Course Introduction
Integrative Physiology
Exam Questions
Integrative Physiology explores the complex interactions among the bodys organ systems and how these systems work together to maintain homeostasis and adapt to internal and external challenges. The course covers fundamental principles of cellular communication, neural and hormonal control, and the integration of cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, digestive, and musculoskeletal functions. Emphasis is placed on understanding physiological responses under both normal and stressed conditions, fostering a holistic appreciation for whole-body function and the mechanisms underlying health and disease.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology An Integrated Approach 7th Edition by Silverthorn
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are physiology and anatomy frequently studied together?
Answer: This is discussed in the "Physiology Is an Integrative Science"
Q2) Refer to Table 1.3.
A.Write a hypothesis regarding the effects of breakfast consumption on reaction time.
B.What is the dependent variable? What is the independent variable?
Answer: A.A prediction such as "Eating breakfast prior to testing improves reaction time of subjects (compared to subjects who did not eat breakfast)" is appropriate.
B.The independent variable is breakfast consumption; the dependent variable is reaction time.
Q3) Use the following terms to develop a concept map: brain, sensory neuron, an eye, foot, soccer ball, motor neuron
Answer: Eye sees soccer ball.
Sensory neuron sends visual information.
Brain receives information and formulates a plan. Motor neuron carries action information.
Foot muscle contracts and the ball is kicked.
Q4) List the key concepts or themes in physiology.
Answer: See Table 1.1 in the chapter.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the dissociation constant of a protein is less than one (Kd < 1), what can you conclude about the affinity of the protein for the ligand?
Answer: Since Kd < 1, you know that [P] [L] < [PL].Therefore, at equilibrium, there is a higher concentration of protein-ligand complex suggesting that the protein has a relatively high binding affinity for the ligand.
Q2) The chemical bonding behavior of an atom is directly determined by the A) number of protons.
B) number of neutrons.
C) number and arrangement of electrons.
D) size of the atom.
E) mass of the atom.
Answer: C
Q3) Ions with a positive charge are called A) anions.
B) electrons.
C) cations.
D) neurons.
E) tissues.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cellular organelle is considered the powerhouse of the cell because it produces most of the ATP?
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) Golgi apparatus
C) mitochondria
D) nucleus
E) ribosome
Answer: C
Q2) Referring to Figure 3.1, which letter represents the cytosol?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: A
Q3) The lumen of a hollow organ such as the stomach is considered to be part of the ________ environment.
A) internal
B) external
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organic molecules that act as receptors/carriers for the cleaved portion of the substrate are
A) vitamins.
B) isoenzymes.
C) coenzymes.
D) modulators.
Q2) An enzyme that joins two substrates using energy is a A) hydrolase.
B) lipase.
C) transferase.
D) ligase.
E) kinase.
Q3) An enzyme that adds or subtracts water molecules is a A) hydrolase.
B) lipase.
C) transferase.
D) ligase.
E) kinase.
Q4) Define the law of mass action.
Q5) The enzyme ________ and ________ ions are required for the synthesis of mRNA.
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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you eat a large meal and your body absorbs a lot of glucose and that makes its way to the interstitial fluid before going into the cell.100% of the glucose should be absorbed into the cell from the interstitial fluid.Why does nearly all of the glucose enter the cell, rather than only half of it?
A) It is moved by active transport.
B) It is modified by the cell, so there is still more glucose on the outside of the cell than inside it.
C) Insulin forces glucose into the cell against a concentration gradient.
D) The cells make ATP so fast, they use up all the glucose as soon as it enters the cell.
Q2) Write the five rules for osmolarity and tonicity.Are the relative osmolarity and tonicity of an extracellular solution compared to intracellular fluid always the same? If they are, explain why.If they are not, give specific examples of when they are different.
Q3) How is a carrier protein like a ship canal?
Q4) Compare and contrast penetrating solutes and non-penetrating solutes.
Q5) The Na -K -ATPase pumps (this number of)________ Na ions ________ (into/out of)the cell and (this number of)________ K ions ________ (into/out of)the cell.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asthma is a respiratory disorder characterized by construction of airways and mucus production which makes it very difficult to breathe.The constriction of airways, mucus production, and altered gene expression in the cells lining the airways of asthmatics is due to increased release of neurotransmitter acetylcholine.Explain how a single molecule can have such a large and diverse effect in a single cell.
Q2) Why do some normal cells fail to respond to a chemical signal?
A) Chemical signals are only delivered to specific cells.
B) Some cells lack the necessary receptors.
C) Some cells are completely without receptors.
D) Some cells are completely without ligands.
E) Signal chemicals often break down before reaching a distant target.
Q3) Explain the two forms of down-regulation.
Q4) Lipid signal molecules that act in a paracrine fashion and combine with G-protein coupled receptors include ________ and ________.
Q5) Briefly explain the effects of the hormone insulin on glucose transport.What is diabetes mellitus? How are types I and II different? Why do insulin injections help alleviate one type but not the other?
Q6) Describe the signal molecule derivatives of arachidonic acid.
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pituitary hormone that controls hormone synthesis and release from the thyroid gland is
A) TSH.
B) ACTH.
C) FSH.
D) LH.
E) STH.
Q2) derivatives of tyrosine
A)peptide hormone
B)steroid hormone
C)amino acid-derived hormone
D)anterior pituitary
E)hypothalamus
F)posterior pituitary
Q3) The term for any hormone that controls the secretion of another hormone is a ________.
Q4) The signal molecule produced by one animal that may affect the behavior of another animal of the same species is the ________.
Q5) The trophic hormones reach the pituitary through the ________.
Q6) A circulatory route that has two sets of capillaries is known as a ________.
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Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chemical synapse ALWAYS includes which of the following?
1)axon terminal
2)presynaptic cell
3)synaptic cleft
4)postsynaptic cell
5)dendrite
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 2, 3, 4, 5
E) 1, 3, 4
Q2) If potassium channels in a neuron were blocked, would it be possible to produce an action potential? If so, describe the probable appearance of these components of a graph: threshold, rising phase, peak, falling phase, undershoot.If not, explain.
Q3) The two types of electrical signals in neurons are ________.
Q4) may be hyperpolarizing
A)graded potential
B)action potential
C)both
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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inability to remember newly acquired information is called
A) discombobulation.
B) anterograde amnesia.
C) short-term amnesia.
D) implicit amnesia.
E) retrograde amnesia.
Q2) myelinated axons with very few cell bodies
A)gray matter
B)white matter
C)ascending tracts
D)descending tracts
E)propriospinal tracts
Q3) You used to love to drink milk when you were a child.Lately, you notice that your stomach hurts and you experience bloating and discomfort when you drink it.It is no longer inviting when you see someone else drinking it.What kind of learning has occurred?
A) associative
B) anterograde
C) habituation
D) sensitization
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The intensity of a stimulus can be determined within the central nervous system by
A) population coding only.
B) labeled line coding only.
C) frequency coding only.
D) population coding and/or frequency coding.
E) labeled line coding and/or frequency coding.
Q2) ________ hearing loss occurs because of damage to the structure of the inner ear.
Q3) Identify the False statement regarding sensory receptor cells.
A) Threshold is the minimal stimulus intensity required to generate an action potential.
B) Sensory transduction converts stimulus energy into a receptor potential.
C) Each type of sensory receptor responds only to the stimulus that defines the receptor.
D) A graded potential is referred to as a receptor potential.
E) Many sensory receptor cells are NOT nerve cells.
Q4) Gustatory receptors are clustered in individual ________.
Q5) Discuss the structure of the retina, including any distinguishing "regions."
Q6) ________ cells connect photoreceptors to ganglion cells.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autonomic neurotransmitters are synthesized in the ________.
Q2) Phenelzine is a common MAO inhibitor that has been used to treat depression.It is not, however, prescribed as often as other antidepressants due to its effects on the autonomic nervous system.Describe several side effects that may result from taking phenelzine and explain why they might occur.
Q3) Antagonistic control of efferent output is typical of the ________ division.
A) somatic
B) sensory
C) autonomic
D) somatic and sensory
E) somatic and autonomic
Q4) If humans administered a physiological dose of ufo-epi responded to the chemical, which of the following would indicate ufo-epi is an epinephrine agonist?
A) constriction of respiratory tubes
B) hyperglycemia (high blood glucose)
C) increase in fatty acids in the blood
D) localized sweating
E) decreased heart rate
Page 13
Q5) ________ are swellings that contain vesicles filled with neurotransmitter.
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Chapter 12: Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Striated muscles are so-called because of a repeating pattern of light and dark bands.One repeating unit of the banding pattern is called a A) myofilament.
B) myomere.
C) sarcofibril.
D) sarcomere.
E) crossbridge.
Q2) Smooth muscle fibers can sustain a contraction without fatigue by allowing dephosphorylated myosin to remain attached to actin in what is called the ________.
Q3) A contraction that generates enough force to move a load is known as ________, whereas one that generates force that equals the load is known as ________.
A) isotropic, isometric
B) isometric, eccentric
C) isotonic, isometric
D) isometric, isotonic
E) isotonic, eccentric
Q4) Briefly compare and contrast the structure and behavior of cardiac, smooth, and skeletal muscles.
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14
Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which reflex is NOT controlled by the brain stem?
A) urination
B) vomiting
C) sneezing
D) swallowing
E) salivating
Q2) Compare and contrast the three categories of movement described in the text and give an example of each.
Q3) reflexes that one is born with; genetically determined
A)somatic
B)autonomic
C)spinal
D)cranial
E)innate
F)acquired
G)polysynaptic
Q4) Rhythmic reflexive motor activities, such as breathing or walking, are controlled by networks of neurons in the central nervous system called ________.
Q5) Most reflexes are regulated by ________.
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Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The period when blood is pushed into the arteries is called ________.
Q2) You are constructing working models of the heart for extra credit.Your first attempt failed because the cells separated from each other during beating.What structures did you omit, and why did this allow the heart to fall apart? You omitted the gap junctions in your second attempt.How would a real heart fail to function normally without gap junctions?
Q3) During the cardiac cycle,
A) the P wave of the ECG occurs between the first and second heart sounds.
B) the QRS complex of the ECG precedes the increase in ventricular pressure.
C) the third heart sound occurs during atrial systole.
D) the second heart sound coincides with the QRS complex of the ECG.
E) the greatest increase in ventricular pressure occurs during the ejection phase.
Q4) The AV node delays the transmission of action potentials slightly to allow ________.
Q5) A tracing of the electrical activity of the heart, monitored by electrodes placed on the skin, is called a(n)________.
Q6) The inferior point of the heart is called the ________.
Q7) Abnormal patterns of cardiac activity are known as ________.
Q8) The ________ is a wall that separates the two sides of the heart.
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Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organ is NOT part of the cardiovascular system and plays an important role in regulating blood pressure?
A) liver
B) spleen
C) lung
D) kidney
E) skin
Q2) Capillary exchange involving movement through the cells is called ________ transport.
Q3) When blood pressure receptors sense a loss of blood pressure, they ________ their firing rate.
A) increase
B) decrease
Q4) Cerebral capillaries are surrounded by ________ and glial cells and have tight junctions that create the ________.
Q5) ________ is an increase in blood flow that accompanies an increase in metabolic activity.
Q6) Why is there a loss of blood volume when a patient is confined to bed for two or three days? What symptoms commonly follow this confinement?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Erythropoietin (EPO)was first isolated from the urine of anemic patients who had high circulating levels of the hormone.Despite the presence of the hormone that stimulates red cell production, however, these patients were unable to produce adequate amounts of hemoglobin or red cells.Give some possible reasons that the patients' own EPO was unable to correct their anemia.
Q2) Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone
A) thymosin.
B) angiotensin I.
C) erythropoietin.
D) M-CSF.
E) cobalamin.
Q3) The primary stimulus for the release of erythropoietin is
A) hypoxemia only.
B) low oxygen levels in the tissues only.
C) low blood pressure only.
D) hypoxemia and low oxygen levels in the tissues.
E) hypoxemia, low oxygen levels in the tissues, and low blood pressure.
Q4) Define, compare, and contrast "clot busters" and anticoagulants; describe how each works.
Q5) Plasma consists of blood minus ________ and ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) difficulty breathing
A)hyperpnea
B)hyperventilation
C)tachypnea
D)dyspnea
E)apnea
Q2) The substance produced by the lungs to reduce surface tension is called
Q3) What is Dalton's law? Why is it important?
Q4) Increasing the alveolar ventilation rate will
A) increase the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.
B) decrease the rate of oxygen diffusion from the alveoli to the blood.
C) increase the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
D) decrease the rate of carbon dioxide diffusion from the blood to the alveoli.
E) have no effect on either the partial pressure or diffusion rate of gases.
Q5) Air flow in the respiratory system and blood flow in the cardiovascular system have many similarities-name them.How are they different?
Q6) What are the functions of pleural fluid?
Q7) Air flows into lungs because of ________ created by ________.
Page 19
Q8) Which single muscle contributes most to normal, resting inspiration?
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Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the cells of peripheral tissues is approximately ________ mm Hg.
A) 40
B) 45
C) 50
D) 70
E) 100
Q2) Jill lives in St.Louis, which is close to sea level.She decides to spend a month of her summer vacation working in the mountains outside of Denver.After a week in the mountains, what kinds of changes would you expect to see as Jill adapts to the higher altitude?
A) decreased hematocrit
B) decreased blood pressure
C) decreased alveolar ventilation rate
D) decreased PO in the alveoli
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) ________ is characterized by a decreased surface area for gas exchange in the lungs.
Q4) What are the two possible causes of lower alveolar PO ? Give examples of each.
Q5) Too little oxygen in cells is called ________.
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Chapter 19: The Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) Technically, the kidneys are located
A) in the thoracic cavity.
B) in the abdominal cavity.
C) behind the pleural membranes.
D) behind the peritoneal membrane.
E) in the pelvic cavity.
Q2) The plasma concentration at which all of the renal carriers for a given substance are saturated is the ________.
Q3) Urea is
A) actively secreted in the distal tubule.
B) actively reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.
C) passively reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.
D) completely eliminated in the urine.
E) actively transported into the filtrate by the cells of the collecting duct.
Q4) The process of filtration in the kidney is most accurately described as
A) highly specific.
B) completely nonspecific.
C) relatively nonspecific.
Q5) The ________ lie between and around the glomerular capillaries.
Q6) The nephron begins with a hollow, ball-like structure called ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diagram the reactions and interactions of the renin-angiotensin system (RAS).Which condition is the primary stimulus for its activation?
Q2) Two hours before major surgery is to begin, the patient experiences "jitters," an elevated heart rate and blood pressure.These symptoms are the result of
A) sympathetic activation.
B) decreased levels of epinephrine in the blood.
C) decreased activity of sympathetic centers in the hypothalamus.
D) increased parasympathetic activity.
E) All of these mechanisms.
Q3) Why is sodium actively reabsorbed in the nephron?
A) to decrease osmolarity inside the nephron
B) to make urine less concentrated
C) to increase passive reabsorption of water
D) to decrease blood pressure
Q4) Fred suffers from chronic emphysema.Blood tests show that his pH is normal but his bicarbonate levels are elevated significantly.How can this be?
Q5) How do kidneys alter urine concentration?
Page 22
Q6) What are the two mechanisms of bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule?
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscularis externa is the
A) mucosa.
B) submucosa.
C) muscularis mucosa.
D) myenteric plexus.
E) submucosal plexus.
Q2) Amylases, the enzymes used to digest carbohydrates, are secreted by
A) salivary glands into the mouth only.
B) gastric glands into the stomach only.
C) the pancreas into the intestine only.
D) salivary glands into the mouth and gastric glands into the stomach.
E) salivary glands into the mouth and the pancreas into the intestine.
Q3) Most products of fat digestion are absorbed by A) capillaries.
B) veins.
C) lymphatic vessels.
D) arterioles.
Q4) Name two functions of cholecystokinin.
Q5) The enteric nervous system and the CNS have several similarities.What are they?
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A genetic condition in which body temperature becomes abnormally elevated is
Q2) storage
A)carbohydrate
B)protein
C)fat
Q3) The loss of water in the urine due to unreabsorbed solutes is known as ________.
Q4) Pre-diabetes is a condition that will likely become diabetes if eating and exercise habits are not altered.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The brain can use ________ for energy.
A) only glucose
B) only fats
C) only ketones
D) only lactate
E) both glucose and ketones
Q6) The process of synthesizing glucose from lipids, amino acids, or other carbohydrates is called ________.
Q7) ________ is the amount of heat generated during the digestion of a meal.
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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
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Q1) caused by growth hormone excess in adulthood
A)acromegaly
B)adrenogenital syndrome
C)cretinism
D)dwarfism
E)exophthalmus
Q2) List and explain the effects of cortisol.
Q3) Therapeutic surgical removal of the thyroid gland was documented more than 1000 years ago.In the 19th century, a surgeon performing that procedure had only about 50% patient survival, and patient death was often unrelated to nonspecific complications such as infection or bleeding.What condition of the thyroid is so easily diagnosed that ancient surgeons would think to remove it? What hormonal problem unrelated to thyroid hormones may account for the 50% mortality of thyroidectomy patients in the 19th century (and probably throughout history)? Why didn't the surgeons anticipate this problem? Why wasn't the mortality closer to 100%?
Q4) What are the symptoms and causes of Cushing's disease? How do they compare and contrast with symptoms and causes of Addison's disease?
Q5) Draw a map of steroid hormone synthesis.
Q6) Define hypertrophy and hyperplasia, and describe their hormone regulation.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Immune System
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Q1) Compare and contrast inflammation and infection.
Q2) A person's blood type is determined by
A) the size of the red blood cells.
B) the shape of the red blood cells.
C) the chemical character of the hemoglobin.
D) the presence or absence of specific glycoprotein molecules on their cell membrane.
E) the number of specific molecules on the cell membrane.
Q3) A person with type A blood has
A) A antibodies on his red blood cells.
B) A antibodies in his plasma.
C) B antibodies on his red blood cells.
D) B antibodies in his plasma.
E) the ability to receive AB blood cells.
Q4) The retrovirus HIV frequently undergoes mutations, making it difficult for scientists to develop a single effective vaccine.When flu vaccines are administered, patients are told that they are only protected from one strain of the flu and are still as susceptible to other strains as unvaccinated people.Explain why.
Q5) Compare and contrast innate and acquired immunity.
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Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following is involved in the pathway that causes a jump in ventilation rate at the beginning of exercise?
A) Proprioceptors in muscles send information to the motor cortex of the brain.
B) Output from the limbic system and cardiovascular control center triggers parasympathetic discharge.
C) Widespread vasoconstriction causes increase in blood pressure.
D) Proprioceptors in muscles send information to the motor cortex of the brain and widespread vasoconstriction causes increase in blood pressure.
E) Output from the limbic system and cardiovascular control center triggers parasympathetic discharge and widespread vasoconstriction causes increase in blood pressure.
Q2) There is clear evidence that strenuous exercise on a regular basis enhances the immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Susie has hyperthyroidism.How might this affect ATP production during exercise?
Q4) During exercise, skeletal muscle receives approximately ________% of blood flow.Where is this blood redistributed from?
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following is a list of structures of the male reproductive tract.
1)ductus deferens
2)urethra
3)ejaculatory duct
4)epididymis
Identify the order in which sperm pass through these structures from the testes to the penis.
A) 1, 3, 4, 2
B) 4, 3, 1, 2
C) 4, 1, 2, 3
D) 4, 1, 3, 2
E) 1, 4, 3, 2
Q2) A male body builder starts taking injections of testosterone (an anabolic steroid)on a daily basis.After three weeks, which of the following would you expect to observe?
A) increased sex drive
B) decreased levels of GnRH
C) decreased levels of LH
D) decreased levels of FSH
E) All of the above observations.
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