Information Technology Infrastructure
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Information Technology Infrastructure covers the fundamental components and concepts underlying the hardware, software, networks, and services that support modern organizational operations. This course explores essential topics such as data centers, servers, cloud computing, storage systems, virtualization, network architectures, and security practices. Students will develop an understanding of how IT infrastructure is planned, implemented, maintained, and scaled to meet business requirements, with a focus on integrating technologies to enable efficient, reliable, and secure information systems. Through real-world case studies and hands-on exercises, learners gain practical skills to assess and manage IT resources in dynamic environments.
Recommended Textbook
Data and Computer Communications 10th Edition by William Stallings
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Chapter 1: Data Communications, data Networks,
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Q1) Three different forces have consistently driven the architecture and evolution of data communications and networking facilities: traffic growth,development of new services,and ________.
Answer: advances in technology
Q2) The LAN is owned by the same organization that owns the attached devices.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) It is not necessary for a device to interface with the transmission system in order to communicate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A ________ is a physical facility that provides the infrastructure to move data between connected networks.
A)ATM
B)FDDI
C)NAP
D)NSP
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Protocol Architecture, tcpip, and
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Q1) Information that can be entered via a keyboard and is directly readable and printable is ________.
A)audio
B)graphic
C)video
D)text
Answer: D
Q2) The addiction of control information to data is referred to as ________.
Answer: encapsulation
Q3) Each protocol provides a set of rules for the exchange of data between systems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Databases,information kiosks,hypertexts,electronic books,and multimedia expert systems are examples of multimedia ________ systems.
Answer: information
Q5) IPv6 includes ________ bit source and destination address fields. Answer: 128
Q6) The standard network management protocol for TCP/IP networks is ________. Answer: Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
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Chapter 3: Data Transmission
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Q1) The sine wave is the fundamental aperiodic signal.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A familiar example of analog data is audio,which,in the form of acoustic sound waves,can be perceived directly by human beings.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A technique known as ________ is used to provide a flicker free image without increasing the bandwidth requirement.
Answer: interlacing
Q4) The rate in bits per second at which data can be communicated is the ________.
A)analog transmission
B)data rate
C)digital transmission
D)channel capacity
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Transmission Media
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Q1) The two different types of light source used in fiber optic systems are the ________.
A)single mode and the multimode
B)LID and the DEL
C)TIR and the GIM
D)light-emitting diode and the injection laser diode
Q2) Coaxial cable can be used over longer distances and support more stations on a shared line than twisted pair.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A thin,flexible medium capable of guiding an optical ray is an ________.
Q4) When using optical fiber,the term ________ refers to the change in direction of light rays after they strike small particles or impurities in the medium.
A)relay
B)scattering
C)parabola
D)directrix
Q5) The least expensive and most widely used guided transmission medium for both analog and digital signals is ________.
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Chapter 5: Signal Encoding Techniques
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Q1) The basis for ________ signaling is a continuous constant frequency signal known as the carrier signal.
Q2) A scrambling coding technique based on bipolar-AMI and commonly used in North America is ________.
A)HDB3
B)ASK
C)MFSK
D)B8ZS
Q3) The encoding scheme is the mapping from data bits to signal elements.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The process of converting analog data into digital data is known as ________.
Q5) Analog data in electrical form can be transmitted as ________ signals easily and cheaply with voice transmission over voice grade lines.
A)carrier
B)broadband
C)baseband
D)modulating
Q6) NRZI is an example of ________ encoding.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Error Detection and Correction
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Q1) In a(n)________ there is a cluster of bits in which a number of errors occur,although not necessarily all of the bits in the cluster suffer an error.
A)error burst
B)single-bit error
C)idle state
D)error detection
Q2) Single bit errors are more common and more difficult to deal with.
A)True
B)False
Q3) FEC codes are designed not just to detect but correct errors,avoiding the need for
Q4) In __________ transmission systems,an error occurs when a binary 1 is transmitted and a binary 0 is received,or a binary 0 is transmitted and a binary 1 is received.
A)analog
B)digital
C)parallel
D)none of the above
Q5) The data,plus preamble,postamble and control information are called a ________.
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Chapter 7: Data Link Control Protocols
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Q1) A technique for assuring that a transmitting entity does not overwhelm a receiving entity with data is ________.
Q2) The initiation,maintenance,and termination of a sustained data exchange require management procedures for the exchange.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The form of flow control where a source entity transmits a frame and must wait until it receives an acknowledgment back from the destination entity before sending the next frame is ________ flow control.
Q4) Data are sent in blocks called ________.
A)links
B)units
C)entities
D)frames
Q5) Most data link control protocols allow a station to cut off the flow of frames from the other side by sending a ________ message,which acknowledges former frames but forbids transfer of future frames.
Q6) The most important data link control protocol is ________.
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Chapter 8: Multiplexing
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Q1) The higher the data rate,the least cost-effective the transmission facility.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Typically two communicating stations will not utilize the full capacity of a data link.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The two most common forms of multiplexing are frequency division multiplexing and ________.
Q4) The digital subscriber line combines FDM and ________ technologies.
Q5) Large numbers of voice and data transmissions can be carried simultaneously using multiplexing.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ was developed to provide the same type of service as HDSL but over a single twisted pair line.
A)SDSL
B)QAM
C)VDSL
D)AMI
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Chapter 9: Wan Technology and Protocols
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Q1) Dynamic use of bandwidth is utilized with ________.
A)virtual circuit packet switching and circuit switching
B)datagram packet switching and virtual circuit packet switching
C)circuit switching and datagram packet switching
D)space division switching and circuit switching
Q2) ________ switching was designed to provide a more efficient facility for bursty data traffic.The attached stations must organize their data into packets for transmission.
Q3) With circuit switching,switching and transmission resources within the network are reserved for the exclusive use of the circuit for the duration of the connection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Circuit switching connections do not appear to attached devices as direct connections.
A)True
B)False
Q5) With internal ________ each packet is treated independently and packets intended for the same destination may follow different routes.
Q6) ________ switching is used in public telephone networks.
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Chapter 10: Cellular Wireless Networks
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Q1) The key technology for 4G systems is ________.
Q2) Each cell in a cellular network is allocated a band of frequencies and is served by a ________ consisting of transmitter,receiver and control unit.
Q3) Affecting not only mobile phones in automobiles,but even a mobile phone user walking down an urban street,________ occurs when there are rapid variations in signal strength.
A)selective fading
B)nonselective fading
C)flat fading
D)fast fading
Q4) Cells in areas of high usage can be split into smaller cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Third generation wireless communication supports ________.
A)voice but not multimedia data
B)multimedia but not voice
C)multimedia and voice
D)voice but not video
Q6) First generation cellular networks made use of ________ multiplexing.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Local Area Network Overview
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Q1) The network consists of a set of ________ joined by point-to-point links in a closed loop in the ring topology.These are capable of receiving data on one link and transmitting them,bit by bit,on the other link as fast as they are received.
Q2) The central element of the star topology is a ________.
A)router
B)hub
C)subnetwork
D)switch
Q3) The tree layout begins at a point known as the ________.
Q4) A ________ LAN includes a central node to which stations are attached.
A)bus
B)star
C)tree
D)ring
Q5) The bridge provides an extension to the LAN once modifications to the communications software in the stations attached to the LAN are made.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Ethernet
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Q1) An algorithm is needed with CSMA to specify what a station should do if the medium is found busy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To ensure that backoff maintains stability,IEEE 802.3 and Ethernet use a technique known as ________ backoff.
Q3) For 1 Gbps and 10 Gbps operations the CSMA/CD MAC protocol is used.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because it does not transmit a continuous signal between packets,making it useful in battery-powered applications,________ is designed to produce a 100- Mbps data rate over lower quality Category 3 cable.
Q5) One of the strengths of the Fast Ethernet approach is that it readily supports a mixture of existing 10-Mbps LANs,100-Mbps LANs, and newer 16-Gpbs LANs.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The earliest medium access control technique is known as ________ and was developed for packet radio networks.
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Chapter 13: Wireless Lans
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Q1) The principal technologies used for wireless LANs are spread spectrum, narrowband microwave,and ________.
Q2) Wireless LANs are not as vulnerable to interference and eavesdropping as wired LANs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In most cases,spread spectrum LANs operate in the ________ microwave bands so that no Federal Communications Commission licensing is required for their use in the United States.
Q4) The popularity of wireless LANs has not grown significantly because the problems of high prices,low data rates,occupational safety concerns,and licensing requirements have not been addressed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Within the United States,the FCC has authorized two unlicensed applications within the ISM band: ________ systems and very low power systems.
Q6) The three MAC frame types are control frames,data frames,and ________ frames.
Q7) The IEEE 802.11 ________ layer includes infrared and spread spectrum and covers a range of data rates.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Internet Protocol
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Q1) A ________ operates at layer 3 of the OSI architecture and routes packets between potentially different networks..
Q2) A hop-by-hop option that is used to send IPv6 packets with payloads longer than 65,535 octets is ________.
A)PAD1
B)fragmentation
C)jumbo payload
D)PADN
Q3) The services to be provided across adjacent protocol layers are expressed in terms of ________ and parameters.
Q4) IPv6 allows three types of addresses: unicast,anycast,and ________.
Q5) In the IPv4 Header ________ specifies how long,in seconds,a datagram is allowed to remain in the internet.
Q6) Starting with a 32-bit block consisting of four 8-bit fields,the ________ contains a list of one or more intermediate nodes to be visited on the way to a packet's destination.
Q7) A Class C network is defined as few networks,each with many hosts.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Transport Protocols
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Q1) In TCP the combination of port and host is referred to as a ________.
Q2) The ________ protocol provides an end-to-end transfer service that shields upper- layer protocols from the details of the intervening network or networks.
Q3) To begin a connection establishment a TS user is in a ________ state.
A)CLOSED
B)LISTEN
C)OPEN
D)ESTAB
Q4) A TCP implementation may employ one of three retransmission strategies: First-only,Individual,and ________.
Q5) ________ provides a means of informing the destination TCP user that significant data is in the upcoming data stream.It is up to the destination user to determine appropriate action.
A)Data stream signaling
B)Attention signaling
C)Urgent data signaling
D)Alert signaling
Q6) The two facilities that TCP provides for labeling data are push and ________.
Q7) TCP uses only a single type of protocol data unit called a ________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Advanced Data Communications Topics
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Q1) The syndrome indicates which of the individual parity-check equations do not equal 0.
A)True
B)False
Q2) DSBSC filters out the carrier frequency and sends both sidebands but does not use as much power and bandwidth as DSBTC.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Reed-Solomon is an example of a ________ code.
Q4) Modulation does not permit frequency-division multiplexing.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ratio of data bits to total bits,k/n,is called the _________ .
A)code rate
B)parity-check matrix
C)systematic code
D)redundancy
Q6) The ratio of redundant bits to data bits,(n - k)/k,is called the _______ of the code.
Q7) Cyclic codes can be easily encoded and decoded using __________ registers.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Wireless Transmission Techniques
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Q1) __________ extends the basic MIMO concept to multiple endpoints,each with multiple antennas.
Q2) With __________ the same data is coded and transmitted through multiple antennas.
A)spatial multiplexing
B)CDMA
C)spatial diversity
D)SC-FDMA
Q3) _______ is a multiplexing technique used with spread spectrum.
Q4) ________ is used on the uplink channel to provide multiple access to subscriber stations.
A)MIMO-MAC
B)MIMO-MU
C)MIMO-DS
D)MIMO-BC
Q5) The IFFT operation has the effect of ensuring that the subcarriers do not interfere with each other.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The first type of spread spectrum developed is known as _________ .
19
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Chapter 19: Routing
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Q1) The disadvantage of fixed routing is ________.
A)its lack of flexibility
B)its simplicity
C)it does not work with virtual circuits
D)it does not work with datagrams
Q2) Fairness is a requirement for a routing function.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The designer who seeks robustness does not need to cope with the requirement for stability.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Due to the large amounts of bandwidth available on modem networks,processing and transmission overhead is a management issue and does not impair network efficiency.
A)True
B)False
Q5) One of the easiest design aspects of switched data networks is routing. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Congestion Control
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Q1) Traffic policing is concerned with traffic leaving the switch.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One aspect of a reservation scheme is _______,in which a node in the network monitors the traffic flow and compares it to the traffic contract.
A)traffic policing
B)window management
C)congestion control
D)RTT variance estimation
Q3) A token bucket traffic specification consists of two parameters: a token replenishment rate and a _________ .
Q4) A _______ is a control packet generated at a congested node and transmitted back to a source node to restrict traffic flow.
Q5) ________ is an effective congestion control technique in connectionless,or datagram,configurations,such as datagram packet-switching networks and IP-based internets.
Q6) Explicit congestion signaling approaches can be divided into three general categories: Credit based,rate based,and ________ .
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Chapter 21: Internetwork Operation
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Q1) A general query is used to learn which groups have members on an attached network.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sparse-mode protocol is appropriate for intra-AS multicast routing and may be viewed as a potential alternative to a multicast version of OSPF known as MOSPF.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is a reason for using SDN domains.
A)Scalability
B)Privacy
C)Incremental deployment
D)All of the above
Q4) Each router must determine multicast routing paths on the basis of both source and destination addresses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) PIM defines two modes of operation: dense-mode protocol and ______ protocol.
Q6) A mobile node is assigned to a particular network,known as its ______ .
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Chapter 22: Internetwork Quality of Service
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Q1) If the server does not know the location of the members of the multicast group,then one way to assure that the packet is received by all members of the group is to ________ a copy of each packet to each network in the configuration over the least cost route for each network.
A)unicast
B)broadcast
C)multicast
D)multiple multicast
Q2) In the ________ strategy,the source system knows the location of each member of the multicast group so the source need only send packets to those networks that contain members of the group.
Q3) Many traffic sources can be defined easily and accurately by a token bucket scheme.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A ________ is a contract between a network provider and a customer that defines specific aspects of the service that is to be provided.
Q5) Three categories of ISA services are: guaranteed,controlled load and ________.
Q6) ________ traffic is the type of traffic for which internets were designed.
Page 23
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Chapter 23: Multiprotocol Label Switching
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Q1) With a ________ the traffic of a given enterprise or group passes transparently through an internet in a way that effectively segregates that traffic from other packets on the internet.
A)LDP
B)MPLS
C)LSP tunnel
D)VPN
Q2) MPLS is a set of ________ specifications for including routing and traffic engineering information in packets.
Q3) ________ refers to the fact that traffic routing is determined by labels,and is exercised below normal IP routing and filtering.
A)Label routing
B)Differentiated Services
C)Traffic engineering
D)Tunnel
Q4) One of the most powerful features of MPLS is label stacking.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The MPLS architecture supports two routing options: hop-by-hop and ________.
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Chapter 24: Electronic Mail, dns, and Http
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Q1) ________ are programs that extract information from name servers in response to client requests.
A)Resolvers
B)DNS databases
C)Domain name spaces
D)MIME
Q2) The _________ is responsible for transferring the message from the MHS to the MS.
A)MDA
B)ADMD
C)MTA
D)MUA
Q3) SMTP is limited to the conversation that takes place between the SMTP sender and the SMTP receiver.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A _______ is a forwarding agent,receiving a request for a URL object, modifying the request,and forwarding the request toward the server identified in the URL.
Q5) The Internet mail architecture is currently defined in RFC _______ .
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Chapter 25: Internet Multimedia Support
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Q1) A _________ is any network element that sends SIP requests and receives SIP responses.
Q2) Soft-time applications have zero loss tolerance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) RFC 3550 outlines ________ as a function performed by RTCP.
A)QoS and congestion control
B)identification
C)session control
D)all of the above
Q4) VoIP is the transmission of speech across IP-based network.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Real-time applications are more concerned with timing issues.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Hard real-time applications impose fewer requirements on the network,and it is therefore permissible to focus on maximizing network utilization.
A)True
B)False
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