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Information Systems Project Management explores the fundamental principles, techniques, and tools necessary for successfully managing information systems projects in contemporary organizations. The course covers project life cycle management, planning, scheduling, resource allocation, risk assessment, quality assurance, and stakeholder communication. Students will gain practical experience with project management frameworks such as Agile and Waterfall, as well as software tools for tracking tasks and deliverables. Emphasis is placed on aligning project goals with organizational strategy, managing team dynamics, and ensuring project deliverables meet time, cost, and performance criteria within legal and ethical boundaries.
Recommended Textbook
Information Technology Project Management 9th Edition by Kathy Schwalbe
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13 Chapters
1066 Verified Questions
1066 Flashcards
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91 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which tool can best help in efficient communication management?
A) Kick-off meetings
B) Impact matrices
C) Requests for quotes
D) Fast tracking
Answer: A
Q2) Individual projects always address strategic goals whereas portfolio management addresses tactical goals.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) To be a successful manager, the only skills an IT project manager needs to possess are excellent technical skills.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Project _____ management includes estimating how long it will take to complete the work, developing an acceptable project schedule, and ensuring timely completion of a project.
Answer: schedule

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85 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The same organization can have different subcultures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Project managers in matrix organizations have staff from various functional areas working on their projects.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) In which systems development life cycle do model developers use a model to generate functional requirements and physical design specifications simultaneously?
A) RAD life cycle
B) Prototyping life cycle
C) Spiral life cycle
D) Waterfall life cycle
Answer: B
Q4) Some projects have a senior manager called a(n) _____ who acts as a key advocate for a project.
Answer: champion

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83 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)_____ is a series of actions directed toward a particular result.
Answer: process
Q2) Which process involves gaining stakeholder and customer acceptance of the final products and services and bringing the project, or project phase, to an orderly end?
A) executing
B) closing
C) planning
D) monitoring
Answer: B
Q3) An organization's project management plan expresses the vision, mission, goals, objectives, and strategies of the organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The level of activity and length of each process group varies for every project.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which process involves working with stakeholders to create the document that formally authorizes a project?
A) Developing the project charter
B) Developing the preliminary project scope statement
C) Developing the project management plan
D) Performing integrated change control
Q2) What actions result in improvements in project performance?
A) Corrective
B) Defective
C) Preventive
D) Acceptance plan
Q3) Discuss the difference between explicit and tacit knowledge.
Q4) _____ involves coordinating all of the other project management knowledge areas throughout a project's life cycle.
Q5) Projects that arise as a result of problems and directives must be resolved quickly to avoid hurting an organization's business.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____ refer to chances to improve the organization.
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Q1) _____ refers to all the work involved in creating the products of the project and the processes used to create them.
Q2) Information from the project charter provides a basis for further defining the project scope.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Project scope statements must include the project boundaries, constraints, and assumptions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is scope creep?
A) the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger
B) subdividing project deliverables into smaller pieces
C) the approved project scope statement and its associated WBS.
D) a task at the lowest level of the WBS
Q5) _____ is the difference between planned and actual performance.
Q6) _____ refer to "conditions or capabilities that must be met by the project or present in the product, service, or result to satisfy an agreement or other formally imposed specification."
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used for the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the planned project finish date?
A) total slack
B) free float
C) backward pass
D) forward pass
Q2) What is an accurate difference between the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) and critical path method (CPM)?
A) CPM addresses the risk associated with duration estimates whereas PERT does not.
B) Unlike CPM, PERT estimates only when there is no risk of uncertainty.
C) CPM involves more work than PERT because it requires several duration estimates.
D) PERT uses different duration estimates whereas CPM uses one specific duration estimate.
Q3) In a(n) _____ relationship, the "from" activity must start before the "to" activity can be finished.
Q4) Describe critical path analysis. How is the critical path calculated?
Q5) What is a network diagram? Describe two network diagramming methods.
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Q1) Which is an input of the process of controlling costs?
A) cost forecasts
B) work performance data
C) change requests
D) scope baseline
Q2) If the cost performance index (CPI) is less than 100 percent, the project is under budget.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are tangible and intangible costs? Distinguish between direct and indirect costs and give examples of each.
Q4) What is a rough order of magnitude estimate also referred to as?
A) definitive
B) budgetary
C) final
D) ballpark
Q5) List and briefly describe the four project cost management processes.
Q6) The main outputs of the _____ process are activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates.
Q7) _____ are revenues minus expenditures.
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Q1) Which term is used when the project's processes and products meet written specifications?
A) conformance to requirements
B) fitness for use
C) project feasibility
D) benchmarking
Q2) The design of experiments technique cannot be applied to project management issues such as cost and schedule trade-offs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During which phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram used?
A) define
B) measure
C) analyze
D) improve
Q4) The term sigma means median.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The term _____ means a product can be used as it was intended.
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Q1) What is the first step in the framework for defining and assigning work?
A) defining how the work will be accomplished
B) breaking down the work into manageable elements
C) finalizing the project requirements
D) assigning work responsibilities
Q2) According to Covey, project managers must use a win/lose approach in making decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Maslow's hierarchy of needs states that people's behaviors are guided or motivated by a sequence of needs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What term is used for the relation of harmony, conformity, accord, or affinity?
A) empathy
B) democracy
C) mirroring
D) rapport
Q5) In the Tuckman model, _____ involves the break-up of the team after it successfully reaches its goals and completes the work.
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Q1) In a project, communicating badly exponentially increases the possibility of making mistakes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The project manager often combines information from all of the lessons-learned reports into a project summary report.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) _____ is a medium that is "excellent" for encouraging creative thinking.
A) phone call
B) e-mail
C) meeting
D) website
Q4) An important technique for _____ is the status review meeting.
Q5) The outputs of the _____ process are communications management plan and project documents updates.
Q6) What is performance reporting? What are some methods used for performance reporting?
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Q1) List and briefly describe the major processes involved in risk management.
Q2) The last step in project risk management is deciding how to address the knowledge area for a particular project by performing risk management planning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which document contains results of various risk management processes; it is often displayed in a table or spreadsheet format?
A) risk register
B) influence diagram
C) process flow chart
D) work breakdown structure
Q4) A(n) _____ documents the procedures for managing risk throughout the project.
Q5) Which process involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives?
A) performing quantitative risk analysis
B) planning risk responses
C) controlling risk
D) performing qualitative risk analysis
Q6) _____ are indicators or symptoms of actual risk events.
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Q1) A(n) _____ is a contract clause that allows the buyer or supplier to end the contract.
Q2) All contracts should include specific clauses that take into account issues unique to the project.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n) _____ contract includes a special provision for predefined final adjustments to the contract price due to changes in conditions such as inflation.
Q4) In unit pricing, the total value of the contract is a function of the quantities needed to complete the work.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____ are oral or written acts or omissions by someone with actual or apparent authority that can be construed to have the same effect as a written change order.
Q6) How is a statement of work (SOW) different from a contract statement of work? What are some of the requirements for creating a contract SOW?
Q7) _____ contracts are a hybrid of fixed-price and cost-reimbursable contracts.
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Q1) _____ can be perceived as enemies or allies by stakeholders depending on the outcomes of a project.
Q2) The main output of the identifying stakeholders process is the project charter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Communication and interpersonal skills are important for successful project stakeholder management.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) _____ stakeholder is aware of the project and supportive of change.
Q5) The project team must take corrective action if stakeholders with high interest and high power are categorized as _____.
A) resistant
B) neutral
C) supportive
D) leading
Q6) The stakeholder management plan should not be accessible to all stakeholders. A)True
B)False
Q7) The main output of the identifying stakeholders process is the _____.
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