Injury Assessment and Rehabilitation
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Injury Assessment and Rehabilitation introduces students to the foundational principles and practical techniques essential for evaluating, documenting, and managing musculoskeletal injuries. The course covers the anatomy and physiology of common injury sites, mechanisms of injury, assessment protocols, and clinical decision-making processes. Students learn to conduct systematic physical examinations, interpret results, and develop individualized rehabilitation plans utilizing evidence-based therapeutic interventions. Emphasis is placed on both acute and chronic injury management, prevention strategies, patient education, and interdisciplinary collaboration, preparing students for roles in athletic training, physiotherapy, and other allied health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Modalities 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
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Chapter 1: The Injury Response Process
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Q1) Application of which modality will result in the greatest rate of femoral vein flow?
A) Passive straight-leg raises
B) Anatomic continuous passive motion
C) Pneumatic sleeve
D) Active ankle dorsiflexion
Answer: A
Q2) According to the general adaptation syndrome,what is the correct order of the three stages of stress response?
A) Alarm,resistance,exhaustion
B) Resistance,alarm,excitement
C) Exhaustion,excitement,alarm
D) Resistance,exhaustion,excitement
Answer: A
Q3) What type of afferent peripheral nerve is a muscle spindle?
A) Ia
B) Ib
C) II
D) III
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Physiology and Psychology of Pain
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Q1) Which statements are true regarding the definition of pain? Select all that apply.
A) Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience.
B) Pain is associated only with actual tissue damage and not potential damage.
C) Pain is always an emotional experience.
D) Acute pain has an identifiable cause and extended duration.
E) Pain is just a simple sensation and not a process.
Answer: A,C
Q2) What does the verbal rating scale use to represent the current pain intensity of a patient?
A) 10-cm line
B) Different faces
C) Numbers 1 through 10
D) Descriptive terms
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Development and Delivery of Intervention Strategies
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Q1) When treatment planning,what largely determines the types of modalities that will resolve a pathology?
A) Stage of the healing process
B) Length of application
C) Amplitude at which the modality is applied
D) Type of insurance carried by the patient
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following goals is quantifiable and measures function?
A) Increase passive dorsiflexion by 2 degrees
B) Increase active dorsiflexion
C) Increase active dorsiflexion to allow patient to climb stairs unassisted
D) Increase active assistive dorsiflexion
Answer: C
Q3) In which component of the problem-solving approach would you identify the stage of the healing process?
A) Medical history
B) Recognition of the problem
C) Goal setting
D) Treatment planning
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Administrative Considerations
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Q1) According to the Food and Drug Administration's medical device classification system,what classification would a device get if it presented a great risk to the patient?
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV
Q2) Current Procedural Terminology (CPT)codes were established by what organization?
A) Health Care Finance Administration (HCFA)
B) National Center for Health Statistics
C) American Hospital Association (AHA)
D) American Medical Association (AMA)
Q3) All therapeutic equipment must be inspected and calibrated by a qualified technician at least _____________.
A) yearly
B) weekly
C) monthly
D) twice a year
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Chapter 5: Thermal Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) How deep are superficial heating agents able to penetrate?
A) Less than 2 cm
B) 2 cm to 4 cm
C) 4 cm to 6 cm
D) Greater than 6 cm
Q2) What is the correct order of cooling in tissues?
A) Skin,adipose,fascia,muscle
B) Skin,fascia,muscle,adipose
C) Skin,adipose,muscle,fascia
D) Skin,muscle,fascia,adipose
Q3) Maximum analgesia occurs when skin temperature drops to approximately ____°F,which occurs after around 20 minutes after ice pack application.
A) 58
B) 28
C) 32
D) 45
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Chapter 6: Clinical Application of Thermal Modalities
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Q1) Which is an accurate step in the general setup and application of a cold compression therapy unit?
A) Add warm water to the fill mark
B) Fasten distal strap first and snuggly
C) Fasten proximal strap second and snuggly
D) Elevate the cooler to the level of the body part being treated
Q2) What is the only true benefit from the use of a vapocoolant spray?
A) Temporary pain relief
B) Decreased swelling
C) Decreased muscle spasm
D) Decreased cell metabolism
Q3) According to the practical evidence,how should an ice pack be applied in order to obtain maximal intramuscular temperature decrease?
A) With an elastic wrap
B) With flexible plastic wrap
C) Without any wrap
D) With a nonflexible plastic wrap
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8
Chapter 7: Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Q1) What temperature increase is required to decrease muscle spasm and pain?
A) 1°C
B) 2 to 3°C
C) 3 to 4°C
D) 5°C
Q2) Ultrasound is able to pass through both solid and liquid mediums because it travels as a _____wave.
A) longitudinal
B) perpendicular
C) parallel
D) short
Q3) When compared to traditional therapeutic ultrasound,which is an accurate statement about longwave ultrasound?
A) Longwave ultrasound employs a longer wavelength,ranging between 20 and 40 MHz.
B) Longwave can produce bone-depth heating in the largest muscle masses.
C) Much like shortwave ultrasound,longwave also requires a transmission medium.
D) Longwave requires a larger output to reach therapeutic heating levels.
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9
Chapter 8: Clinical Application of Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Q1) Applying which technique before treatment will result in a more rapid increase in intramuscular temperature?
A) Moist heat pack
B) Shaving the skin
C) Preheated coupling medium
D) Cooled coupling medium
Q2) Which coupling mediums are not able to transmit any ultrasound energy? Select all that apply.
A) White petroleum gel
B) Myoflex cream
C) Eucerin cream
D) 10 percent hydrocortisone powder in ultrasound gel
E) Saran wrap
Q3) Which of the following can increase when the contact area between the transducer and the tissue is decreased?
A) Spatial average intensity
B) Beam nonuniformity ratio
C) Effective radiating area
D) Peak intensity
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Shortwave Diathermy
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Q1) Which are accurate statements about shortwave diathermy when comparing it to ultrasound? Select all that apply.
A) Shortwave diathermy uses acoustic energy.
B) Shortwave diathermy targets collagen-rich tissues.
C) Shortwave diathermy heats a large volume of tissue.
D) Shortwave diathermy increases intramuscular tissue by 18°F.
E) Shortwave diathermy heat is retained longer than that of ultrasound.
Q2) Which of the following accurately represents shortwave diathermy (SWD)and not microwave diathermy MWD? Select all that apply.
A) SWD uses a magnetron that produces high-frequency electromagnetic energy.
B) Magnetic as opposed to electric fields are predominant in SWD.
C) With SWD,superficial tissues are heated more than deeper tissues.
D) The radiation created by SWD penetrates the fat layer better than MWD.
E) The effects of SWD occur at only about one-third the depth that MWD effects.
Q3) Which modality heats the largest volume of tissue?
A) Thermal ultrasound
B) Moist heat pack
C) Shortwave diathermy
D) Plug-in heat pack
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Clinical Application of Shortwave Diathermy
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Q1) How far away should fixtures with significant metal content be placed when treating with shortwave diathermy?
A) At least 50 ft
B) At least 20 ft
C) At least 30 ft
D) At least 40 ft
Q2) Which conditions are indications for use of shortwave diathermy? Select all that apply.
A) Chronic pain
B) Edema reduction
C) Venous stasis ulcers
D) Ischemic area
E) Peripheral vascular disease
Q3) According to the practical evidence,what best represents the volume of tissue treated via shortwave diathermy?
A) Cereal bowl
B) 2 ketchup packets
C) Small mixing bowl
D) Deck of cards
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Principles of Electrical Stimulation
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Q1) Consider the principles of electrical stimulation and select the most accurate statement about electricity.
A) Electricity is a force created by the imbalance in the number of positively charged electrons.
B) Electrical current will flow from low electron concentration to an area of high electron concentration.
C) The electrical current will always take the path of most resistance.
D) The electrical current will flow from the cathode to the anode.
Q2) Ohm's law describes the relationship between what characteristics of electrical currents? Select all that apply.
A) Amperage
B) Voltage
C) Resistance
D) Wattage
E) Frequency
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Chapter 12: Electrical Stimulation Techniques
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Q1) What tissues are excitable? Select all that apply.
A) Nerves
B) Muscle fibers
C) Cell membranes
D) Ligaments
E) Cartilage
Q2) When attempting to achieve motor-level stimulation,what are the primary pulse characteristics that determine the quality of the muscle contraction? Select all that apply.
A) Pulse rise
B) Phase duration
C) Intensity
D) Pulse frequency
E) Ramp time
Q3) Which is true regarding electrically induced muscle contractions?
A) Small-diameter fibers are recruited first.
B) Contractions and recruitment are synchronous.
C) Golgi's tendon organs protect the muscle from producing too much force.
D) There is a slow onset of fatigue.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Clinical Application of Electrical Agents
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Q1) Most effects of electrical stimulation are the direct result of stimulation to what? Select all that apply.
A) Sensory nerves
B) Motor nerves
C) Adipose tissue
D) Fascia
E) Muscle fibers
Q2) "Russian" stimulation is an excellent method for what purpose?
A) Decreasing muscular atrophy
B) Modulating pain
C) Reducing edema
D) Helping superficial wound healing
Q3) When attempting to control pain via the gate-control mechanism,what are correct high-voltage pulsed stimulation parameter settings?
A) Motor-level output intensity
B) Pulse frequency of 60 to 100 pps
C) Electrode placement distal to the spinal nerve root origin
D) 50 percent duty cycle
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15
Chapter 14: Intermittent Compression
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Q1) Where on the foot does external compression need to be applied to successfully reduce foot edema?
A) Plantar aspect
B) Dorsal aspect
C) Medial aspect
D) Lateral aspect
Q2) According to the practical evidence,in comparison to intermittent compression,constant compression units are primarily used for what two purposes?
A) Preventing swelling and assisting in venous return
B) Preventing swelling and activating the lymphatic return mechanism
C) Activating the lymphatic return mechanism and assisting in venous return
D) Assisting in venous return and reduce ecchymosis
Q3) When using external compression to treat lower leg edema,pressures of ___have been shown to increase venous flow by 175 percent.
A) 35 to 55 mm Hg
B) 10 to 30 mm Hg
C) 65 to 95 mm Hg
D) 90 to 100 mm Hg
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16
Chapter 15: Continuous Passive Motion
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Q1) According to the practical evidence,knee flexion and knee extension motion is increased only _____when continuous passive motion is used following knee arthroplasty?
A) 2 to 3 degrees
B) 4 to 5 degrees
C) 6 to 7 degrees
D) 8 to 9 degrees
Q2) Throughout a range of motion,when is joint volume normally at its greatest?
A) Full extension
B) Full flexion
C) Midrange between flexion and extension
D) Volume does not change throughout a range of motion
Q3) What continuous passive motion design is most suitable for use with the knee?
A) Free linkage design
B) Anatomic design
C) Nonanatomic design
D) Locked linkage design
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Chapter 16: Cervical and Lumbar Traction
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Q1) In order to open the intervertebral space,approximately what degree of flexion should the cervical spine be placed in?
A) 5 to 10 degrees
B) 15 to 20 degrees
C) 25 to 30 degrees
D) 35 to 40 degrees
Q2) The effect and effectiveness of traction is related to which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Position of the body part
B) Position of the patient
C) Force and duration of traction
D) Angle of pull
E) Force of friction
Q3) Which form of traction allows the patient to self-administer the traction?
A) Manual traction
B) Intermittent traction
C) Positional traction
D) Sustained traction
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18
Chapter 17: Therapeutic Massage
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Q1) Which of the following are contraindications to the use of therapeutic massage? Select all that apply.
A) Varicose veins
B) Thrombophlebitis
C) Arteriosclerosis
D) Decreased range of motion
E) Reduced lymphatic return
Q2) Which basic massage stroke is typically applied to increase blood flow and provide systemic invigoration of tissues?
A) Neuromuscular stroke
B) Tapotement
C) Vibration
D) Active assisted
Q3) Due to the possibility of misuse,many states require what type of regulation for massage therapists?
A) Licensure
B) Certification
C) Registration
D) No regulation is required.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Electromyographic Biofeedback
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Q1) Biofeedback is used to measure biophysical properties.Which of the following represents uses for the feedback that is measured? Select all that apply.
A) Muscle reeducation
B) Facilitation of muscle relaxation
C) Control blood pressure
D) Control heart rate
E) Control respirations
Q2) Which of the following is considered an initial result of biofeedback and not a secondary result from the initial?
A) Facilitates reeducation
B) Increases muscular strength
C) Increases range of motion
D) Reduces pain
Q3) Placement of treatment electrodes from one treatment to another will affect the reliability of a biofeedback measurement.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Low-Level Laser Therapy
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Q1) Which of the following contraindicate the use of therapeutic laser? Select all that apply.
A) Application over rheumatoid arthritis
B) Application over a fracture
C) Application over the thyroid
D) Pain in an unfused epiphyseal plate
E) Application over deep-vein thrombosis
Q2) According the Food and Drug Administration's Center for Devices and Radiological Health Laser Classification System,what class of laser has an output that does not exceed 1 mW and may produce visible light?
A) Class 1
B) Class 2a
C) Class 3b
D) Class 4
Q3) Which of the following is considered a primary effect of therapeutic laser treatment?
A) Vasodilation of microvessels
B) Decreased ATP production
C) Decreased collagen production
D) Decreased macrophage activity
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