
C)a distinct thermocline between less dense warm water and cold, dense water
D)the changes in the density of water as seasonal temperatures change
E)currents generated by nektonic animals
Q3) Which lake zone would be absent in a very shallow lake?
A)benthic zone
B)aphotic zone
C)pelagic zone
D)littoral zone
E)limnetic zone
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following examples would most accurately measure the density of the population being studied?
A)counting the number of prairie dog burrows per hectare
B)counting the number of times a 1 kilometre transect is intersected by tracks of red squirrels after a snowfall
C)counting the number of coyote droppings per hectare
D)multiplying the number of moss plants counted in 10 quadrats of 1m² each by 100 to determine the density per kilometre²
E)counting the number of zebras from airplane census observations
Q2) Which population(s)appear(s)to be stable?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)I and II
E)II and III
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes the evolutionary significance of mutualism?
A)Mutualism offers more biodiversity to a community.
B)Individuals partaking in a mutualistic relationship are more resistant to parasites.
C)Interaction increases the survival and reproductive rates of mutualistic species.
D)Mutualistic interaction lessens competition in communities where it is present.
E)Mutualistic relationships allow organisms to synthesize and use energy more efficiently.
Q2) Which island would likely exhibit the most impoverished species diversity?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
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56
Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of solar radiation striking a plant is converted into chemical energy?
A)1%
B)10%
C)25%
D)50%
E)100%
Q2) Consider the food chain grass grasshopper mouse snake hawk. How much of the chemical energy fixed by photosynthesis of the grass (100%)is available to the hawk?
A)0.01%
B)0.1%
C)1%
D)10%
E)60%
Q3) On the diagram of the nitrogen cycle, which number represents ammonia (NH )?
A)1 B)2
C)3
D)4
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms includes all of the others?
A)species diversity
B)biodiversity
C)genetic diversity
D)ecosystem diversity
E)species richness
Q2) This is caused by excessive nutrient runoff into aquatic ecosystems.
A)depletion of ozone layer
B)acid precipitation
C)biological magnification
D)greenhouse effect
E)eutrophication
Q3) The shift in the peak of caterpillar season is most likely due to A)pesticide use.
B)earlier migration returns of flycatchers.
C)an innate change in the biological clock of the caterpillars.
D)global warming.
E)acid precipitation in Europe.
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