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This course explores the role and impact of information systems within modern organizations. Students will analyze how information technology supports business processes, decision-making, strategic goals, and competitiveness. Topics include systems theory, information system types, data management, enterprise applications, and the alignment of IT with organizational strategy. The course emphasizes the challenges of system implementation, managing digital transformation, security and ethical considerations, and the importance of IT governance, preparing students to leverage information systems for organizational success.
Recommended Textbook
Accounting Information Systems 1st Edition by Vernon J. Richardson
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14 Chapters
555 Verified Questions
555 Flashcards
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/54672
Sample Questions
Q1) Information overload is defined as the difficulty a person faces in understanding a problem and making a decision as a consequence of too much information.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) An enterprise system is a centralized database that collects data from throughout the firm.This includes data from orders,customers,sales,inventory and employees A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Accounting and Finance is a primary activity in the value chain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Accounting Information Systems at this date are all computerized. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not part of the business analysis process?
A) Ascertaining information about current and future business processes.
B) Using business process modeling tools.
C) Using IT to make finance and accounting processes more efficient and effective.
D) Documenting current and future business processes.
Answer: C
Q2) Data Flow Diagrams start with a circle indicating the start event.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following best describes the purpose of an activity model?
A) An activity model describes the sequence of workflow in a business process.
B) An activity model constrains and guides process operations.
C) An activity model depicts data structures.
D) None of the above.
Answer: A
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45 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unified Modeling Language (UML)Class diagrams describe the logical structure of a database system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Identify the classes and associations in the following narrative and draw a class diagram with multiplicities: Barb maintains a real estate tracking system for Orange County.There are currently 34 incorporated cities and 15 unincorporated communities in the county.Barb tracks all of these as cities.Within each city,there is at least one and could be many neighborhoods.Within each neighborhood,there is at least one and likely many houses.For each house,Barb tracks information for all the sales in the last 20 years,although some houses have not been sold in the last 20 years.
Answer: 11ea6df8_4eb0_38e2_b0bd_a1e70c5de05d_TB2309_00
Q3) A database should have exactly the same number of tables as there are Classes in the Unified Modeling Language (UML)Class diagram from which the database is developed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the challenges of enterprise system implementation?
Q2) Access is a simple database management system that can be used to run databases for individuals and small firms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following resources is usually not modeled as an entity (table)in an REA data model?
A) Cash
B) Inventory
C) Accounts receivable
D) Property, plant and equipment
Q4) Three types of data models used today are: the hierarchical model,the network model and the relational model.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cloud computing is an internet-based computing where shared resources,software,and information is provided to firms on demand.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a collaboration model using BPMN,the interaction between participants is called orchestration.
A)True B)False
Q2) One-to-many relationships are implemented by posting a foreign key. A)True B)False
Q3) Type images can be used to allow process information to be summarized by category.
A)True B)False
Q4) An intermediate error event can be used to model process exceptions. A)True B)False
Q5) BPMN models can describe the collaboration between two organizations using pools.
A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a BPMN collaboration model of the purchase process,one pool describes the focal organization's activities and the other pool describes what?
A) The supplier's activities
B) The customer's activities
C) The sequence of steps in the process
D) The message flows between the pools
Q2) Many companies record both purchase orders and purchases; when would such a company recognize the purchase?
A) When the purchase order is issued.
B) When the supplier receives the purchase order.
C) When the products are received from the supplier and accepted.
D) When the products are sold.
Q3) In a BPMN activity diagram,which of the following best describes the purpose of an intermediate timer event?
A) Represent a time delay
B) Indicates a delay to a specific date/time
C) Indicates a delay to a relative date, such as next Thursday
D) All of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) Application controls limit access to viewing and changing records in a system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a basic UML diagram of the conversion process,which of the following best describes the purpose of a duality association?
A) Shows the participation of employees in the process.
B) Links work in process events to the original production authorization.
C) Indicates issue of raw material into the process.
D) Tracks completion of work in process and increase to finished goods inventory.
Q3) Conversion labor costs become part of cost of goods sold.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A labor plan class would establish standard overhead allocation rates.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Gateways can direct sequence flow to support looping.
A)True
B)False
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Reporting Language XBRL
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50 Verified Questions
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Q1) There is a different XBRL taxonomy for each country,including XBRL Australia,XBRL Canada,XBRL Germany,XBRL Japan,XBRL-Netherlands,XBRL-US,and XBRL-UK.What would happen if there were only one XBRL taxonomy for all countries?
Q2) Ford may use business intelligence to:
A) Track the cost of parts on its vehicles
B) Monitor the price of their pilots and flight attendants
C) Indicators of quality issues to pinpoint machinery failures in its assembly plants
D) As inputs for its tax reporting system
Q3) Why would general economic information (GDP,interest rates,etc.)be included in a data warehouse? Would they be more helpful for some companies than for others?
Q4) Data warehouses work together with operational systems to provide necessary insight,particularly in the case of customer relationship management (CRM)and supply chain management (SCM)systems.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How would XBRL GL be used for internal uses such as management accounting?
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Q1) According to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002,it is the responsibility of the Board of Directors to establish and maintain the effectiveness of internal control.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Reconciliation of cash accounts may be referred to as what type of control?
A) Detective.
B) Preventive.
C) Adjustive.
D) Non-routine.
Q3) The risk of a company's internal auditing processes failing to catch the misstated dollar amount of revenue on the company's income statement is classified as inherent risk.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tracing shipping documents to pre-numbered sales invoices provides evidence that
A) No duplicate shipments or billings occurred.
B) Shipments to customers were properly invoiced.
C) All goods ordered by customers were shipped.
D) All pre-numbered sales invoices were accounted for.
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Q1) Which of the following outcomes is a likely benefit of information technology used for internal control?
A) Processing of unusual or nonrecurring transactions.
B) Enhanced timeliness of information.
C) Potential loss of data.
D) Recording of unauthorized transactions.
Q2) Disaster recovery planning and business continuity management are preventive controls.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When client's accounts payable computer system was relocated,the administrator provided support through a dial-up connection to server.Subsequently,the administrator left the company.No changes were made to the accounts payable system at that time.Which of the following situations represents the greatest security risk?
A) User passwords are not required to the in alpha-numeric format.
B) Management procedures for user accounts are not documented.
C) User accounts are not removed upon termination of employees.
D) Security logs are not periodically reviewed for violations.
Q4) What are the two prerequisites for vulnerability management?
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Q1) Which of the following is least likely to be considered a component of a computer network?
A) Application programs.
B) Computers.
C) Servers.
D) Routers.
Q2) Parallel simulation attempts to simulate the firm's key features or processes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements about firewalls is wrong?
A) A firewall is a security system comprised of hardware and software that is built using routers, servers, and a variety of software
B) A firewall allows individuals on the corporate network to send and receive data packets from the Internet
C) A firewall can filter through packets coming from outside networks to prevent unauthorized access
D) A firewall connects different LANs, software-based intelligent devices, examines IP addresses
Q4) What are the general security objectives for both wired LANs and wireless LANs?
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Q1) Besides presenting financial performance information to shareholders,the financial perspective provides information that can confirm the success of investments in learning and growth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the business process perspective,the firm describes its objectives for improvements in tangible and intangible infrastructure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The balanced scorecard framework describes performance from four different perspectives based on the firm's strategy to achieve shareholder value.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Function IT can be used without affecting more than one skilled worker.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The balanced scorecard management process starts with the Formulate step. A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benefits are often estimated without complete information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an example of project risk?
A) The technology will not work as expected.
B) The IT project is not aligned with the company's strategy.
C) The financial benefits may not be delivered.
D) The IT project may exceed budget.
Q3) Pacific Green Company is considering buying a unique bar-coding machine to help them track their plant inventory.They evaluated the payback period and accounting rate of return and selected the project for further evaluation.Relevant information on the machine is repeated as follows:
Acquisition cost = $48,000
Expected salvage value = $0
Expected annual cash inflow benefits = $13,000 per year for 5 years
Expected useful life = 5 years
Required: Compute the net present value of the project assuming a discount rate of 16%.Use EXCEL to compute the internal rate of return.Advise PGC on the best course of action with respect to the investment.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brainstorm a list of reasons why 68% (including 44% challenged + 24% failed)of the information technology projects either failed or were challenged in 2009.Consider specifics of each of the elements of the triple constraints model and any other common delays including the challenges of working with programmers,software and hardware suppliers and vendors,etc.What is the best way to overcome these issues and decrease the number of projects failed or challenged?
Q2) The 15-15 Rule states that if a project is more than 15 percent over budget or 15 percent off the desired schedule,it will likely never recoup the time or cost necessary to be considered successful.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The analysis phase of the SDLC involves a complete,detailed analysis of the systems needs of the end user.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Parallel or concurrent tasks are tasks that be done at the same time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What can be done to combat scope creep? Page 16
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