Information Systems Management
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Information Systems Management explores the strategic role of information technology in organizations and examines how information systems can be leveraged to achieve business objectives. The course covers the planning, implementation, and evaluation of information systems, as well as the management of data, infrastructure, and information resources. Students learn about key concepts such as systems development, project management, cybersecurity, and the ethical and legal issues surrounding information systems. Through case studies and practical assignments, students develop the skills needed to align technology solutions with organizational strategies, leading to improved decision-making, efficiency, and competitive advantage.
Recommended Textbook
Experiencing MIS 4th Edition by David Kroenke
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Importance of Mis
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Q1) What is collaboration? How can one ensure effective collaboration?
Answer: Collaboration is the activity of two or more people working together to achieve a common goal,result,or work product.Effective collaboration isn't about being nice.In fact,surveys indicate the single most important skill for effective collaboration is to give and receive critical feedback.
Q2) A group of components that interact to achieve some purpose is referred to as a(n)________.
A)entity
B)element
C)process
D)system
Answer: D
Q3) In order to protect your password,you should never ________.
A)write it down
B)create one that contains multiple special characters
C)use it more than three times in one day
D)use virtual keyboards to enter it
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Business Processes, Information Systems and Information
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Q1) A role is a subset of activities in a business process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of good information?
A)It must be freely available.
B)It must be based on incomplete data.
C)It must be more than just barely sufficient.
D)It must be contextually relevant.
Answer: D
Q3) A monthly report that arrives 6 weeks late is an example of information that is not
A)accurate
B)relevant
C)timely
D)sufficient
Answer: C
Q4) Define information.
Answer: The most common definition of information is that information is knowledge derived from data.
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Chapter 3: Organisational Strategy, Information Systems and Competitive Advantage
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Q1) How did Porter define technology,human resources,and firm infrastructure?
Answer: Porter defined technology broadly.It includes research and development,but it also includes other activities within the firm for developing new techniques,methods,and procedures.He defined human resources as recruiting,compensation,evaluation,and training of full-time and part-time employees.Finally,firm infrastructure includes general management,finance,accounting,legal,and government affairs.
Q2) According to Porter,to be effective,an organisation's goals and activities must be consistent with the organisation's strategy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following competitive strategies does a company follow if it produces a uniquely formulated anti-ageing face cream targeted at women above the age of forty?
A)industry-wide differentiation
B)focus differentiation
C)industry-wide low cost
D)focus low cost
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Hardware and Software
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Q1) A host operating system controls the activities of the virtual machines it hosts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A terabyte is a larger unit than a petabyte.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A gigabyte is 1,024 terabytes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hardware consists of electronic components that input,process,output,and store data.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is true of in-house custom-developed software?
A)Developing custom software is easier than using a horizontal application.
B)Custom-developed software need not be adapted to changing needs.
C)An organisation can tailor its applications to fit its requirements.
D)They are less expensive than off-the-shelf software.
Q6) Differentiate between client and server computers.
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Chapter 5: Database Processing
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Q1) A database is a self-describing collection of integrated records.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Browser database application forms,reports,and queries are displayed and processed using html.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The DBMS can be used to set up a security system involving user accounts,passwords,permissions,and limits for processing the database.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The conversion of the existing traditional databases in organisations to NoSQL databases is ________.
A)highly recommended because any technology-tolerant business professional can use NoSQL
B)unnecessary in cases where relational databases meet the needs of organisations
C)very cost-effective,but can be enormously disruptive
D)highly efficient and is being practiced by many organisations
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Chapter 6: The Cloud
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Q1) Explain how software as a service (SaaS)works.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of cloud-based and in-house hosting?
A)Cloud-based hosting reduces the visibility of the security being used to protect data.
B)Cloud-based hosting involves the risk of investing in technology that may soon become obsolete.
C)In-house hosting makes scaling up to meet the demands of increased traffic easier.
D)In-house hosting leads to loss of physical control of data.
Q3) Which of the following is likely to be a consequence of cloud computing in the future?
A)The cost of obtaining elastic resources will decrease.
B)The number of technology-based startups will stagnate.
C)Organisations will prefer to setup their own computing infrastructure.
D)Jobs related to server operations at small organisations will increase.
Q4) The connection between a VPN client and a VPN server is called a tunnel.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the factors that have made cloud-based hosting advantageous?
Q6) Why is the term "pooled" used to describe the cloud?
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Chapter 7: Organisations and Information Systems
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of EAI?
A)EAI software can be configured to automatically make conversions needed to share data among different systems.
B)A disadvantage of the EAI software is the lack of metadata files that describe where data are located.
C)EAI makes use of a centralised database that acts as a "virtual integrated database" for users to process.
D)The layers of EAI software prevent existing applications from communicating with each other.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of inherent processes?
A)Inherent processes are almost always a perfect fit.
B)Inherent processes are expensive and time-consuming.
C)Inherent processes provide an alternative to business process reengineering.
D)Organisations cannot license the software used in inherent processes.
Q3) The last phase of the customer life cycle is relationship management.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are some of the benefits of EAI?
Q5) What problems do information silos cause?
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Chapter 8: Social Media Information Systems
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Q1) SM sponsors do not require training on social media information systems (SMIS)user procedures to contribute to their organisation's SM site.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Employees who contribute to and manage social networking sites will generate direct labour costs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is the dynamic social media process of employing users to participate in product design or product redesign.
A)Flexible product development
B)Collaborative product development
C)Social capitalisation
D)Crowdsourcing
Q4) Explain the hardware component of social media information systems (SMIS)with respect to each of the three organisational roles.
Q5) What are defenders-of-belief communities?
Q6) What is a folksonomy?
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Chapter 9: Business Intelligence Systems
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Q1) What are the functions of a data warehouse?
Q2) Publish results is the process of delivering business intelligence to the knowledge workers who need it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) With unsupervised data mining,analysts do not create a model or hypothesis before running the analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ is an unsupervised data mining technique in which statistical techniques identify groups of entities that have similar characteristics.
A)Content indexing
B)Regression analysis
C)Cloud computing
D)Cluster analysis
Q5) Business intelligence enables police departments to better utilise their personnel through predictive-policing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Information Systems Development
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Q1) In a pilot installation,a new system is installed in phases across the organisation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Olive Inc. ,a chain of retail outlets,is converting its existing billing systems to a more robust online tool.In this process,the organisation runs both the old and the new systems to compare their performances.In this case,the company is implementing the new system using ________ installation.
A)plunge
B)parallel
C)phased
D)pilot
Q3) What are the four ways in which organisations can implement a system conversion?
Q4) What is beta testing?
Q5) Which of the following personnel design the procedures for a business information system?
A)programmers
B)business analysts
C)testers
D)systems analysts
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Chapter 11: Information Systems Management
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Q1) The rights of an information systems user depend on the purpose of the system's usage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organisations outsource projects to engage its management team in their free time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n)________ committee is a group of senior managers from the major business functions that works with the CIO to set the IS priorities and decide among major IS projects and alternatives.
A)enforcement
B)steering
C)administrative
D)disciplinary
Q4) What are the different functions in planning the use of information systems?
Q5) Each outsource vendor has its own methods and procedures for its services.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the advantages to the management in outsourcing information systems.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Information Security Management
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Q1) Which of the following is a data safeguard against security threats?
A)malware protection
B)physical security
C)dissemination of information
D)application design
Q2) The enforcement of security procedures and policies consists of three interdependent factors: ________.
A)centralised reporting,preparation,and practice
B)account administration,systems procedures,and security monitoring
C)responsibility,accountability,and compliance
D)separation of duties,provision of least privilege,and position sensitivity
Q3) Backup and physical security are ________ against computer security threats.
A)human safeguards
B)procedural safeguards
C)data safeguards
D)technical safeguards
Q4) Smart cards are convenient to use because they don't require a PIN number for authentication.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Collaboration Information Systems for Decision
Making, Problem Solving and Project Management
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Q1) Decisions at the operational level tend to be unstructured.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ decisions are decisions about the allocation and utilisation of resources.
A)Managerial
B)Operational
C)Critical
D)Strategic
Q3) Which of the following is the first and most fundamental collaboration purpose?
A)manage projects
B)solve problems
C)become informed
D)make decisions
Q4) Why is information considered the most fundamental collaboration purpose?
A)All the members of a team usually conceive information in the same way.
B)Being informed restricts communication between members of a group.
C)Individuals can construct different perceptions of the same data.
D)Disclosing information may lead to unsuccessful collaboration.
Q5) Differentiate between project data and project metadata.
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Chapter 14: Collaboration Information Systems for Student Projects
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Q1) Virtual meetings can be synchronous or asynchronous.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of a product power curve?
A)A flat line on a power curve means the user is increasing the utility gained from the product.
B)The power curve of a minimal collaboration tool set rises steadily with time.
C)At time zero,the ideal power curve is at zero.
D)The power curve of a comprehensive set has the longest flat spot in the beginning.
Q3) In a ________,one person creates a list of questions to which other users respond.
A)team survey
B)discussion forum
C)webinar
D)multiparty text chat
Q4) The document checkout feature in SharePoint allows users to simultaneously edit documents.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Mobile Systems
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Q1) In a ________ application,the browser provides a relatively consistent platform for the application.
A)virtual
B)thin-client
C)native
D)thick-client
Q2) Chrome is a term that refers to the ________ in a computer display.
A)visual overhead
B)refresh rate
C)Web applications
D)pixel density
Q3) The major advantage of native applications over thin-client applications is that they will run on any operating system and mobile device.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Direct interaction is the usage of content to drive application behaviour.
A)True
B)False
Q5) State the primary characteristics of a quality mobile application.
Q6) What is roaming? What are its applications?
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Microsoft Excel 2013
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Q1) Using the F2 function key is recommended when the user has a long value in a cell and needs to edit a letter or two without retyping the whole entry.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the different ways of entering data into an Excel worksheet?
Q3) In Excel,the REVIEW tab can be used for ________.
A)configuring the appearance of Excel
B)filtering and sorting data in the spreadsheet
C)tracking changes and making comments
D)creating more complex formulas
Q4) In Excel,the REVIEW tab is used to format a page for printing.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Selecting the $ English (U.S. )option displays numbers with a dollar sign and two decimal places.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is a spreadsheet?
Q7) The real power of Excel lies in its amazing computational capability.Explain.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Database Design
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Q1) A data model should be transformed into a database design only after the users have approved and validated it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the role of users in designing a database.
Q3) A data model does not depict the relationships among the data.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n)________ notation signifies that an adviser can be related to many students and that a student can be related to many advisers.
A)N:1
B)N:N
C)N:M
D)1:N
Q5) What are the steps involved in transforming a data model into a relational database design?
Q6) The data integrity problem can occur only if data are missing. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Using Microsoft Access 2013
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Q1) In Access,to create a relationship between one row of a table and an unlimited number of rows in another table,users should ________.
A)create a link between the primary key in one table to the primary key in another table
B)create a link between the foreign keys of both the tables
C)drag the foreign key in one table to the primary key in another table
D)drag the primary key in one table to the foreign key in another table
Q2) In Access,after creating a relationship between two tables,the user cannot and need not assign values for the ________.
A)tracker
B)foreign key
C)query
D)add-ons
Q3) To create a query in Microsoft Access,one must drag columns out of the required tables into the grid in the lower part of the query definition form.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How can a user generate reports in Microsoft Access?
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Chapter 19: Using Excel and Access Together
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Q1) Delimited text files can be imported to Microsoft Access by selecting the ________ tab.
A)HOME
B)EXTERNAL DATA
C)CREATE
D)DATABASE TOOLS
Q2) Which of the following tabs in Microsoft Excel contains the option to create a column chart?
A)Insert
B)Home
C)Data
D)Tools
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of delimited files?
A)A comma-delimited file has data that contains commas.
B)Field values in a tab-delimited file are separated by tabs.
C)Delimited files cannot be imported by Excel.
D)Access can import only tab-delimited files.
Q4) Explain the significance of using Access and Excel together.
Q5) Explain the procedure for creating graphs in Microsoft Excel.
Q6) How can Excel be used to graph Access data?
21
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Chapter 20: Network and Cloud Technology
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Q1) What are the different tiers in the three-tier architecture?
Q2) Wireless mice use Bluetooth to connect to a computer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements best defines an IP address?
A)It is a protocol that specifies the format of Web pages.
B)It is a number that identifies a particular device.
C)It is a program that breaks up network traffic into pieces before transmission.
D)It is a piece of a message that is handled by programs that implement internet protocol.
Q4) Which of the following statements is true about LANs and their components?
A)For communications equipment,the M in Mbps stands for 1024×1024.
B)The numbers in the term "10/100/1000 Ethernet" refer to the number of devices that can be connected.
C)The expansion of kbps is kilobits per second.
D)IEEE 802.11ac is the current standard for wired LAN.
Q5) File Transfer Protocol is generally used for email transmissions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Enterprise Resource Planning Erp Systems
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Q1) Explain ERP application programs.
Q2) Infor Business Cloud is an ERP solution that can be installed on a customer's servers and managed by Infor personnel.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of an ERP database?
A)A trigger is a computer program code stored in an ERP database that is used to enforce business rules.
B)An ERP solution contains the company's operational data.
C)A stored procedure is a computer program code stored within an ERP database that runs to keep the database consistent when certain conditions arise.
D)An ERP solution includes initial configuration data.
Q4) For implementing ERP systems,the first task is to create a model of current business procedures and practices,which is called the as-is model.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Give a brief description of Microsoft's ERP products.
Q6) What is the primary purpose of an ERP system?
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Chapter 22: Supply Chain Management
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Q1) Explain inter-enterprise processes with an example.
Q2) The large fluctuations of bullwhip effect force organisations to stock fewer inventories than needed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ________ is a factor of information that can be transactional,such as orders and order returns,or it can be informational,such as the sharing of inventory and customer order data.
A)purpose
B)availability
C)means
D)direction
Q4) Explain the bullwhip effect with an example.
Q5) Inter-enterprise information systems vary in scope and complexity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Each level of a supply chain has a distinct source of revenue.
A)True
B)False
Q7) How do information systems affect supply chain performance?
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Chapter 23: Hyper-Social Organisations and Knowledge Management
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Q1) What are the alternatives to content management applications?
Q2) The documents in content management systems are nonperishable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Rich directories are particularly useful in large organisations where people with particular expertise are unknown.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following dynamic process activities involves creating relationships with different communities?
A)engage
B)activate
C)sense
D)measure
Q5) Which of the following is a disadvantage of expert systems?
A)They cannot be updated to meet the changes in technology.
B)It is difficult to introduce a new rule in the system.
C)They cannot consist of more than one if/else rule.
Page 25
D)The system's knowledge is available only to high-skilled experts.
Q6) What is the purpose of a rich directory?
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Chapter 24: Database Marketing
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Q1) A minimum difference among groups is used as the criterion for constructing the decision tree.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the first step in the process of producing an RFM score?
A)dividing the customers according to the amount spent on purchases
B)dividing customers into multiple groups and giving each group a score
C)sorting customer purchase records based on the purchase frequency
D)sorting customer purchase records by the date of most recent purchase
Q3) The RFM score is obtained by ranking the customers on the basis of pricing patterns.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Data mining techniques are essential for database marketing.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is database marketing?
Q6) Describe the process of conducting RFM analysis.
Q7) Define the three market-basket terminologies: support,confidence,and lift.
27
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Chapter 25: Reporting Systems and Olap
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Q1) In the case of online analytical processing,the presentation of a measure with associated dimensions is referred to as an ________.
A)OLAP database
B)OLAP server
C)OLAP service
D)OLAP cube
Q2) Which of the following report media is used for delivering a query report?
A)digital dashboard
B)Web site
C)alerts via email
D)paper and PDF file
Q3) A reporting system uses ________ to prepare and deliver reports to proper users on a timely basis.
A)network packets
B)data structures
C)microdata
D)metadata
Q4) Explain report authoring,management,and delivery.
Q5) How does a reporting system obtain the necessary data to generate reports?
Page 28
Q6) What are reporting systems? What are the fundamental operations they perform?
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Chapter 26: Systems Development Project Management
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Q1) What are the biggest challenges for managing a large-scale systems development project?
Q2) Increasing the cost of a project can reduce the time required to complete the project up to a certain point,beyond which,the time required would increase due to
A)economies of scale
B)diseconomies of scale
C)economies of scope
D)diseconomies of scope
Q3) One approach businesses take to address scheduling challenges in large-scale systems is avoiding the development of software in-house.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Large-scale systems development requires extended development intervals that extend up to 5 years.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is a critical path? How is a critical path analysis done?
Q6) What are the characteristics of large-scale systems development projects?
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Chapter 27: Agile Development
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Q1) According to the systems development life cycle (SDLC),the progress from requirements to implementation is nonlinear.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic that makes agile development a valid systems development process?
A)Once a phase of development is completed,it is not revisited.
B)Process scheduling is performed by the scrum master.
C)Through iteration,team members decide when a project is complete.
D)Team iteration and feedback are used for scheduling and tasking.
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of using agile techniques over the SDLC?
A)A working version of the product is delivered frequently during the project.
B)Changes in systems requirements are incorporated towards the end of the project.
C)In projects using agile techniques,customers test only the completed version of the product.
D)System design is completed at the beginning of the project.
Q4) In a scrum,who is a product owner?
Q5) What are the principles of agile development methodologies?
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Chapter 28: Business Process Management
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Q1) The credit-check process is independent of the inclusion or exclusion of new categories of customers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Give an example to illustrate how business processes fail to work when misaligned with the organisation's goals.
Q3) How can a change in customers,product lines,and supply chains affect business processes?
Q4) A business process is a network of activities,repositories,and data and sequence flows that interact to accomplish a business function.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the three principles that relate business processes and information systems?
Q6) Some business processes consist of activities that do not involve information systems.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe business process management (BPM)in brief.
Page 31
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Chapter 29: International Mis
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40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77014
Sample Questions
Q1) If a distributed database divides the database into nonoverlapping segments,it is called a(n)________ database.
A)partitioned
B)replicated
C)independent
D)mirrored
Q2) What are the problems of inherent processes?
A)True
B)False
Q3) Information systems support just-in-time (JIT)inventory techniques.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How does the global economy change competitive strategy?
Q5) The process of making a computer program work in a second language is called
A)stringing
B)differentiating
C)optimising
D)localising
Q6) How do global information systems affect supply chain profitability?
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