Information Technology Fundamentals
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Course Introduction
Information Technology Fundamentals introduces students to the foundational concepts, terminology, and components of information technology (IT). The course covers essential topics such as computer hardware and software, basic networking principles, operating systems, cybersecurity fundamentals, and data management. Students will explore both the theoretical and practical aspects of IT, develop problem-solving skills, and gain hands-on experience with common productivity tools. By the end of the course, learners will have a strong understanding of how IT supports business processes, communication, and decision-making in various environments.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
600 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proper handling procedures for substances such as chemical solvents is typically outlined in which of the following options?
A) Toxic Chemical Safety Procedure (TCSP)
B) Dangerous and Hazardous Waste Disposal Sheet (DHWDS)
C) Environmental Chemical Hazard Sheet (ECHS)
D) Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Answer: D
Q2) What is the difference between a WAN, MAN, CAN, and a PAN?
Answer: A group of LANs that spread over a wide geographical area is called a WAN (wide area network). A group of connected LANs in the same geographical area-for example, a handful of government offices surrounding a state capitol building-is known as a MAN (metropolitan area network) or CAN (campus area network). The smallest network is a PAN (personal area network), which is a network of personal devices, such as the network you use when you sync your smartphone and your computer.
Q3) The protocol data unit for the Physical layer of the OSI model is payload, or data.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of tool would you utilize to terminate twisted pair wire on a 66 or 110 block?
A) wire crimper tool
B) block trimmer tool
C) wire cinching tool
D) punchdown tool
Answer: D
Q2) What standard describes uniform, enterprise-wide cabling systems, regardless of who manufactures or sells the various parts used in the system?
A) IEEE 802.3
B) TIA/EIA-568
C) ITU 922
D) ISO 9001
Answer: B
Q3) The industry standard height for a rack in rack units is 42U.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a range of IP addresses recommended for use in private networks?
A) 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255
B) 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255
C) 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255
D) 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255
Answer: D
Q2) In the classful addressing scheme, what range of network addresses is considered a Class B?
A) 1.x.y.z to 126.x.y.z
B) 128.0.x.y to 191.255.x.y
C) 192.0.0.x to 223.255.255.x
D) 224.x.y.z to 255.x.y.z
Answer: B
Q3) What type of IPv6 address is fe80::8cf1:2c42:ffde:da1c?
A) global address
B) link local address
C) multicast address
D) anycast address
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the TTL (Time to Live) field utilized in IPv4?
Q2) You have been tasked with the replacement of OSPF with EIGRP throughout your organization, which consists of a mixture of Cisco routers and routers from other vendors. What statement is accurate?
A) EIGRP will increase CPU utilization on core routers.
B) Increased traffic will result from the switch to EIGRP.
C) EIGRP may not be available on non-Cisco routers.
D) Convergence time will be increased with EIGRP.
Q3) What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0?
A) The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host.
B) The router attempts to forward the traffic on a local network.
C) The router resets the TTL to 128.
D) The router marks the packet as corrupted and forwards it to the next hop.
Q4) What IPv6 field is similar to the TTL field in IPv4 packets?
A) flow label
B) next header
C) hop limit
D) distance vector
Q5) How does IPv6 utilize Neighbor Discovery Protocol to detect neighboring devices?
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Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Sample Questions
Q1) A typical fiber termination kit should include what tool for cutting a clean slice through fiber strands?
A) fiber stripper
B) fiber snipper
C) fiber cleaver
D) fiber saw
Q2) A junior administrator is having issues connecting to a router's console port using a TIA/EIA 568B standard cable and a USB serial to RJ-45 adapter, despite verifying terminal settings. What is the issue?
A) Router console ports are only used when connected to other routers.
B) The router console port is providing an Ethernet connection, instead of a serial connection.
C) The USB standard is incompatible with the serial connection used by the console port.
D) The cable must be a rollover cable.
Q3) A serial cable with an RJ-45 connector is capable of being used through an RJ-45 Ethernet port.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) The LLC sublayer is primarily concerned with managing MAC addresses in message frames.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In an 802.11 data frame, what is the size of the frame check sequence field?
A) 2 bytes
B) 4 bytes
C) 6 bytes
D) 8 bytes
Q3) Which Bluetooth power class allows for a maximum power output of 100 mW and a range of up to 100 m?
A) Class 1
B) Class 2
C) Class A
D) Class X
Q4) Describe the 802.11a standard, and detail some of its history and advantages / disadvantages versus other 802.11 standards.
Q5) When deciding antenna types, why might the use of an omnidirectional antenna be inadvisable?
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding the use of a bridged mode vNIC is accurate?
A) The vNIC will its own IP address on the physical LAN.
B) The vNIC will be assigned a NAT-ed IP address.
C) The vNIC will only be able to communicate across the bridge to the host PC.
D) The vNIC will utilize the host PC's IP address.
Q2) What special enterprise VPN supported by Cisco devices creates VPN tunnels between branch locations as needed rather than requiring constant, static tunnels?
A) Dynamic Multipoint VPN
B) Dynamic SmartVPN
C) Symmetric VPN Autodial
D) Auto Switched VPN Service
Q3) When using a site-to-site VPN, what type of device sits at the edge of the LAN and establishes the connection between sites?
A) VPN proxy
B) VPN server
C) VPN transport
D) VPN gateway
Q4) What is the PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol), and how does it work?
Q5) What is the difference between a virtual firewall and a software firewall?
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What subnet mask can be used to segment the 172.16.0.0 network to allow for a minimum of 6 subnets while maximizing the number of hosts per subnet?
A) 255.255.248.0
B) 255.255.224.0
C) 255.255.192.0
D) 255.255.128.0
Q2) Given a host IP address of 172.16.1.154 and a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0, what is the network ID for this host?
A) 172.16.0.0
B) 172.16.1.0
C) 172.16.2.0
D) 172.0.0.0
Q3) In 1993, the IETF devised a shorthand method for identifying network and host bits in an IP address. What is this method, and how do you use it?
Q4) What are some of the different reasons to use VLANs?
Q5) Network segmentation decreases both performance and security on a network. A)True B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What document addresses the specific concerns related to special access given to administrators and certain support staff?
A) non-disclosure agreement
B) acceptable use policy
C) password policy
D) privileged user agreement
Q2) What are some of the characteristics of malware that make it difficult to detect?
Q3) List and describe the four different locations in which anti-malware can be installed.
Q4) What is hashing, and how does it differ from encryption?
Q5) When configuring a new device, why should changing the administrative credentials be a top priority?
Q6) How is an acceptable use policy typically used?
Q7) Over a long-distance connection, using SSH keys is more secure than using passwords.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Why might an organization be required to undergo a security audit?
Page 11
Q9) How does a zero-day exploit differ from a typical exploit?
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Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the three methods of access control (RBAC, DAC, and MAC), RBAC is the least secure of the options.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You have been asked by your superior to configure all Cisco network switches to allow only acceptable MAC addresses through switch access ports. How is this accomplished?
A) Use the switchport port-security command to enable MAC filtering.
B) Use the mac-limit command to prevent more than one MAC from being accepted.
C) Use the allowed-mac command to filter by MAC address.
D) Use the secure port mac-address command to limit the port to learned addresses only.
Q3) Which of the following terms is used to describe the configuration of a port to copy all traffic passing through the switch to the device at the other end of the port?
A) port supertrunking
B) port mirroring
C) port shadowing
D) port lurking
Q4) Describe the TACACS+ AAA protocol, and detail how it differs from RADIUS.
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Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are attempting to determine how available your Linux systems are, and need to find the current system uptime. What command should you use?
A) uptime
B) show runtime
C) lastboot
D) display stats
Q2) What happens when an NMS uses the SNMP walk command?
A) The NMS sends a request for data to the agent on a managed device.
B) The NMS uses get requests to move through sequential rows in the MIB database.
C) The NMS requests a list of all active SNMP traps on the system.
D) The NMS walks through a list of given SNMP hosts.
Q3) Which of the following statements describes a RAID 0 configuration?
A) In a RAID 0, data is striped across multiple disks to improve performance.
B) In a RAID 0, data is mirrored on multiple disks to provide fault tolerance.
C) In a RAID 0, data is striped across three or more drives, with parity information added to the data.
D) In a RAID 0, four or more disks are used to mirror data within each pair of disks, and then striped to multiple pairs of disks.
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are MPLS labels placed within a frame?
A) between the layer 3 header and the data payload
B) between the data payload and the layer 2 trailer
C) between the layer 2 header and the layer 3 header
D) at the end of the layer 2 trailer
Q2) Which statement regarding the Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) technology is accurate?
A) In ATM, a message is called a frame and always consists of 1500 bytes of data.
B) ATM can provide 4 levels of QoS, from best effort delivery to guaranteed, real-time transmission.
C) ATM is highly dependent on predetermined schemes that specify the timing of data transmissions.
D) ATM is a point-to-multipoint WAN access technology that uses packet switching.
Q3) When using DOCSIS 3.0, what is the minimum number of channels that can be used?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 16
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