Integrated Science Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Integrated Science is an interdisciplinary course designed to provide students with a comprehensive understanding of the fundamental principles and concepts that underlie the natural sciences, including biology, chemistry, physics, and earth sciences. By exploring the interconnectedness of these scientific disciplines, students develop the ability to analyze real-world problems using a holistic approach, integrate scientific knowledge from different fields, and apply critical thinking and scientific inquiry skills. The course emphasizes hands-on experiments, collaborative projects, and the practical application of scientific concepts to everyday life, fostering a broad scientific literacy that is essential for informed decision-making and lifelong learning.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physical Science 6th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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29 Chapters
3995 Verified Questions
3995 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Patterns of Motion and Equilibrium
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126 Verified Questions
126 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Science greatly advanced when Galileo favored
A)philosophical discussions.
B)experiment.
C)non-mathematical thinking.
D)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Galileo said that if you rolled a ball along a level surface it would
A)slow down due to its natural tendency to come to rest.
B)keep rolling without slowing down if no friction acted upon it.
C)roll as long as its inertia nudged it along.
D)eventually roll in the opposite direction.
Answer: B
Q3) What is the acceleration of a scooter that maintains a constant velocity of 15 m/s for 10 s?
A)0 m/s<sup>2</sup>
B)0.15 m/s<sup>2</sup>
C)1.5 m/s<sup>2</sup>
D)15 m/s<sup>2</sup>
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Newtons Laws of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-kg brick and a 1-kg book are dropped in a vacuum.The force of gravity on the 10-kg brick is
A)the same as the force on the 1-kg book.
B)5 times as much as the force on the 1-kg book.
C)10 times as much as the force on the 1-kg book.
D)zero.
Answer: C
Q2) A math book and a science book are tied together with a length of string.With the string taut,one book is pushed off the edge of a table.As it falls,the other book is dragged horizontally across the table surface.With no friction,acceleration of the books is A)zero.
B)g/2.
C)g.
D)between zero and g.
E)greater than g.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Momentum and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mass of a ball moving at 3 m/s with a momentum of 48 kgm/s?
A)4 kg
B)12 kg
C)16 kg
D)144 kg
E)none of these
Answer: C
Q2) An object lifted 10 m gains a certain amount of potential energy.If it is lifted 20 m,its gain in potential energy is
A)less.
B)the same.
C)twice as much.
D)four times as much.
E)more than four times as much.
Answer: C
Q3) The fuel most likely to power tomorrow's scooters,forklifts,and busses is A)hydrogen.
B)helium.
C)lithium.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Gravity, Projectiles, and Satellites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Occupants of the International Space Station experience weightlessness due to A)the absence of Earth gravity at that altitude.
B)the absence of a support force.
C)rotation of the station.
D)no inertia in space.
Q2) A satellite near Earth makes a full circle in about 90 minutes.Much farther from Earth,say at the distance to the Moon,time for a full circle would be A)90 minutes.
B)less than 90 minutes.
C)about 28 days.
D)not enough information
E)none of the above
Q3) An airplane flies at 40 m/s at an altitude of 50 m.The pilot drops a heavy package that falls to the ground below.Neglecting air resistance,the package will land
A)beneath the plane.
B)400 m behind the plane.
C)500 m behind the plane.
D)more than 500 m behind the plane.
E)none of the above
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Fluid Mechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider two vertical tubes of equal cross-section area,one containing water and the other mercury.If the liquid pressures at the bottom of the tubes are equal,both liquids would have equal
A)volumes.
B)densities.
C)weights.
D)number of molecules.
E)none of the above
Q2) A rock suspended by a weighing scale weighs 3 N when submerged in water and 5 N out of water.What is the buoyant force on the rock?
A)8 N
B)5 N
C)3 N
D)2 N
E)none of the above
Q3) When a 5-N block of wood floats in mercury the buoyant force on it is
A)less than 5 N.
B)5 N.
C)greater than 5 N.
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Chapter 6: Thermal Energy and Thermodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which law of thermodynamics states that no system can reach absolute zero?
A)First law
B)Second law
C)Third law
D)all of the above
Q2) Heat is simply another word for A)temperature.
B)thermal energy.
C)both of these
D)none of the above
Q3) When an iron ring is heated,the hole becomes A)smaller.
B)larger.
C)neither
Q4) When the temperature of a quantity of 0°-C air at constant pressure is lowered by 1 degree,its volume
A)shrinks by 1/273.
B)shrinks by 100/273.
C)increases by 1/273.
D)increases by 100/273.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Heat Transfer and Change of Phase
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glass in a florist's greenhouse acts as a one-way valve by
A)blocking the flow of light energy.
B)blocking unwanted radiation.
C)being transparent only to lower-frequency waves.
D)allowing high-frequency waves to enter and blocking low-frequency waves from exiting.
Q2) Peak frequency as noted on a radiation curve is directly proportional to the A)frequency of waves emitted.
B)wavelength of waves emitted.
C)temperature of emitted radiation.
D)temperature of the emitter.
E)none of the above
Q3) If an object radiates more energy than it absorbs,its
A)thermal energy decreases.
B)temperature decreases.
C)both of these
D)none of the above
Q4) Explain why white clothing keeps us cool,whereas black clothing warms us.Which is the better reflector? Which is the better absorber?
Q5) Why does a hot dog pant?
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Chapter 8: Static and Current Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pair of protons in the nucleus of a helium atom
A)attracts a pair of orbiting electrons.
B)repels orbiting electrons.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) The electric force between charges is strongest when the charges are A)close together.
B)far apart.
C)either of these
Q3) The electric power of a lamp that carries 2 A at 120 V is
A)1/6 W.
B)2 W.
C)60 W.
D)20 W.
E)240 W.
Q4) A term for electric pressure is A)current.
B)voltage.
C)electric resistance.
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Chapter 9: Magnetism and Electromagnetic Induction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electromagnetic induction occurs in a coil when there is a change in A)electric field intensity.
B)magnetic field intensity.
C)voltage.
D)the coil's polarity.
E)none of the above
Q2) A magnet will become weaker if it is A)dropped on a hard surface.
B)held in a hot flame.
C)either
D)neither
Q3) The lift experienced by Maglev trains is due to magnetic A)attraction.
B)repulsion.
C)dipoles.
Q4) The metal detectors that travelers walk through at airports operate via A)Ohm's law.
B)Faraday's law.
C)Coulomb's law.
D)Newton's laws.
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Chapter 10: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) The speed of sound varies with A)loudness.
B)frequency.
C)wavelength.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) The explanation for all types of refraction involves a change in A)frequency.
B)period.
C)speed.
D)all of the above E)none of the above
Q3) A red shift for light indicates that the light source is moving A)toward you.
B)away from you.
C)both of these D)none of the above
Q4) What is the Doppler effect,and how is it produced? Cite two examples.
Q5) What is resonance and the conditions for resonance? Give examples.
Q6) What is wave interference,and the two types of wave interference?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humans see best in the yellow-green region of the spectrum.So the efficiency of sodium yellow-green lamps that illuminate highways is A)higher.
B)lower.
C)not affected.
Q2) When a mirror with a fixed beam on it is rotated through a certain angle,the reflected beam is rotated through an angle
A)equal to the angle of rotation.
B)twice as much.
C)four times as much.
D)none of the above
Q3) Polarization is a property of A)transverse waves.
B)longitudinal waves.
C)both of these
D)none of the above
Q4) On a TV screen,red,green,and blue spots of light produce a full spectrum of colors.What spots are activated to produce yellow? Red? Magenta? White?
Q5) Explain why the sky is blue.
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Chapter 12: Atoms and the Periodic Table
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Sample Questions
Q1) An electron de-excites from the fourth quantum level to the third and then directly to the first.Two frequencies of light are emitted.How do their combined energies compare to the energy of the single frequency that would be emitted by de-excitation from the fourth level directly to the first level?The combined energies of the two frequencies emitted by the one electrons is
A) greater than the energy of the single frequency.
B) less than the energy of the single frequency.
C) equal to the energy of the single frequency.
D) not predictable because other factors, such as the temperature of the surroundings must also be considered.
Q2) When we breathe we inhale oxygen, O<sub>2</sub> ,and exhale carbon dioxide, CO<sub>2</sub> ,plus water vapor, H<sub>2</sub>O.Which likely has more mass,the air that we inhale or the same volume of air we exhale? Does breathing cause you to lose or gain weight?
A)The air we inhale has more mass; Breathing causes you to lose weight.
B)The air we exhale has more mass; Breathing causes you to lose weight.
C)The air we inhale has more mass; Breathing causes you to gain weight.
D)The air we exhale has more mass; Breathing causes you to gain weight.
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Chapter 13: The Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is transmutation?
A)changing one element into another by adding or removing protons from the nucleus
B)changing one element into another by adding or removing electrons from the nucleus
C)changing one element into another by adding or removing neutrons from the nucleus
D)a process that emits radiation
E)alteration in DNA due to radioactivity
Q2) Uranium-235 releases an average of 2.5 neutrons per fission,while plutonium-239 releases an average of 2.7 neutrons per fission.Which of these elements might you therefore expect to have the smaller critical mass?
A)plutonium-239
B)uranium-235
C)The number of neutrons per fission will not effect the size of critical mass.
D)The critical mass of these elements cannot be determined from only the number of neutrons per fission.
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15
Chapter 14: Elements of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nanoscience has shown that
A)a chemical occurs with the use of a scanning probe microscope.
B)the properties of a material can be different on the level of atoms then its properties when the material is analyzed in bulk.
C)a physical change can occur when using a scanning probe microscope.
D)DNA is the smallest molecule.
Q2) When two elements come together to form a compound,which element is named first within the name of the compound?
A)The element coming first in the English alphabet.
B)The element with the greater atomic mass.
C)The element with the greater atomic number.
D)The element toward the left hand side of the periodic table.
Q3) What is the name of the following compound? CO<sub>2</sub>
A)carbon dioxide
B)dicobalt
C)dioxocarbon
D)calcium oxide
E)calcium dioxide
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Chapter 15: How Atoms Bond and Molecules Attract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is metal shiny?
A)The loose electrons reflect most wavelengths of light.
B)The electrons transmit most wavelengths of light.
C)The electrons absorb each light wave.
D)The electrons emit light due to electronic excitation.
E)all of the above
Q2) Why are the melting temperatures of most ionic compounds far greater than the melting temperatures of most covalent compounds?
A)Ionic bonds are so much stronger than the molecular attractions between covalently bonded compounds.
B)Covalent bonds are not as strong as ionic bonds.
C)As a solid,salts have a very organized crystalline structure which takes a lot of energy to break apart.
D)Most covalent compounds have at least one weak bond in their structure that is easily broken when heat is added.
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Chapter 16: Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the solubility of a compound is 30 grams per liter,how much solid is left undissolved if you mix 30 g of the compound in 0.33 L of solution?
A)20 g
B)10 g
C)0 g
D)30 g
E)33 g
Q2) What is the molarity when water is added to 2 moles of sodium chloride to make 0.5 liter of solution?
A)8 M
B)4 M
C)5 M
D)2.5 M
Q3) What statement best describes a mole?
A)a little furry mammal that lives in the ground
B)a very small number chemists use to count atoms or molecules
C)the amount of molecules or atoms in 1 gram of something
D)It is a very large number chemists use to count atoms or molecules.
E)none of the above
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Page 18
Chapter 17: How Chemicals React
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why might increasing the concentration of a set of reactants increase the rate of reaction?
A)You have increased the chances that any two reactant molecules will collide and react.
B)You have increased the ratio of reactants to products.
C)The concentration of reactants is unrelated to the rate of reaction.
D)The rate of reaction depends only on the mass of the atoms and therefore increases as you increase the mass of the reactants.
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following reaction energies is the least exothermic (but still an exothermic reaction)?
A)540 kJ/mole
B)-540 kJ/mole
C)125 kJ/mole
D)-125 kJ/mole
E)not enough information given
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Chapter 18: Two Classes of Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the half-reactions below would be complementary,balance the following half-reaction,and be chemically reasonable? Br<sub>2</sub> 2 Br<sup>-</sup>
A)2 K 2 K<sup>+</sup>
B)K<sup>+</sup> K
C)K K<sup>+</sup>
D)2 K<sup>+</sup> 2 K
E)K K<sup>+2</sup>
Q2) The following set of redox reactions takes place when iron is dipped in a solution of copper ions. Fe Fe<sup>+2</sup> + 2eCu<sup>+2</sup> + 2e- Cu
Which of the following describes what is happening on the surface of the iron?
A)The copper starts to plate out on iron.
B)The iron rusts in the water.
C)The iron starts to plate out on the copper.
D)The iron corrodes the copper.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 19: Organic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where would you expect to isolate molecules in a fractionating tower that have a large number of interatomic forces?
A)near the bottom
B)near the top
C)near the middle
D)Fractional distillation takes advantage of molecular weight.
E)Fractional distillation takes advantage of the number of isomers.
Q2) Hydrocarbons release a lot of energy when ignited.Where does this energy ultimately come from?
A)the breaking of chemical bonds
B)the formation of chemical bonds
C)photosynthesis
D)nuclear fusion in the sun
Q3) Suggest an explanation for why aspirin has a sour taste.
A)It is the acidic nature of aspirin that gives rise to its sour taste.
B)The sour flavor is added to help prevent overdosing.
C)Aspirin is made sour as a mandated child safety feature.
D)It is the basic nature of aspirin that gives rise to its sour taste.
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Chapter 20: Rocks and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metamorphic foliation is
A)the same as sedimentary layering.
B)the prominent orientation of recrystallized minerals.
C)caused by the interaction with chemical fluids.
D)a layered appearance caused by mineral growth perpendicular to direction of pressure.
Q2) For the crystallization of minerals from a magma,melting point determines which mineral will form first.For evaporite minerals
A)solubility determines which mineral will form first.
B)salinity determines which mineral will form first.
C)melting point also determines which mineral will form first.
D)there is no single determinant.All evaporite minerals precipitate at the same time.
Q3) Beautiful cone-shaped volcanoes such as Mt.Fuji,Mt.Hood,and Mt.Rainer are predominantly composed of A)basaltic rocks.
B)andesitic rocks.
C)granitic rocks.
Q4) What is the difference between intrusive and extrusive igneous rocks?
Q5) What are the rock-forming mineral groups?
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Chapter 21: Plate Tectonics and Earths Interior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The crustal surface and the uppermost part of the mantle is called the A)asthenosphere.
B)lithosphere.
C)mohorovicic.
D)centrosphere.
Q2) Because S-waves do not travel through Earth's outer core,scientists inferred that the outer core is A)impenetrable.
B)molten liquid.
C)solid.
D)very dense.
Q3) The outer core is A)rock. B)plastic.
C)liquid.
D)the source for volcanoes.
Q4) What are the two major kinds of waves an earthquake produces?
Q5) What is the principle of isostasy,and what evidence supports it?
Q6) Compare the relative speeds of primary and secondary seismic waves,and relate speeds of travel to the medium in which the waves travel.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Shaping Earths Surface
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability to carry large particle sizes is dependent on the stream's A)laminar flow.
B)velocity.
C)discharge.
D)channel geometry.
Q2) Stalactites form from
A)a cave ceiling downward.
B)a cave floor upward.
C)calcium-rich water dripping down from the cave ceiling.
D)the accumulation of calcium-rich water dripping on the cave floor.
Q3) The annual amount of snow lost by a glacier is called A)accumulation.
B)sublimation.
C)ablation.
D)sustation.
Q4) The direction of ice flow can be determined by A)striations,roches moutonnées,and drumlins.
B)striations,roches moutonnées,and drumsticks.
C)moraines,drift,and till.
D)sled tracks,igloos,and drumsticks.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Geologic Time - Reading the Rock Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the Mesozoic,the supercontinent of Pangaea fragmented into A)Laurasia and Gondwanaland.
B)a rift zone between Africa and Europe.
C)the present-day continents we see today.
D)four quadrants.
Q2) During the Pleistocene ice age
A)there was one large episode of glacial advance.
B)there were several episodes of glacial advance and retreat.
C)Earth's entire surface was covered with ice.
D)Earth's oceans were completely frozen.
Q3) The break-up of Pangaea resulted in the separation of A)habitats.
B)landmasses.
C)plant and animal life.
D)landmasses,and plants and animals and their habitats.
Q4) The birth of the San Andreas Fault corresponds to the collision of
A)the Pacific Plate and the Hawaiian islands.
B)the Pacific ridge system and North America.
C)the movement of the Pacific Plate over a turbulent zone.
D)India and Eurasia.
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Chapter 24: The Oceans, Atmosphere, and Climatic Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ozone layer is a region within the A)troposphere.
B)stratosphere.
C)mesosphere.
D)ionosphere.
Q2) Almost all of Earth's supply of energy comes from A)the oceans.
B)Earth's interior.
C)the Sun.
D)carbon dioxide.
Q3) Air that flows northward from the horse latitudes in the Southern Hemisphere deflects westward to produce the A)trade winds.
B)westerlies.
C)Gulf Stream.
D)Kuroshio current.
Q4) Explain the relationship between the general circulation of the air and the circulation of ocean currents.
Q5) Why does air pressure decrease with height more rapidly in cold air than in warm air?
26
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Chapter 25: Driving Forces of Weather
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tornadoes are rapidly rotating winds that blow counterclockwise around a small area of intense
A)high pressure.
B)low pressure.
Q2) If a cool dry day was followed by a warm humid day,you might expect they resulted from which of the following consecutive air masses?
A)maritime tropical (mT)followed by continental polar (cP)
B)maritime polar (mP)followed by maritime tropical (mT)
C)continental polar (cP)followed by maritime tropical (mT)
D)continental tropical (cT)followed by continental polar (cP)
Q3) The atmospheric condition at a particular location at a particular moment in time is called
A)weather.
B)climate.
C)average temperature.
D)average precipitation level.
Q4) Does a rising moist air mass or a descending moist air mass produce precipitation? Why?
Q5) Why are there usually large spaces of blue sky between cumulus clouds?
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Chapter 26: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Earth's Moon is about the A)same size of a typical asteroid.
B)much bigger than a typical asteroid.
C)much smaller than a typical asteroid.
Q2) The external region of the Sun that tends to be pink is the A)photosphere.
B)chromosphere.
C)mesosphere.
D)corona.
Q3) Consider a huge rotating cloud of particles in space that gravitate together to form an increasingly dense ball.As the cloud shrinks in size,it A)rotates slower.
B)rotates faster.
C)rotates at the same rate.
Q4) Pluto is found within the A)Oort cloud.
B)Kuiper belt.
C)asteroid belt.
D)orbit of Neptune.
Q5) What is the evidence that the Sun is a relatively new star in the universe?
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Chapter 27: Stars and Galaxies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most white dwarfs
A)have relatively hot surfaces.
B)have relatively cool surfaces.
C)evolve into black holes.
D)are about as dense as their parent stars.
Q2) Compared to most stellar objects,quasars are more
A)distant.
B)energetic.
C)puzzling.
D)all of these
E)none of these
Q3) Summer and winter constellations are different because
A)of the spin of the Earth about its polar axis.
B)the night sky faces in opposite directions in summer and winter.
C)of the tilt of the Earth's polar axis.
D)the Earth is at the solar perigee in winter and apogee in summer.
E)the universe is symmetric.
Q4) What happens to a star when the fusion cycle gets to the element iron?
Q5) How does the mass of a giant star compare with the mass of the black hole it may become? How do the densities compare?
Page 29
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Chapter 28: The Structure of Space and Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formation of more protons than neutrons (at about a 7:1.ratio)was favored in the early universe because
A)it takes more energy to create a neutron from a proton than a proton from a neutron.
B)it takes more energy to create a proton from a neutron than a neutron from a proton.
C)the more massive neutrons made better targets for nucleon collisions.
D)the positively charged protons were repelled away from the explosion.
Q2) Light is without mass,so how can gravity have an effect on light?
A)The space through which the light passes is curved.
B)Photons actually have a very small mass,so gravity does have an effect on them.
C)When light interacts with particles,it loses some energy,and thus takes on some mass.
D)Gravity has no effect on light.
Q3) Technically,its not mass that causes the curvature of spacetime,but A)mass density.
B)energy density.
C)thermal mass.
D)thermal mass fluctuations.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Prologue: The Nature of Science
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/57698
Sample Questions
Q1) In science,a theory is
A)an educated guess.
B)less than a fact.
C)a synthesis of a large body of well-tested knowledge.
D)unchangeable.
Q2) In science,facts
A)are absolute.
B)may change.
C)mean very little.
D)are more important than theories.
Q3) A truly educated person is knowledgeable about A)science.
B)the arts.
C)religion.
D)all of the above
Q4) Technology is mainly
A)a body of scientific knowledge.
B)a tool of science.
C)what is wrong with the world.
D)a solution to all of mankind's problems.
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