Information Technology Project Management
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Information Technology Project Management focuses on the principles, methodologies, and tools used to effectively plan, execute, and close IT projects. This course covers key topics such as project lifecycle management, resource allocation, risk assessment, budgeting, scheduling, and quality control within the context of technology-driven environments. Students learn to apply industry-standard frameworks like PMIs PMBOK and Agile practices, develop project documentation, and utilize software tools for collaboration and tracking. Emphasis is placed on leadership, team dynamics, and stakeholder communication to ensure successful project outcomes in a rapidly evolving technological landscape.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Systems Analysis and Design 7th Edition by Jeffrey A. Hoffer
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Chapter 1: The Systems Development Environment
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Q1) A systems development methodology is a standard process followed in an organization to conduct all the steps necessary to analyze,design,implement,and maintain information systems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) CASE Analysis tools help to prototype how systems will look and feel.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Design is the second phase of the SDLC in which the current system is studied and alternative replacement systems are proposed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) During the ________ phase of RUP,analysts detail user requirements and develop a baseline architecture.
Answer: elaboration
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Chapter 2: The Origins of Software
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Q1) The choice to acquire software from outside sources should be made:
A)at the beginning of the analysis phase
B)at the middle of the analysis phase
C)at the end of the analysis phase
D)at the end of the design phase
Answer: C
Q2) A disadvantage of cloud computing is the increased need for internal information technology staff.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) When choosing off-the-shelf software,cost,functionality,response time,and ease of installation are some of the common criteria that should be considered.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) ________ refers to how long it takes the software package to respond to the user's request in an interactive session.
Answer: Response time
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Chapter 3: Managing the Information Systems Project
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hallway discussion project team communication method has a medium to high formality rating.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A logic model is a graphical representation of a project that shows each task as a horizontal bar whose length is proportional to its time for completion.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Having more iterations with fewer components to be completed is better than having only a few iterations with many components needing to be completed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Projects are deemed a success or failure at project closedown.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Identifying and Selecting Systems Development Projects
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Sample Questions
Q1) The method by which an organization attempts to achieve its mission and objectives best defines:
A)critical success factors
B)competitive strategy
C)business policy
D)information systems plan
Q2) Which of the following is a need for improved information systems project identification and selection?
A)The costs of information systems are steadily decreasing.
B)Many systems can handle applications that cross organization boundaries.
C)Data redundancy is often out of control,and users may have little confidence in the quality of the data.
D)Systems maintenance costs are well under control.
Q3) A disciplined approach,driven by top management commitment,is a prerequisite to most effectively apply information systems in order to reach organizational objectives.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly discuss three generic competitive strategies.Provide an example of each.
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Q5) ________ and ________ are the two general classes of Internet EC applications.
Chapter 5: Initiating and Planning Systems Development Projects
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Q1) The ________ is the rate of return used to compute the present value of future cash flows.
Q2) Using a discount rate of 10%,the present value of a $2,500 benefit received 5 years from now is $1,552.30.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A ________ is the justification for an information system,presented in terms of the tangible and intangible economic benefits and costs and the technical and organizational feasibility of the proposed system.
Q4) All information collected during project initiation and planning is collected and organized into a document called the Baseline Project Plan.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ is the process of assessing potential legal and contractual ramifications due to the construction of a system.
Q6) ________ uses a discount rate determined from the company's cost of capital to establish the present value of the project.
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Q7) ________ are costs resulting from the ongoing evolution and use of a system.
Chapter 6: Determining System Requirements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly identify and describe the participants of a JAD session.
Q2) As a systems analyst,it is part of your job to create a document for a missing work procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Referencing eXtreme programming,which of the following is the final phase of the Planning Game?
A)exploration
B)design
C)commitment
D)steering
Q4) During requirements determination when you assume anything is possible and eliminate the infeasible,this corresponds to the systems analyst characteristic of
Q5) Exploration,commitment,and steering are the three phases of the Iteration Planning Game.
A)True B)False
Q6) An ________ is the way a system actually works.
Q7) Briefly identify the traditional methods for determining requirements.
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Chapter 7: Structuring System Process Requirements
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Q1) The part of a decision table that links conditions to actions is the section that contains the:
A)action statements
B)rules
C)condition statements
D)decision stubs
Q2) ________ is the process of discovering discrepancies between two or more sets of data flow diagrams or discrepancies within a single DFD.
Q3) If an inventory item is either perishable or nonperishable,its condition is classified as an extended entry.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If your DFD contains data flows that do not lead anywhere,then your DFD violates the ________ guideline.
Q5) The determination of which items are low in stock is represented on a data flow diagram as a process.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The symbol for sources/sinks is a ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Structuring System Data Requirements
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Q1) The condition that causes the operation to be triggered:
A)condition
B)action
C)entity name
D)user rule
Q2) Which of the following addresses the rules concerning the relationships between entity types?
A)referential integrity constraints
B)triggering operations
C)entity integrity
D)domains
Q3) A relationship that the data modeler chooses to model as an entity type best defines:
A)recursive relationship
B)associative entity
C)domain
D)complex relationship
Q4) An ________ is a named property or characteristic of an entity that is of interest to the organization.
Q5) A ________ is a relationship between instances of two entity types.
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Chapter 9: Designing Databases
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Q1) For a unary M:N relationship:
A)the entity type is modeled as one relation;using as its primary key a composite key,a separate relation is created to represent the M:N relationship
B)the entity type and the M:N relationship are modeled as one relation;a composite key is used
C)separate relations for the class and for each subclass are created;primary and foreign keys are established for each class
D)the primary key of the entity on the one side of the relationship serves as a foreign key in the relation on the many side of the relationship
Q2) A ________ is a foreign key in a relation that references the primary key values of that same relation.
Q3) Define each of the following terms: relation,functional dependency,foreign key,and normalization.
Q4) When two 3NF relations are merged to form a single relation:
A)weak entities are created
B)recursive relationships may result
C)transitive dependencies may result
D)IS-A relationships are formed
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Chapter 10: Designing Forms and Reports
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Q1) The use of small simple images to allow a Web page to be displayed more quickly best describes:
A)icons
B)lightweight graphics
C)cookie crumbs
D)MPEG files
Q2) When selecting tables versus graphs,you should use tables to provide a quick summary of data.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In business-related systems,textual output is becoming less important as the text-based applications that use these systems are slowly disappearing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When designing the layout of Web pages,making sure that users do not need the latest browsers or plug-ins to view your site is the recommendation for the ________ error.
Q5) Differentiate between a form and a report.
Q6) What are the general guidelines for displaying tables and lists?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Designing Interfaces and Dialogues
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Q1) Briefly identify eight common devices for interacting with an information system.
Q2) The common property of windows and forms in a graphical user interface environment that requires users to resolve the request for information before proceeding is:
A)maximize
B)movable
C)modality
D)system menu
Q3) Referencing interface layout guidelines,data fields should be grouped into logical categories with labels describing the contents of the category.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A pop-up menu is a menu positioning method that places a menu near the current cursor position.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly identify and define the five most widely used interaction methods.
Q6) ________,________,and ________ are three types of system feedback.
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Chapter 12: Designing Distributed and Internet Systems
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Q1) A communication protocol for exchanging information on the Internet best describes:
A)HTTP
B)BIND
C)HTML
D)XML
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding the differences between file server and client/server architectures is true?
A)While database security and integrity are low on a file server architecture,they are high on a client/server architecture.
B)While network usage involves efficient data transfers on a file server architecture,it is not efficient on a client/server architecture.
C)In terms of hardware and system software flexibility,there is less need for coordination between the client and server on a client/server architecture than on a file server architecture.
D)In terms of concurrent data access,concurrent data access is managed by the client in a client/server architecture.
Q3) Differentiate between file server and client/server architectures.
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Chapter 13: System Implementation
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Q1) Written or other visual information about an application system,how it works,and how to use it best defines:
A)system documentation
B)user documentation
C)internal documentation
D)external documentation
Q2) ________ is a technique used in testing modules,especially where modules are written and tested in a top-down fashion,where a few lines of code are used to substitute for subordinate modules.
Q3) System documentation that includes the outcome of structured diagramming techniques such as data flow and entity-relationship diagrams best defines:
A)system documentation
B)user documentation
C)internal documentation
D)external documentation
Q4) ________ refers to changing over from the old information system to a new one by turning off the old system when the new one is turned on.
Q5) How can you support intermittent users of a system?
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Chapter 14: Maintaining Information Systems
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Q1) The systems implementation SDLC phase is analogous to the maintenance process of implementing changes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Installation is one of the four major maintenance activities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Maintenance activities are limited to software changes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a true statement?
A)Many systems professionals do not want to perform maintenance because they feel that it is more exciting to build something new rather than change an existing system.
B)Organizations have historically provided greater rewards and job opportunities to those performing new development.
C)It is now common to rotate individuals in and out of maintenance activities.
D)All of the above.
Q5) The SDLC design phase equates to the maintenance process of ________.
Q6) To measure maintenance effectiveness,what three factors must be measured?
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Chapter 15: Object-Oriented Analysis and Design: Use Cases
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Q1) Use cases written at the blue,or sea,level focus on ________ goals.
Q2) An association between two use cases where one use case uses the functionality contained in the other best describes:
A)the external relationship
B)the inclusive relationship
C)the include relationship
D)the extend relationship
Q3) Which of the following defines a set of behaviors or functions in a use case that follow exceptions to the main success scenario?
A)Success Guarantee
B)Extension
C)Exemption
D)Preconditions
Q4) An ________ is an association between two use cases where one adds new behaviors or actions to the other.
Q5) Rolling back a transaction to its original starting place is an example of a ________.
Q6) An extension is invoked only if its ________ condition is encountered.
Q7) Things that must be true before a use case can start are called ________.
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Chapter 16: Object-Oriented Analysis and Design: Activity
Diagrams
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Q1) An activity diagram shows the conditional logic for the sequence of system activities needed to accomplish a business process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An activity diagram clearly shows parallel and alternative behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An activity diagram should only be used when it adds value to the project.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss when it is appropriate to use activity diagrams in a project.
Q5) A(n)________ clearly shows parallel and alternative behaviors.
Q6) In an activity diagram,the fast lane represents the organizational unit responsible for a certain action.
A)True B)False
Q7) A(n)________ shows the conditional logic for the sequence of system activities needed to accomplish a business process.
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Chapter 17: Object-Oriented Analysis and Design: Sequence Diagrams
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Q1) Which of the following depicts the interactions among objects during a certain period of time?
A)class diagrams
B)data flow diagrams
C)sequence diagrams
D)collaboration diagrams
Q2) What is a synchronous message? Asynchronous message? How are each of these messages shown on a sequence diagram?
Q3) Sequence diagrams show the static structure of data and the operations that act on the data.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When an operation calls upon another operation within the same object,this is known as:
A)a recursive join
B)a nested operation
C)self-delegation
D)a nested state
Q6) An object is ________ at the point marked by X. Page 19
Q5) In UML,a ________ represents dynamic models of interactions between objects.
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Chapter 18: Business Process Modeling
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Q1) The symbol for an activity is:
A)a square
B)a circle
C)an arrow
D)a rectangle with rounded edges
Q2) All business processes begin and end with a(n):
A)starting and termination points
B)event
C)activity
D)gateway
Q3) Gateways are typically ________.
Q4) In business process modeling,a trigger that initiates the start of a project is called an ________.
Q5) An event is a trigger that starts a process in business process modeling.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A gateway can be exclusive or inclusive.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A flow shows the ________ of action in a process.
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Chapter 19: Objected-Oriented Analysis and Design: Object
Modeling-Class Diagrams
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Q1) ________ is a part-of relationship between a component object and an aggregate object.
Q2) An association between the instances of one or more entity types that is of interest to the organization best defines:
A)occurrence
B)relationship
C)coupling
D)cardinality
Q3) Which of the following provides an external interface to a class?
A)constructor
B)operation
C)view
D)association
Q4) Operations provide an external interface to a class.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An aggregation expresses a Part-of relationship between a component object and an aggregate object.
A)True
B)False
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