Integrated Adult Care Nursing Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Integrated Adult Care Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of adults with diverse and complex health needs across multiple healthcare settings. The course emphasizes a holistic approach to patient care, integrating physical, psychological, and social aspects to promote wellness, prevent illness, and manage acute and chronic conditions. Students will develop advanced assessment, clinical reasoning, and evidence-based intervention skills, while learning to collaborate effectively within interdisciplinary teams to coordinate patient-centered care. Legal, ethical, and cultural considerations, as well as patient advocacy and health education, are also explored to prepare students as competent, compassionate adult care nurses.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing Clinical Management for Positive Outcomes Single Volume 8th Edition
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82 Chapters
1873 Verified Questions
1873 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning a community STD (sexually transmitted disease) screening fair. This activity would be considered
A) epidemiologic prevention.
B) primary prevention.
C) secondary prevention.
D) tertiary prevention.
Answer: C
Q2) Suggestions that a home health nurse could make to an elderly client with cataracts to reduce the risk of falls in his home would include
A) arranging scatter rugs to prevent slipping on the hardwood floor.
B) using lower-illumination bulbs to prevent eyestrain.
C) using night lights in every room.
D) wearing soft-soled house shoes indoors.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Health Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is brought to the emergency department in serious condition and needs an operation within the next hour. Which of the following principles does the nurse use to guide the health history? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assess the client's current health status.
B) Collect data pertinent to the immediate problem.
C) Strive to collect only pertinent data while being thorough.
D) Update the database when the client's condition allows.
E) Use a systematic approach to gather the client's entire health history.
Answer: A, B, C, D
Q2) A client had surgery yesterday and is complaining of pain. The best action by the nurse is to
A) ask the patient which pain medication she/he took last.
B) do a complete assessment of the pain.
C) prepare to administer the ordered pain medication.
D) record the client's complaints thoroughly and get the pain medication.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Critical Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse brings a client a medication that is scheduled once daily with food. The medication administration record lists it as being due at 9:00 AM. The client refuses the medication, asking to take it later. The nurse replies "That's OK. I can give it to you with your lunch if you like." Which statement about the nurse is correct? The nurse
A) is being flexible and logical.
B) just made a medication error.
C) needs to call the doctor.
D) should tell the patient to take the medication now.
Answer: A
Q2) At the beginning of the shift a student nurse is meeting with the registered nurse (RN) assigned to the student's client. The student nurse should provide the RN with which information? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assessments the student will make
B) Documentation the student will complete
C) Medications the student will administer
D) Treatments the student can perform
E) What time the student is going to lunch
Answer: A, B, C, D
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Chapter 4: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly Chinese woman tells the nurse that she must improve the flow of her Qi. The nurse asks the client how long she has been using A) acupuncture.
B) Ayurveda.
C) Tai Chi.
D) yoga.
Q2) A nurse understands that many conventional drugs are derived from plants, such as A) meperidine (Demerol).
B) penicillin.
C) quinine.
D) steroids.
Q3) A nurse taking the history of a client with rheumatoid arthritis might be alerted to the client's use of CAM when the client says
A) "A bunch of nuts believe that putting nice smells in the air cures arthritis."
B) "Doctors don't know everything, you know."
C) "I've heard something about alternative medicine. What is that?"
D) "What do you think about biofeedback?"
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Chapter 5: Ambulatory Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ambulatory care center nurse assures a dubious client that she has been certified as an ambulatory nurse by
A) application to the Accreditation Association for Ambulatory Health Care.
B) membership in the National Committee for Quality Assurance.
C) passing a specialized examination.
D) working as an ambulatory care nurse for 5 years.
Q2) The nurse manager of an ambulatory care center assesses the center for environmental hazards to comply with guidelines of both the local state health department and the
A) Ambulatory Care Nursing Administration and Practice.
B) American Nurse's Credentialing Center.
C) Nurse Practice Act.
D) Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
Q3) The nurse instructor describes an integrated delivery system and cites the example of
A) a hospital's alignment with several physician groups to increase hospital referral.
B) an outpatient clinic in the hospital.
C) enrollees of the system being "locked" into the system of care for services.
D) providers concerned about generating revenue.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Acute Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using a nursing intensity classification system, the nurse manager assesses that the client requiring the greatest amount of care is the
A) 24-year-old with a 3-day-old fractured femur in Russell's traction.
B) 37-year-old in isolation for hepatitis who is vomiting.
C) 42-year-old 1 day after a craniotomy.
D) 76-year-old 4 days after a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) who is comatose.
Q2) A client experiences chest pain with electrocardiographic changes during an appointment with the primary care physician, and the physician orders hospital admission for cardiac monitoring. This type of admission is a(n)
A) elective admission.
B) emergency admission.
C) direct admission.
D) scheduled admission.
Q3) A registered nurse (RN) seeking work in a voluntary health agency would choose a A) church-affiliated hospital.
B) proprietary hospital.
C) state university hospital.
D) veterans administration (VA) hospital.
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Chapter 7: Critical Care
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The essential nurse competency that the critical care nurse uses when providing best care practices is
A) advocacy.
B) clinical inquiry.
C) clinical judgment.
D) systems thinking.
Q2) The ICU nurse planning care for a critically ill client tries to arrange care to minimize the most disruptive stressor for the client, which is
A) alteration in sleep.
B) fear of the unknown.
C) persistent pain.
D) sense of isolation.
Q3) A critical care nurse understands that stressors affecting both the client and the client's family include (Select all that apply)
A) disorientation.
B) fear.
C) immobility.
D) pain.
E) privacy.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Home Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The domain of the Omaha System that the nurse would reference in making her assessment relative to caretaking/parenting is
A) Environment.
B) Health-Related Behaviors.
C) Physiological.
D) Psychosocial.
Q2) The Henry Street Settlement in New York City, which offered public health nursing to clients with chronic health problems, was established by
A) Clara Barton.
B) Dorothea Dix and Sojourner Truth.
C) Frances Root.
D) Lillian Wald and Mary Brewster.
Q3) Consumer need and demand for home health care have increased dramatically in recent years because of (Select all that apply)
A) the advent of Medicare reimbursement for home care.
B) the closing of acute care hospital beds.
C) escalating health care costs.
D) increased consumer demand.
E) lack of services available in the hospital.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Long-Term Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transfer from a long-term care facility is being considered for a combative resident.OBRA Resident Rights that impact this decision include
A) a legitimate and documented reason for the transfer.
B) addressing the problem behavior in the care plan.
C) the family preventing the discharge through litigation.
D) the resident has the right to delay the transfer for 20 days.
Q2) After a long-term care facility nurse receives a phone order from the physician, the nurse must ensure that the order is countersigned in A) 8 hours.
B) 12 hours.
C) 24 hours.
D) 48 hours.
Q3) The form of residential long-term care facility that offers the most personal freedom, as well as provision of meals, medication supervision, and personal care assistance, is A) adult day care center.
B) assisted living center.
C) nursing home.
D) transitional care setting.
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Chapter 10: Rehabilitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) To set the stage for a successful rehabilitation experience, the rehabilitation nurse helps the client and the family conceptualize their definition of A) activity participation.
B) independence.
C) quality of life.
D) wellness.
Q2) The rehabilitation nurse reminds a client that according to the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF), the broad theoretical qualification criterion for rehabilitation services is that the client
A) has impaired mobility in two limbs.
B) has impairments that lead to reduced ability to engage in activities.
C) is no longer capable of independent living.
D) requires assistance in mobility, dressing, and toileting.
Q3) The rehabilitation nurse stresses that the major focus in a rehabilitation setting is A) acquisition of services for the newly discharged client.
B) elimination of clinical manifestations.
C) prevention of disease progression.
D) skills' instruction for independence.
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Chapter 11: Clients with Fluid Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse working with elderly clients in a nursing home assesses them for dehydration closely because the clients (Select all that apply)
A) are more susceptible to developing ascites and anasarca.
B) experience interactions among drugs they may take for chronic illnesses.
C) have a decreased proportion of body water as compared to fat.
D) may be demented and not realize they need to drink.
E) probably have a diminished sense of thirst.
Q2) A client is taking an IV diuretic for fluid volume excess. Which of the following assessments should the nurse report to the physician?
A) Decrease in edema
B) Decrease in potassium level
C) Increase in urine output
D) Weight loss
Q3) A client with dehydration is being weighed on a standing scale next to the bed. The most important action by the nurse is to
A) assist the client to prevent falls.
B) calibrate the scale per manufacturer's directions.
C) document the weight and compare it with prior ones.
D) explain to the client what is going to happen.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Clients with Electrolyte Imbalances
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a magnesium deficit in addition to congestive heart failure (CHF). The most appropriate nursing diagnosis is
A) Altered Comfort.
B) High Risk for Injury.
C) Impaired Skin Integrity.
D) Risk for Decreased Cardiac Output.
Q2) A client has end-stage renal disease and is going to start dialysis this week. The nurse is aware the client is at most risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hypophosphatemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
Q3) A nurse notes that a client has a "stat" order for sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). The nurse quickly checks serum laboratory results, anticipating A) hyperkalemia.
B) hyperphosphatemia.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hypophosphatemia.
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14
Chapter 13: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is admitted to the hospital with severe vomiting and is diagnosed with metabolic alkalosis. The nurse anticipates that the laboratory value that would support this diagnosis is
A) arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO<sub>2</sub>) of 30 mm Hg.Q
B) arterial pH of 7.30.
C) serum calcium level of 9.0 mEq/L.
D) serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L.
Q2) Receiving a client's ABG report with pH of 7.40, PaCO<sub>2</sub> of 55 mm Hg, and bicarbonate level of 20 mEq/L, the nurse interprets these values to indicate
A) erroneous blood gas data.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) mixed acid-base disorder.
D) respiratory alkalosis.
Q3) For a 34-year-old client in renal failure who develops acidosis, the nurse would assess for
A) drowsiness.
B) hypoventilation.
C) muscle hyperactivity.
D) paresthesias.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Clients Having Surgery
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the first 3 days after surgery, the nurse would anticipate the fluid and electrolyte adjustment of
A) elevated hematocrit level.
B) fluid retention.
C) increase in serum potassium level.
D) increased urine output.
Q2) The recovery room nurse places the client in the lateral Sims position on admission to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) because this position
A) allows the tongue to fall forward.
B) discourages thrombophlebitis.
C) helps stabilize blood pressure.
D) prevents abdominal distention.
Q3) The nurse caring for a client who had spinal anesthesia will ensure that the plan of care includes
A) administering oxygen to reduce the hypoxia produced by spinal anesthesia.
B) elevating the client's feet to increase the blood pressure.
C) elevating the head of the bed to decrease nausea.
D) instructing the client to remain flat in bed for 6 hours.
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Chapter 15: Perspectives in Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse working on a general medical-surgical unit in the hospital cares for clients with a variety of diseases that have a genetic component, including (Select all that apply)
A) Alzheimer's disease.
B) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
C) diabetes.
D) heart disease.
E) sickle cell anemia.
Q2) A nurse providing genetic counseling explains that when one parent has an autosomal dominant gene for an inherited disease, the chances of the child being affected are
A) 10%.
B) 25%.
C) 50%.
D) 100%.
Q3) The Human Genome Project (HGP) was begun in 1990 to A) alter the course of inherited disorders.
B) clone an animal, then a human.
C) determine the location of genes on chromosomes.
D) replicate the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
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Chapter 16: Perspectives in Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is considering having genetic testing for cancer that "runs in the family." Vital information for the nurse to include in the teaching plan before the client has the testing includes telling the client that
A) Genetic testing is simple and inexpensive and the client does not need to seek out a specialist to interpret the results.
B) If a genetic test comes back positive for a gene related to cancer, the client will develop the cancer.
C) There are so many genetically-based cancers that even genetic testing cannot possibly cover them all.
D) There are specific state and federal laws to protect people who undergo genetic testing from insurance and job discrimination.
Q2) A nurse is administering IV chemotherapy. What personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse use when doing this task?
A) A gown and gloves
B) Gloves and a mask
C) No special PPE is needed
D) Only gloves
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Chapter 17: Clients with Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should closely assess a client undergoing chemotherapy for a tumor that is responding to the therapy for any indication of tumor lysis syndrome, which is marked by
A) hypercalcemia.
B) hyperkalemia.
C) increase in antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
D) platelet count below 20,000/mm<sup>3</sup>.
Q2) The nurse has assigned the nursing diagnosis Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements, Related to Anorexia for a client with colon cancer. Nursing goals include the maintenance of present body weight. To achieve this goal, the nurse should suggest a diet that is high in
A) calories and low in cholesterol.
B) fat and calories.
C) fat and low in bulk.
D) protein and calories.
Q3) When there is extravasation of vincristine (Oncovin), the nurse should initially
A) apply cold compresses to the site.
B) apply manual pressure to delay further circulation.
C) call the physician immediately.
D) leave the cannula in place and aspirate.
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Chapter 18: Clients with Wounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client must do dressing changes at home on a clean, but open, surgical wound. The nurse determines that goals for discharge instructions have been met when the client says:
A) "I will be sure to keep the skin surrounding the wound dry."
B) "I will sit under a heat lamp for 30 minutes a day to help dry up the drainage."
C) "If I run out of saline, I can irrigate the wound with half strength peroxide."
D) "Pulling out the dried up dressings will help clean the wound out."
Q2) On a client's admission to the hospital, the nurse notes that the client has a yellow sacral decubitus ulcer. The nurse anticipates that the most appropriate wound treatment would be
A) applying antibiotic ointment.
B) surgical removal of eschar.
C) using wet-to-dry dressings.
D) vigorous cleansing with a Water Pik.
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Chapter 19: Perspectives on Infectious Disease and Bioterrorism
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) should
A) discourage transfer to a long-term care facility.
B) encourage the client to increase fluid consumption.
C) place the client in protective isolation.
D) use standard precautions plus transmission-based precautions.
Q2) The nurse assesses a client's systemic manifestations of fever and malaise as the line of defense known as
A) complete.
B) partial.
C) primary.
D) secondary.
Q3) General health promotion measures a nurse can teach a group of clients in order to prevent infections include (Select all that apply)
A) controlling portals of exit of infectious organisms.
B) eliminating personal behaviors that might lead to infection.
C) examining cultural behaviors that might promote infection.
D) maintaining good nutritional status.
E) preventing displacement of normal flora.
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Chapter 20: Clients with Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two days after a cholecystectomy the client is kept comfortable with oral NSAIDs. The client's spouse asks the nurse why the client is not receiving something stronger, saying, "I know the procedure causes a lot of pain because I also had my gallbladder removed."
The nurse's answer is based on the fact that
A) oral medications are always the preferred route for pain medication.
B) strong analgesics interfere with client assessment.
C) the client should be switched to mild pain medication as quickly as possible.
D) the client's perception of the relief of pain is the best standard of pain relief.
Q2) When the client complains of nausea after receiving his first dose of morphine for pain, the nurse should
A) encourage the client to wait as long as possible for the next dose.
B) give only half of the prescribed dose of morphine the next time.
C) instruct the client that with continued use the nausea will lessen.
D) withhold the next dose of morphine until re-evaluation by the physician.
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Chapter 21: Perspectives in Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a terminally ill client with cancer would assess a key indicator of clinical depression as being the client's
A) anger over the pain experience.
B) anorexia and weight loss.
C) feelings of hopelessness.
D) inability to provide physical self-care.
Q2) The family member of a client who had a terminal illness and died 18 months ago is still actively grieving over the loss. The nurse assesses that this individual may be experiencing
A) a psychological disorder.
B) delayed grief.
C) exaggerated grief.
D) normal grief.
Q3) A nurse working with clients on a hospice service understands that a client's quality of life is often linked to
A) projections about the amount of time that the client can expect to live.
B) strength and remaining physical ability to perform self-care.
C) symptom distress and the meanings attached to these physical sensations.
D) the number of family and friends who remain as a support system.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Clients with Sleep and Rest Disorders and Fatigue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to a client with periodic limb movement disorder that the drug that might be helpful in alleviating the clinical manifestations of this sleeping disorder is
A) amitriptyline (Elavil).
B) carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet).
C) fluoxetine (Prozac).
D) haloperidol (Haldol).
Q2) During rapid eye movement (REM) sleep, there is an increase in the neurotransmitter
A) acetylcholine.
B) dopamine.
C) norepinephrine.
D) serotonin.
Q3) After a client's discharge from the critical care unit to the step-down unit after a myocardial infarction, the nurse assesses the client carefully during sleep because A) anxiety relative to the recent myocardial infarct may cause sleep disorders.
B) apnea is more common immediately after myocardial infarction.
C) breathing abnormalities may result in hypoxia.
D) REM rebound may occur, placing greater demands on the heart.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Clients with Psychosocial and Mental Health
Concerns
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Sample Questions
Q1) The newly diagnosed diabetic client asks the nurse many questions about management of diet and insulin protocols. The nurse assesses that the client is using
A) cause-and-effect coping mechanisms.
B) defense mechanisms.
C) delaying mechanisms.
D) problem-focused coping mechanisms.
Q2) The nurse attempting to develop a plan of care that addresses a client's spirituality should incorporate measures to address
A) broad concepts related to values, meaning, and purpose.
B) only those individual aspects of the self that the client has shared with the nurse.
C) the client's religion and the specific degree of participation in the church.
D) the personal relationship between God and the client.
Q3) The nonverbal behavior of the nurse that is likely to increase anxiety in a client is A) speaking slowly in a clear, firm voice.
B) maintaining a brisk, business-like approach.
C) listening with full attention.
D) decreasing noise levels and bright light.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Clients with Substance Abuse Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes a potential health threat to an alcoholic client who is using the drug disulfiram (Antabuse) when the nurse reads in the health record that the client is also taking
A) Coumadin.
B) diphenhydramine (Benadryl) tablets.
C) Milk of Magnesia.
D) penicillin.
Q2) A young man is brought to the emergency department after having a seizure at home. Assessment reveals a blood pressure of (70/36)mm Hg, a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min, and cardiac dysrhythmias. The most appropriate question the nurse should ask the client's friend is
A) "Does he take amphetamines or uppers?"
B) "Has he ever used LSD?"
C) "Have you two been out of the country in the last 2 days?"
D) "Is he using any opioids such as heroin?"
Q3) The nurse teaching a client taking disulfiram (Antabuse) should focus on
A) abstaining from alcohol ingestion.
B) daily exercise.
C) emotional support for the family.
D) skin care.
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Chapter 25: Assessment of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client who has osteoarthritis describes a grating sound in the hip. The nurse explains that this bothersome manifestation is related to A) bursa enlargement.
B) joint irregularities.
C) normal findings with age.
D) the presence of fluid.
Q2) A client complains of deep aching in his lower leg. The nurse completes an assessment focusing on other indicators of A) bone cancer.
B) infection.
C) muscle strain.
D) neuromuscular impairment.
Q3) The nurse assesses the client for common musculoskeletal clinical manifestations, which include (Select all that apply)
A) infection.
B) limited range of motion.
C) pain.
D) stiffness.
E) swelling.
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Chapter 26: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is counseling a client at risk of osteoporosis that one of the most beneficial exercises is
A) cycling.
B) swimming.
C) walking.
D) water aerobics.
Q2) A client has septic arthritis of the knee and the inflammation is beginning to subside. The best nursing action to prevent joint contractures at this point is to
A) encourage the client to get out of bed and ambulate.
B) have physical therapy plan an active ROM regimen.
C) immobilize the joint in a sling until the infection resolves.
D) provide passive ROM for the affected joint.
Q3) The nurse counseling a client with osteoporosis identifies one of the medications that may have contributed to the condition as A) aspirin.
B) colchicine.
C) ibuprofen.
D) prednisone.
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Chapter 27: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal
Trauma or Overuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses an 85-year-old client who has fallen and finds crepitus and swelling below the right elbow. The nurse interprets these findings as
A) a closed fracture.
B) a dislocation.
C) manifestations of degenerative joint disease.
D) normal variations related to age.
Q2) A client with a left lower leg fracture in a cast for 3 days complains to the nurse that the pain medication does not relieve the pain any more. The priority action by the nurse would be to
A) administer more analgesics.
B) do a neurovascular assessment.
C) elevate the cast on pillows.
D) notify the physician.
Q3) The nurse explains to a client with delayed union of a fractured femur that treatment for this complication is based on
A) finding and correcting the cause.
B) physical therapy using deep-heat modalities.
C) realigning the fracture with traction.
D) stabilizing the fracture with a metal plate.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Assessment of Nutrition and the Digestive System
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4026
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is assessing a client who complains of aching abdominal pain. To correctly assess this client, the nurse would
A) defer palpation altogether.
B) give pain medication before starting.
C) palpate the nonpainful areas first.
D) percuss the abdomen before ausculating.
Q2) When preparing a client for gastric analysis, the nurse should plan for A) antacid administration.
B) fluoroscopic examination.
C) frequent expectoration for samples.
D) nasogastric tube insertion.
Q3) For a client taking a histamine H? blocker to reduce clinical manifestations of gastritis, the nurse would clarify that the client is at risk for a possible deficiency of vitamin
A) A.
B) B<sub>12</sub>.
C) C.
D) D.
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Chapter 29: Management of Clients with Malnutrition
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4027
Sample Questions
Q1) At 8 AM a nurse hangs a bag containing enteral nutrition formula for a client. The nurse will return at
A) 9 AM to change the tubing and bag and add new formula.
B) 10 AM to discard remaining formula and replace it with new.
C) 12 noon to replace formula after rinsing the bag and tubing.
D) 1 PM to flush the bag and tubing and add formula.
Q2) A client who has begun receiving TPN with lipids develops shaking chills, shortness of breath, and chest pain. The priority action by the nurse is to immediately
A) call the physician.
B) obtain a 12-lead ECG.
C) stop the infusion.
D) take a set of vitals.
Q3) In feeding a client with a cognitive impairment, the least helpful nursing action is to
A) create a quiet, unhurried environment.
B) distract the client with conversation.
C) orient the client to the feeding equipment.
D) provide several small meals.
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Chapter 30: Management of Clients with Ingestive Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4028
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client receiving diuretics who develops parotitis would
A) ask the physician to discontinue the diuretics.
B) discontinue the use of dental floss.
C) encourage the client to suck sugarless candy.
D) restrict oral fluids.
Q2) Priority nursing interventions for a client immediately after glossectomy include measures to
A) assist with body image issues.
B) maintain a patent airway.
C) monitor for hemorrhage.
D) provide analgesia.
Q3) A client is being dismissed after extensive surgery for oral cancer. Teaching goals have been met and the client seems to be coping well with the diagnosis and physical changes from the operation. Which intervention by the nurse would best meet anticipated client needs at home?
A) Arrange a social worker and home health care consult.
B) Be sure to give the client written discharge instructions.
C) Make follow-up appointments for the client and provide physician phone numbers.
D) Review the teaching about caring for the tracheostomy.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Management of Clients with Digestive Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4029
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is taking cortisone. The nurse schedules the medication with food because cortisone can have which effect on gastric mucosa when given on an empty stomach? Cortisone will cause
A) dramatically increased gastric pH.
B) increased amount of GI secretions.
C) increased transit time of GI contents.
D) susceptibility of the mucosa to injury.
Q2) The nurse has just finished inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube in a client who has difficulty swallowing. The best measure to test for placement of the tube is
A) asking the client to speak.
B) aspirating gastric contents.
C) inspecting the posterior pharynx for correct placement.
D) placing the end of the tube in a glass of water.
Q3) An important health promotion activity for nurses to teach clients with chronic gastritis is to
A) avoid any spicy or overly-hot food.
B) see the health care provider at regular intervals.
C) stick to a regular exercise plan.
D) take only nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for mild pain.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Assessment of Elimination
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4030
Sample Questions
Q1) A client experiencing hematuria tells the nurse that the bleeding occurs at the end of urination, which could indicate a lesion in the
A) prostate.
B) renal pelvis.
C) upper bladder.
D) upper urinary tract.
Q2) The nurse explains that the serum creatinine level is a better indicator for renal disorders because serum creatinine
A) closely reflects the dietary intake.
B) does not change in other systemic disorders.
C) has a constant ratio of 20:1 to blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
D) is unaffected by hydration status.
Q3) The nurse explains that a large increase of urobilinogen in the client's urine is consistent with the diagnosis of A) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
B) cancer of the kidney or bladder.
C) gastroenteritis.
D) hepatitis or other liver disease.
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Chapter 33: Management of Clients with Intestinal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4031
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse taking the history of an 80-year-old woman diagnosed with gastroenteritis would recognize that the most significant factor in determining potential for complications in this client is
A) age.
B) family history.
C) gender.
D) prior bouts of gastroenteritis.
Q2) For a client who has returned to the nursing unit after creation of a continent ileostomy (Kock pouch), the action the nurse would include in the plan of care is
A) attach the catheter to straight drainage initially for several days.
B) irrigate the pouch daily with sterile solutions only.
C) provide a permanent appliance and assist the client in application.
D) restrict oral intake until ileal drainage is profuse.
Q3) In caring for a client who is vomiting fecal material, the nurse should place the highest priority on which action?
A) Administering parenteral fluids that contain electrolytes
B) Encouraging the client to take small sips of water
C) Giving the client frequent oral hygiene
D) Preparing the client for surgery
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Management of Clients with Urinary Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4032
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would realize that additional teaching is needed when the client with a ureteroileostomy says "I
A) am going shopping for new clothing that will better accommodate the pouch."
B) will change the pouch when it begins to leak."
C) won't drink too much so the amount of urine I make will be less."
D) am going to cut down on eating dairy products."
Q2) For a client experiencing urinary retention with overflow, the factor in the client's history that would prompt the nurse to question an order for a cholinergic medication is A) bladder outlet obstruction.
B) diabetes mellitus.
C) frequent UTIs.
D) multiple pregnancies.
Q3) In teaching a client who requires a condom catheter for control of incontinence how to properly apply the system, the nurse stresses that part of the correct method for applying the device is to
A) apply the condom close to the end of the penis.
B) attach the device with tape wrapped around the shaft of the penis.
C) fasten the sheath with elastic tape applied in a spiral manner.
D) retract the foreskin before application.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Management of Clients with Renal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4033
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has nephritis. Which intervention can the nurse institute to best encourage the client to attain adequate emotional rest?
A) Encourage the family to visit often.
B) Have the client schedule specific rest periods.
C) Help the client deal with emotional reactions.
D) Request anti-anxiety medication from the physician.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease who is admitted for pneumonia. The nurse would expect that an appropriate antibiotic that the physician might consider is a/an
A) aminoglycoside.
B) cephalosporin.
C) penicillin.
D) sulfonamide.
Q3) A nurse could advise a group of employees at a work-site health fair that one health promotion measure that may help reduce the risk of renal cancer is
A) consuming a low-protein diet.
B) getting plenty of exercise.
C) limiting antibiotic use.
D) not smoking.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Management of Clients with Renal Failure
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4034
Sample Questions
Q1) In caring for a chronic dialysis patient with an arteriovenous fistula, the nurse would
A) avoid getting the fistula site wet during the client's bath.
B) irrigate the fistula with heparin to prevent clotting.
C) not use the arm with the fistula when taking the client's BP.
D) perform dressing changes to prevent infection.
Q2) A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following interventions would help the client meet a priority outcome?
A) Delegate monitoring vital signs during dialysis to the nurses' aide.
B) Instruct the client not to get out of bed without assistance.
C) Place a sign on the door outlining the fluid allotment for each shift.
D) Plan to weigh the client each morning on the same scale.
Q3) The nurse caring for a client in the diuretic phase of acute renal failure (ARF) should assess for manifestations of
A) dehydration.
B) hypertension.
C) hypokalemia.
D) metabolic acidosis.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Assessment of the Reproductive System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4035
Sample Questions
Q1) In discussing mammography with a client, the nurse would include the current recommendation that
A) all females should have a baseline mammogram at menarche.
B) all females should have a baseline mammogram when they are 21.
C) mammograms should be done semi-annually in women over age 35.
D) mammograms should be done yearly in women over age 40.
Q2) The nurse teaches a client scheduled for semen examination that in order to provide an adequate sample, the client should
A) abstain from ejaculating 2 to 5 days before the test.
B) drink plenty of liquids for 24 hours before the test.
C) get plenty of sleep the night before the test.
D) increase intake of red meat 3 days before the test.
Q3) When obtaining a sexual history from a female client, a nurse should first
A) ask general questions regarding current sexual activity.
B) ask the client if she would like to talk about her sex life.
C) share his or her own feelings about sexuality.
D) tell the client that she should not be embarrassed.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Management of Men with Reproductive Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4036
Sample Questions
Q1) On the first day after prostatectomy, a client complains of pain that is caused by bladder spasm. The priority action by the nurse is to
A) administer antispasmodic drugs as ordered.
B) administer pain medication as ordered.
C) assess urethral catheter for patency.
D) encourage the client to use relaxation techniques.
Q2) Considering the potential long-term side effects of a radical prostectomy, the nurse would make the nursing diagnosis of
A) Deficient Fluid Volume
B) Impaired Urinary Elimination
C) Risk for Sexual Dysfunction
D) Social Isolation
Q3) A nurse is collecting a history on a young client being treated for epididymitis. For which past medical condition should the nurse ask if the client has received treatment?
A) Frequent urinary tract infections
B) History of testicular torsion at puberty
C) Problems with erectile dysfunction
D) Sexually transmitted diseases
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Chapter 39: Management of Women with Reproductive Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4037
Sample Questions
Q1) The statement by a client who has undergone radiation therapy for vaginal cancer that would indicate the need for further teaching is
A) "I can try different positions for intercourse."
B) "I need to stop douching."
C) "If I take a warm bath to relax before sex, it might make it easier."
D) "I'm distressed about never having sexual intercourse again."
Q2) The nurse caring for the client who is undergoing radiation therapy for endometrial cancer would include which directions in the nursing care plan? (Select all that apply.)
A) Elevate head of bed to 90 degrees.
B) Encourage in-room exercising.
C) Minimize visitation.
D) Organize cares.
Q3) After the physician has prescribed danazol (Danocrine) for treatment of a client's endometriosis, the nurse would explain that this drug may cause
A) hot flashes.
B) increased breast size.
C) irregular periods.
D) loss of appetite.
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Chapter 40: Management of Clients with Breast Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4038
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is receiving chemotherapy with paclitaxel for breast cancer. A priority nursing intervention is to
A) encourage the client to get adequate rest.
B) monitor the client's safety.
C) teach the client about the drug regimen.
D) watch for drug side effects.
Q2) To help a client cope with the body image change caused by chemotherapy with doxorubicin, the nurse suggests that the client
A) begin an exercise routine.
B) get fitted for a good prosthesis.
C) obtain a wig before hair is lost.
D) purchase some new clothes.
Q3) In caring for a client with post-mastectomy breast reconstruction using a subpectoral implant, the nurse would stress that the client can prevent capsule formation by
A) using daily heat applications.
B) keeping the implant very soft.
C) not wearing a bra until the implant drops.
D) wearing a bra at all times.
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Chapter 41: Management of Clients with Sexually
Transmitted Infections
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4039
Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching clients strategies for primary prevention of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), the nurse should
A) encourage compliance with medical treatment.
B) encourage early treatment of infected individuals.
C) provide risk reduction counseling.
D) treat all the client's sexual partners.
Q2) A client with genital herpes asks the nurse what effect the herpes will have on her becoming pregnant and having a child. The nurse's response is based on the fact that active genital herpes lesions can cause
A) birth defects.
B) infection of the fetus in utero.
C) infection of the newborn during vaginal delivery.
D) sterility.
Q3) The statement made by a client being treated for gonorrhea that would indicate that teaching has been effective is "I
A) can get some antibiotics to take home, in case I get infected again."
B) don't want to get this again because treatment is lengthy and expensive."
C) will come back after I finish all my medicine."
D) won't have sex until I have completed my medications."
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Assessment of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4040
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is performing a physical examination on an elderly client. The nurse notes the abdomen is rounded and sagging. The most appropriate action by the nurse would be to
A) ask the client about exercise routines.
B) discuss the client's bowel habits.
C) inquire about any abdominal pain.
D) record this as a normal finding.
Q2) In obtaining a medication history from a client who reports taking all the following medications, the nurse would know that the medication considered hepatotoxic is A) acetaminophen.
B) digoxin.
C) ferrous sulfate.
D) insulin.
Q3) A client being assessed for adrenal medulla function through the use of a urinalysis involves measuring A) catecholamines and metabolites.
B) diurnal excretion of glucose.
C) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone.
D) growth hormone and ADH.
44
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Chapter 43: Management of Clients with Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4041
Sample Questions
Q1) To aid in immobilizing the head of a client after thyroidectomy, the nurse would obtain
A) a headboard.
B) hand towels.
C) Kerlix rolls.
D) sandbags.
Q2) Self-care measures the nurse should teach a client with hypoparathyroidism include eating a
A) high-calcium, low-phosphorus diet.
B) high-phosphorus, high-calcium diet.
C) low-calcium, low-protein diet.
D) low-protein, high-calorie diet.
Q3) A nurse is caring for a client with Graves' disease. Based on clinical manifestations, which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate?
A) Altered Body Image
B) Constipation
C) Fluid Volume Deficit
D) Impaired Nutrition-More Than Body Requirements
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Chapter 44: Management of Clients with Adrenal and Pituitary Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In reviewing laboratory data for a client with Cushing's syndrome, the nurse might expect to see the laboratory abnormalities of (Select all that apply)
A) hypercalcemia.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) hyperproteinemia.
D) hypoglycemia.
E) hypokalemia.
F) hyponatremia.
Q2) The nurse recognizes that the manifestations of Addison's disease are primarily related to the pathophysiology of A) adrenal insufficiency.
B) increased intracranial pressure.
C) renal disease.
D) thyroid hyperfunction.
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Chapter 45: Management of Clients with Diabetes Mellitus
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with diabetes mellitus recently discharged from the hospital calls the nursing unit to report that she is nauseated and cannot remember what she has to do about her insulin injection. The nurse should remind the client to
A) call the physician at once.
B) omit her insulin until she is able to eat her normal diet.
C) review the material she was given at the hospital.
D) take her insulin and monitor her blood sugar frequently.
Q2) A client with diabetes who has properly learned the principles of foot care would be most likely to say
A) "A mirror will be very helpful so I can look at all parts of my feet each day."
B) "I should limit walking barefoot to a half hour a day."
C) "I should wear nice, tight shoes for firm support."
D) "The best method of testing bath temperature is with the toes."
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Chapter 46: Management of Clients with Exocrine
Pancreatic and Biliary Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is admitted with acute pancreatitis. The orders are for "pancreatic rest." The nurse would implement which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Administering pancreatic enzymes with meals
B) Bed rest with appropriate positioning
C) Immediate insertion of an NG tube
D) Withholding foods and liquids
Q2) The morning after admission, a client being treated for gallstones begins to vomit about every 15 minutes and is complaining of abdominal pain. The most appropriate action by the nurse would be to
A) encourage the client to ambulate.
B) offer clear fluids.
C) prepare to insert a nasogastric tube.
D) turn the client to the right side.
Q3) A client with acute pancreatitis has developed a Cullen's sign. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority for this client?
A) Acute Pain
B) Altered Nutrition
C) Imbalanced Fluid Volume
D) Ineffective Breathing Patterns
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Management of Clients with Hepatic Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4045
Sample Questions
Q1) A client admitted with a diagnosis of Laënnec's cirrhosis would be questioned by the nurse about the etiologic factor of A) alcohol ingestion.
B) food-borne illness.
C) gallstones.
D) heart failure.
Q2) In caring for a client who has an esophageal tamponade, the nurse would be alerted that the tamponade is inadequate with the assessment of A) diarrhea.
B) increased abdominal girth.
C) increasing jaundice.
D) rising ammonia level.
Q3) The nurse counseling a client who has used oral contraceptives (OCs) since age 17 would make the client aware that the use of OCs has increased the incidence of A) adenomas of the liver.
B) gallbladder disease.
C) gastric ulcerations.
D) pancreatitis.
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Chapter 48: Assessment of the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse lifts the client's foot to clean it during bathing, the nurse notices that it is cool to the touch. The nurse's most appropriate initial action would be to A) compare the temperature of the foot with the client's other foot.
B) document the finding on the client's chart.
C) inspect hair distribution on the lower half of the leg.
D) Place the extremity under a blanket and continue the bath.
Q2) On examination of a client, the nurse notes elevated, solid, brown skin lesions that are each 0.5 cm in size. The nurse would describe these lesions as A) papules.
B) plaques.
C) macules.
D) nodules.
Q3) A client has elevated lesions that contain serous fluid. The nurse would document these as A) nodules.
B) pustules. C) vesicles.
D) wheals.
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Chapter 49: Management of Clients with Integumentary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral antiviral therapy is prescribed for a client with herpes zoster. The nurse would explain to the client that the medication is used to decrease (Select all that apply)
A) itching.
B) pain.
C) postherpetic neuralgia.
D) recurrence.
E) spreading.
Q2) The physician ordered colloidal oatmeal baths followed by application of an occlusive ointment for a client with pruritus. The nurse's teaching plan would include explaining the need to
A) apply the ointment to damp skin.
B) bathe several times a day.
C) soak for at least 30 minutes.
D) use hot water in the bath.
Q3) Nursing care for a client with atopic dermatitis would focus primarily on A) decreasing pain.
B) decreasing pruritus.
C) preventing infection.
D) promoting drying of lesions.
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Chapter 50: Management of Clients with Burn Injury
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse doing a home safety assessment would conclude that the client at highest risk for burns sustained from clothing ignition during meal preparation is
A) an 18-month-old toddler.
B) a 5-year-old child.
C) a 15-year-old teenager.
D) a 75-year-old adult.
Q2) Using the Curreri formula to compute daily caloric needs of a 200-pound client with a 20% burn, the nurse-practitioner would compute the client's daily caloric needs to be A)2272.
B)2580.
C)2872.
D)3072.
Q3) The nurse would know that goals for the diagnosis Disabled Family Coping have been met when the family of a burn-injured client
A) asks frequent questions of all the staff.
B) begins to interact with the local burn support group.
C) insists on participating in the client's care.
D) only comes to visit when the client requests.
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Chapter 51: Assessment of the Vascular System
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4049
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a suspected DVT. The nurse would prepare the client to undergo a A) air plethysmography.
B) ankle-brachial index measurement.
C) computed tomography (CT) scan.
D) ultrasonic duplex scan.
Q2) When assessing a client with arterial insufficiency, the nurse would expect A) bounding arterial pulses.
B) cool, pale skin.
C) muscular atrophy.
D) warm, erythematous legs.
Q3) During a physical exam, the nurse asks the client about medical problems that can impact vascular health, including (Select all that apply)
A) diabetes.
B) heart disease.
C) stroke or TIA.
D) gallbladder disease.
E) prior frostbite.
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Chapter 52: Management of Clients with Hypertensive Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a client who wants to walk for exercise to reduce hypertension, the nurse would offer the guideline to walk
A) at the highest possible speed for 20 minutes, two or three times a week.
B) briskly for 30 to 45 minutes most days of the week.
C) slowly for 1 to 2 hours most days of the week.
D) with variable speeds and on hills at least twice a week.
Q2) An African-American male is being started on medication for hypertension, and the physician has prescribed a beta blocker as first-line therapy. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) consult with the physician about the choice of drug.
B) have the pharmacist review the client's other meds for interactions.
C) help the client plan ways to remain compliant with therapy.
D) provide appropriate education on the medication and its side effects.
Q3) An important action the nurse can take that will most likely increase client compliance with a sodium- and fat-restricted diet is to
A) offer to find the client a class on heart-healthy cooking.
B) provide verbal education on ways to modify the client's current diet.
C) refer the client for a consultation with a registered dietitian.
D) tell the client about complications that may occur from not being compliant.
Page 54
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Chapter 53: Management of Clients with Vascular Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4051
Sample Questions
Q1) In the exercise teaching plan for a client with chronic arterial occlusive disease, the nurse would caution the client to
A) avoid exercising the feet in the dependent position.
B) elevate feet periodically for 30 minutes.
C) not walk if an open ulcer forms.
D) walk a little farther each day even if pain occurs.
Q2) A nurse suspects a client has an acute arterial occlusion. Early assessment findings that would confirm her suspicion include (Select all that apply)
A) pain.
B) pallor.
C) paralysis.
D) paresthesias
E) pulselessness.
Q3) A client is recovering from a leg amputation and is doing well. However, the nurse still cautions the client to
A) avoid any trips with the new prosthesis in the next year or so.
B) call for help when getting out of bed.
C) limit pain medication to prevent dizziness at therapy.
D) not be too excited about progress until fitted with the prosthesis.
Page 55
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Chapter 54: Assessment of the Cardiac System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4052
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse evaluating the head and neck of a client would assess the carotid arteries by
A) asking the client to bear down and hold the breath while observing the arteries.
B) auscultating the arteries with the diaphragm of the stethoscope.
C) instructing the client to lie down and examining the arteries with oblique lighting.
D) palpating the arteries simultaneously, comparing amplitudes, rates, and rhythms.
Q2) In doing a breath sound assessment on a client who has left ventricular failure, the nurse would anticipates the finding of
A) audible S3 and S4.
B) crackles in the lung bases.
C) inspiratory wheeze.
D) pericardial friction rub.
Q3) A nurse understands that the basic premise of an ECG is that it shows
A) altered electrical activity from pathologic changes.
B) damage to the valves inside the heart.
C) the status of the client's coronary arteries.
D) the approximate time since a myocardial infarction occurred.
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Chapter 55: Management of Clients with Structural
Cardiac Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with mitral stenosis tells the nurse that she will not seek treatment for this disorder because she "doesn't really feel that bad." The nurse's best response would be that untreated mitral stenosis can result in
A) creation of small emboli.
B) frequent bouts of pericarditis.
C) potentially fatal myocardial infarcts.
D) pulmonary effusion.
Q2) For a client waiting for a heart transplant who has been fitted with a left ventricular assist device (LVAD), the nurse would explain that the purpose of this device is to
A) electrically stimulate the left ventricle to contract.
B) extract blood from the left ventricle and propel it into the systemic circulation.
C) measure hemodynamics of cardiac output occurring because of dysrhythmias.
D) sound an alarm when the intraventricular pressure drops.
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Chapter 56: Management of Clients with Functional
Cardiac Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would clarify for a client that the lipoproteins representing the "good" cholesterol are the
A) HDLs.
B) LDLs.
C) VDRLs.
D) VLDLs.
Q2) A client is being discharge after successful CABG surgery. Despite the positive prognosis, the nurse cautions the client and family that A) a heart attack could happen at any time.
B) heart disease can always return.
C) postoperative depression is common.
D) the real results of the operation are not yet known.
Q3) To prevent a post-procedure complication, nursing care of a client after a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) generally would include
A) administering heparin.
B) assessing for clinical manifestations of shock.
C) forcing fluids.
D) maintaining the client flat in bed for 24 hours.
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Chapter 57: Management of Clients with Dysrhythmias
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the ambulatory care clinic, the nurse counseling a client who has presented with frequent episodes of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia would advise the client to
A) avoid all aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
B) eat a low-salt, low-fat diet that contains plenty of fiber.
C) get 30 minutes of exercise and drink six glasses of water per day.
D) quit smoking and avoid caffeine and alcohol.
Q2) The nurse would assess a heart rate of 55 beats/min as a normal finding in a client who
A) is an athlete.
B) is obese.
C) takes a diuretic.
D) weighs less than 90 pounds.
Q3) A client is being discharged after unsuccessful cardioversion for atrial fibrillation. An important self-care measure the nurse should include in the discharge teaching plan is to tell the client to
A) be sure to get plenty of rest balanced with activity.
B) not eat too much red meat and other high-fat foods.
C) reschedule the cardioversion in 2 weeks.
D) take the Coumadin as scheduled.
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Management of Clients with Myocardial Infarction
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a 40-year-old client who wants to be more active the first 24 hours after an MI, the nurse could safely suggest that the client
A) ambulate in the hall with supervision.
B) perform gentle isometric exercises.
C) take a bath in the shower.
D) use the bedside commode for bowel movements.
Q2) When caring for a client immediately after an MI, the nurse's first priority would be
A) monitoring for dysrhythmias.
B) preventing an embolism.
C) relieving pain.
D) relieving the client's apprehension.
Q3) A client is scheduled for the "early release" discharge after suffering an STEMI. Which action by the nurse would most facilitate a successful outcome after discharge?
A) Arranging to have all medications delivered to the home
B) Referring the client for home health care visits
C) Reviewing the client's medications before discharge
D) Teaching the client to monitor his/her own blood pressure
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Assessment of the Respiratory System
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17 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has just returned from China and is concerned about possible respiratory disorders. The nurse would advise the client to have a screening to assess for exposure to
A) adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
B) histoplasmosis.
C) tuberculosis.
D) Valley fever.
Q2) The nurse reviews the results of the arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO<sub>2</sub>) of a client with asthma to obtain information relative to the A) contribution of gas exchange.
B) effectiveness of alveolar ventilation.
C) evidence of atelectasis.
D) presence of respiratory alkalosis.
Q3) An older adult client says, "I need to get a shot so that I'll never get pneumonia again." The most helpful response by the nurse would be
A) "Immunization for pneumonia must be repeated every year."
B) "Most older people get flu shots, but they don't protect you from pneumonia."
C) "Pneumovax vaccine can protect you against one type of pneumonia."
D) "You cannot get a shot, or immunization, for pneumonia."
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Page 61
Chapter 60: Management of Clients with Upper Airway Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a friend comes to the nurse's apartment to seek help to stop the bleeding from a broken nose, the nurse would attempt to convince the friend to seek treatment in the emergency department primarily because
A) cosmetic results are poor when treatment is delayed.
B) general anesthesia may be needed to locate the bleeding vessels.
C) it will be very difficult to stop the bleeding if the nose is fractured.
D) the nose cannot be set for 2 to 3 days if edema develops.
Q2) A neighbor tells a nurse that s/he has been experiencing hoarseness for over 3 weeks. The nurse should advise the client to see a doctor for
A) a prescription for antacids.
B) possible laryngeal cancer.
C) throat cultures and antibiotics.
D) vocal cord paralysis.
Q3) When feeding a client with a tracheostomy, the nurse would
A) follow each spoon of food with liquid.
B) have the client in an upright sitting position.
C) inflate the cuff before the meal.
D) thin the food to liquid consistency.
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Chapter 61: Management of Clients with Lower Airway and Pulmonary Vessel
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27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client receives a beta-adrenergic bronchodilator and supplemental oxygen when entering the ED for treatment of asthma, but the client's condition remains unchanged. The nurse would anticipate that the client will
A) be coached immediately in pursed-lip breathing.
B) receive increased intravenous fluids.
C) receive intravenous (IV) steroids.
D) undergo "stat" pulmonary function tests.
Q2) A nurse caring for an elderly client with COPD alters care knowing that in the older population (Select all that apply)
A) COPD is not a common problem in the elderly.
B) impaired nutrition is a common problem in the elderly.
C) multiple co-morbidities may be present that complicate care.
D) sensory disturbances may hinder their ability to provide self-care.
E) there may be more problems with drug-drug interactions.
Q3) The nurse caring for a client with asthma would place the client in the A) Fowler position.
B) lithotomy position.
C) side-lying position.
D) supine position.
Page 63
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Chapter 62: Management of Clients with Parenchymal and Pleural Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would know that the client most likely to exhibit a false-negative Mantoux reaction is the client who is
A) being treated for sickle cell disease.
B) HIV-positive.
C) malnourished.
D) previously diagnosed with TB.
Q2) A client is being discharged after treatment for a bronchopleural fistula. Important self-care measures the nurse should teach include
A) improving the client's nutrition.
B) management of the chest tube system.
C) preventing a recurrence.
D) smoking cessation resources.
Q3) The nurse would become concerned about the risk of hemorrhage if, in the first 2 hours after surgery, the thoracotomy client's drainage exceeded
A) 50 ml.
B) 100 ml.
C) 300 ml.
D) 750 ml.
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Chapter 63: Management of Clients with Acute Pulmonary Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4061
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse monitoring a client with adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) would closely assess for
A) atelectasis.
B) cor pulmonale.
C) pneumonia.
D) pulmonary edema.
Q2) A client with respiratory failure was intubated with an oral endotracheal (ET) tube 2 hours ago. Suspecting that the tube has changed position slightly since insertion, the nurse would assess the
A) results of the chest x-ray film taken 2 hours earlier.
B) current oxygen saturation readings.
C) status of the client's breath sounds.
D) position of the numbers on the ET tube at the lip line.
Q3) Once a near-drowning victim is stabilized, the nurse would continue to assess the client for
A) bronchospasm.
B) dyspnea.
C) electrolyte imbalances.
D) shock.
65
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Chapter 64: Assessment of the Eyes and Ears
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would ask a client with the diagnosis of myopia about a family history of A) central vision loss.
B) color blindness.
C) farsightedness.
D) nearsightedness.
Q2) A client is being treated for arthritis with large doses of aspirin, and the nurse assesses the client for ototoxicity. The most indicative clinical manifestation of damage to the eighth cranial nerve is A) ear pain.
B) hearing loss.
C) nystagmus.
D) tinnitus.
Q3) The nurse conducting an otoscopic examination visualizes an eardrum that is shiny and pearl gray in color. The nurse would know that this assessment is consistent with A) a history of otitis media.
B) a normal tympanic membrane.
C) blood in the middle ear.
D) infection in the ear canal.
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Chapter 65: Management of Clients with Visual Disorders
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse providing normal postoperative care to a client who underwent laser trabeculoplasty as part of glaucoma management would
A) give food and fluids immediately on arrival.
B) instruct the client to lie on the operative side.
C) maintain an eye patch and plastic shield in place.
D) tell the client to expect eye pain and nausea.
Q2) A client wants "eye glasses surgery" to fix nearsightedness, but was told several years ago that the corneas were too thin and flat for traditional laser in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) surgery. The nurse working in an ophthalmologist's office counsels the client to ask about which procedure?
A) Corneal ring implants
B) Laser epithelial keratomileusis (LASEK)
C) Pneumatic retinopexy
D) Radial keratotomy (RK)
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Chapter 66: Management of Clients with Hearing and Balance Disorders
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The problem with the ear that the nurse would consider to be associated with the aging process is
A) amblyopia.
B) otalgia.
C) presbycusis.
D) tinnitus.
Q2) A client has Ménière's disease. Which question by the nurse would elicit the most pertinent information related to client safety?
A) "Are your attacks at certain times of the day?"
B) "Do your attacks come on without warning?"
C) "How long does each attack last?"
D) "What seems to bring on your attacks?"
Q3) When a client who underwent vestibular surgery complains of thirst, the nurse would avoid offering this client
A) cola.
B) ginger ale.
C) lemonade.
D) mineral water.
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Chapter 67: Assessment of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse asks the client to raise the eyebrows and grimace or puff the cheeks, the nurse would be assessing the function of cranial nerve
A) VII.
B) VIII.
C) IX.
D) X.
Q2) In assessing the function of CNs III, IV, and VI, the nurse would ask the client to A) look straight ahead for examination with an ophthalmoscope.
B) move the eyes in six directions.
C) read a newspaper.
D) shut the eyes tightly.
Q3) A client with a brain tumor is scheduled for a spiral CT scan. Which of these factors, if present in the client's history, would affect the nurse's preparation for the scan?
A) The client has periods of paresthesia in the hands.
B) The client is allergic to seafood and iodine.
C) The client is having trouble remembering recent events.
D) The client takes an anticonvulsant medication on a regular basis.
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Chapter 68: Management of Comatose or Confused
Clients
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse working with an unconscious client to develop a holistic nursing care plan would include the family and which high-priority nursing diagnosis?
A) Anticipatory Grieving
B) Ineffective Therapeutic Regimen Management
C) Interrupted Family Processes
D) Knowledge Deficit
Q2) The nurse points out the important difference between metabolically induced coma and structurally induced coma is that metabolically induced coma results in A) abnormal posturing.
B) absent corneal reflex.
C) exaggerated deep tendon reflexes.
D) symmetrical motor manifestations.
Q3) To improve the quality of sleep for a confused client, the nurse would plan to A) allow for 90 minutes of undisturbed rest.
B) give warm black tea at bedtime.
C) keep the client awake during the day.
D) routinely use sedative medications.
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Page 70
Chapter 69: Management of Clients with Cerebral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the client experiences convulsive movement beginning in the hand and progressing to the arm and face, the nurse recognizes this as being consistent with A) clonic seizure.
B) complex partial seizure.
C) partial seizure with motor signs.
D) temporal lobe seizure.
Q2) The nurse explains to a newly diagnosed epileptic client that the basic pathophysiology of epilepsy is related to
A) a period of hypoxia from sleep apnea.
B) brain waves losing amplitude.
C) excitation of neurons discharging in the brain stem.
D) specific metabolic disturbances.
Q3) The intraoperative nurse caring for a client having brain surgery to remove a tumor would be particularly careful about
A) inserting the IVs in the nondominant hand.
B) padding and assessing the skin under the head frame.
C) placing the client in straight alignment.
D) using a catheter bag with a urimeter.
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Chapter 70: Management of Clients with Stroke
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client who has left hemiparesis as a result of stroke is getting out of bed to the chair for the first time. The nurse should position the chair
A) at a right angle to the client's left side.
B) at a right angle to the client's right side.
C) facing away from the side of the bed.
D) facing the side of the bed but within 1 foot.
Q2) When the client complains about having to perform quadricep-setting exercises, the nurse reminds him that the exercises will enhance ambulation by
A) combating footdrop.
B) diminishing the effects of proprioception.
C) improving balance.
D) strengthening the knee.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke several years ago. The client has indicators of being malnourished. The nurse would assess the client for which of the following?
A) Ability to throw the head back to propel the food
B) Embarrassment and frustration over trouble eating
C) Inability of the bowel to absorb nutrients
D) Positioning the head with a sideways' tilt
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Page 72
Chapter 71: Management of Clients with Peripheral Nervous System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should assess a client who has had unrelieved trigeminal neuralgia for the past 6 months for
A) alcohol consumption.
B) suicidal ideation.
C) vocational rehabilitation.
D) weight gain.
Q2) The point the nurse should stress in giving home instructions to the client regarding home care following carpal tunnel release surgery is
A) flex and extend the fingers every 4 hours while awake.
B) notify the physician if part of the hand becomes cold or tingly.
C) restrict lifting for 2 weeks.
D) wear a splint for 24 to 48 hours.
Q3) A client has returned to the nursing unit after having a cervical fusion from the anterior approach. What piece of equipment does the nurse ensure is at the bedside?
A) A patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump
B) Emergency tracheostomy set
C) Humidified oxygen
D) Suction setup and rigid suction catheter
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Chapter 72: Management of Clients with Degenerative Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a client is admitted to the hospital with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), the most important assessment the nurse should make is for
A) decreasing alertness.
B) respiratory difficulty.
C) seizure activity.
D) urinary retention.
Q2) A client tells the nurse that he is experiencing some leg stiffness when walking and slowness when performing ADLs. Occasionally he has noted slight tremors in his hands at rest. This information leads the nurse to suspect
A) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).
B) Huntington's disease.
C) myasthenia gravis (MG).
D) Parkinson's disease (PD).
Q3) Nursing activities for a client with ALS and family include helping them
A) decide on an acceptable level of care early in the course of the disease.
B) determine if they want to share the diagnosis to allow genetic testing.
C) incorporate nonpharmacologic pain control techniques in the plan of care.
D) plan for extensive rehabilitation after exacerbations.
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Chapter 73: Management of Clients with Neurologic
Trauma
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse teaches a group of high school students that the best way to avoid a spinal cord injury is to avoid
A) cervical spondylosis.
B) myelitis.
C) trauma.
D) vascular disease.
Q2) A client with a spinal cord lesion experiences a sudden, painful spasm of his lower limbs. The priority action by the nurse is to
A) administer pain medication.
B) assess for bladder distention.
C) massage the client's legs.
D) position the client upright.
Q3) The client who is unconscious following a fall has a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) increase the patient's intravenous (IV) fluids.
B) notify the physician immediately.
C) provide hyperventilation by adjusting ventilator settings.
D) retake the blood pressure in 15 minutes.
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Chapter 74: Assessment of the Hematopoietic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client presents to the ambulatory care center seeking treatment for allergies. When questioning the client, the nurse would inquire about (Select all that apply)
A) a history of desensitization shots and their effectiveness.
B) presence of fatigue, headaches, or weakness.
C) previous anaphylactic reactions to food.
D) seasonal variation in manifestations.
E) triggers known to cause manifestations.
Q2) The nurse discovers a client is taking the herb St. John's wort. The nurse cautions that this herb reduces the effectiveness of
A) lanoxin.
B) prednisone.
C) theophylline.
D) warfarin.
Q3) The nurse should anticipate an elevated hemoglobin level in a A) 40-year-old woman with congestive heart failure.
B) client who lives in Colorado.
C) client with iron deficiency anemia.
D) dehydrated elderly client being given IV fluids.
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Chapter 75: Management of Clients with Hematologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that the medication essential for a client with pernicious anemia is
A) ferritin.
B) ferrous gluconate.
C) vitamin B12.
D) vitamin K.
Q2) A nurse providing wellness seminars plans which of the following primary prevention activities related to sickle cell disease?
A) Have a "sick day management" tip sheet for those with SCD.
B) Offer information on genetic counseling for SSD.
C) Plan to have a list of community resources for the families of people with SCD.
D) Provide a list of day care providers willing to care for children with SCD.
Q3) The manifestation that would require immediate investigation in a client with infectious mononucleosis is
A) abdominal pain.
B) joint discomfort.
C) leukocyte count of 12,000/mm<sup>3</sup>.
D) sore throat.
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Chapter 76: Management of Clients with Immune Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse concerned about safety encourages a client to stop which medication?
A) Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
B) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C) Fexofenadine (Allegra)
D) Loratadine (Claritin)
Q2) A client develops a positive reaction to an injection of purified protein derivative, a screening measure for exposure to tuberculosis. The nurse records this reaction as a
A) type 1 reaction.
B) type 2 reaction.
C) type 3 reaction.
D) type 4 reaction.
Q3) A client with urticaria is frustrated with the chronic nature of the problem. To enhance coping, which intervention by the nurse would be most effective?
A) Assist the client in identifying and eliminating triggers for outbreaks.
B) Demonstrate to the client measures to increase comfort.
C) Let the client vent frustrations and remain supportive.
D) Teach the client the proper way to take antihistamines.
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Chapter 77: Management of Clients with Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client who had a shoulder arthroplasty yesterday will include in the postoperative care provisions for
A) assessing the ability to grasp the nurse's hand.
B) avoiding lifting objects heavier than 10 pounds.
C) limiting flexion and extension of the elbow.
D) positioning the arm below the shoulder.
Q2) A client newly diagnosed with RA is depressed after the nurse provides education on the disease process. Important interventions the nurse can offer include helping the client
A) choose a high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet to provide energy.
B) find medical supply companies that carry adaptive devices.
C) learn to participate actively in response to their illness.
D) understand the importance of taking medications on time.
Q3) The caution the nurse should give the client who is taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as a remedy for arthritis is to
A) avoid taking NSAIDs with milk.
B) liberalize fluids while taking NSAIDs.
C) take NSAIDs with food.
D) watch for manifestations of skin damage.
Page 79
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Chapter 78: Management of Clients with Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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Q1) The nurse understands the most significant laboratory study for the client who is HIV positive is the
A) CD4+ cell count.
B) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test.
C) total white blood cell count.
D) Western blot test.
Q2) The nurse is counseling an HIV-positive woman who has just given birth to a baby. The nurse should advise the client to
A) anticipate the needs of her child immediately and make arrangements for placement in a setting where her child's life will be comfortable.
B) avoid breast-feeding her infant if she has access to a safe water supply to decrease the chances of vertical transmission.
C) report all of her sexual partners to the infectious disease department in order to break the chain of transmission of the disease.
D) seek professional counseling to deal with the guilt associated with the almost certain passing of the disease to her child.
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Chapter 79: Management of Clients with Leukemia and Lymphoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with acute leukemia develops a neutrophil count of 450/mm³. The nurse should (Select all that apply)
A) allow no plants or live flowers in the room.
B) allow no visitors at this time.
C) ensure strict adherence to hand-washing protocol.
D) place the client on protective isolation.
E) restrict the client's access to raw fruits and vegetables.
Q2) The nurse preparing a client with acute leukemia for the induction phase of chemotherapy explains that the objective of this phase is to
A) decrease the number of monocytes.
B) induce complete remission.
C) reduce long bone pain and splenomegaly.
D) "shock" the marrow into producing normal cells.
Q3) When the nurse records a platelet count of 20,000/mm³, the most appropriate nursing action is to
A) encourage iron-rich foods.
B) increase fluid intake.
C) institute bleeding precautions.
D) place the client in protective isolation.
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Chapter 80: Management of Clients Requiring
Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse working with clients who need organ transplant includes in the teaching plan that the primary responsibility of the transplantation team is to
A) determine the histocompatibility of the donor and the recipient.
B) find the best candidate with good immune function and appropriate insurance. C) provide the greatest number of transplants possible because of the ongoing great need.
D) transplant organs into clients with the best chance of long-term success.
Q2) The nurse teaching a post-transplant client realizes that goals have been met when the client verbalizes understanding that the most common reason for rehospitalization in the post-transplant client is
A) acute rejection.
B) chronic rejection.
C) infection.
D) malignancy.
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Chapter 81: Management of Clients with Shock and Multisystem Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is in shock and is receiving naloxone (Narcan). The client's sibling is an EMT and questions why the client is getting medication for "an overdose." The most appropriate response by the nurse is
A) "Because of HIPAA laws, I am not allowed to tell you about his/her care."
B) "I don't know but I can have the doctor come and speak with you."
C) "In clients with shock it helps the hypotension and cardiac output."
D) "The client may have gotten too much morphine in the emergency department."
Q2) A client is receiving fluid replacement for treatment of shock and the nurse assesses a central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 cm water. The nurse anticipates which of the following interventions?
A) Administration of vasoconstrictors
B) Administration of vasodilators
C) Decreasing fluid infusion
D) Increasing fluid infusion
Q3) Distributive shock is primarily due to
A) a fluid shift from the vascular space.
B) an increase in the size of the vascular space.
C) inadequate circulating blood volume.
D) inadequate pumping action of the heart.
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Chapter 82: Management of Clients in the Emergency Department
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4080
Sample Questions
Q1) When a client is brought to the ED with chemical injury to the left eye, the nurse would irrigate the eye with normal saline, a minimum of
A) 250 ml.
B) 500 ml.
C) 1000 ml.
D) 2000 ml.
Q2) The nurse explains to the family of a client with a spinal cord injury that IV methylprednisolone will reduce A) pain.
B) possibility of seizure.
C) muscle spasms.
D) spinal cord edema.
Q3) When a client is admitted to the ED with respiratory distress and rapid-sequence induction (RSI) is needed to intubate the client, the nurse should first
A) apply nasal oxygen.
B) establish intravenous (IV) access.
C) hyperventilate with 50% oxygen.
D) insert a nasogastric tube.
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