Information Systems Fundamentals
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Information Systems Fundamentals introduces students to the core concepts, technologies, and applications of information systems within organizations. This course explores the role of information systems in supporting business operations, decision-making, and competitive strategy. Students will gain an understanding of the components of information systems, including hardware, software, data, people, and processes. Topics include systems development, database management, telecommunications, enterprise applications, cybersecurity, and ethical considerations in technology use. Through case studies and practical assignments, students will develop the foundational knowledge and skills necessary to effectively utilize and manage information systems in a variety of professional contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Experiencing MIS 7th Edition by David M. Kroenke
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Importance of Mis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a critical responsibility of business professionals in using information systems?
A)protecting the security of a system and its data
B)reprogramming a system to meet changing needs
C)creating and modifying a system's databases
D)building and configuring additional networks
Answer: A
Q2) Information systems should be created by a business only if they help achieve the strategies of that business.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The knowledge of managing information systems can lead to greater job security. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Effective collaboration is all about being nice to one's team members.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Business Processes, Information Systems, and Information
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Q1) A role is a subset of activities in a business process.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q2) Accurate data should be relevant both to the context and to the subject.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Repositories are collections of data.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q4) In the five-component framework of an information system (IS), data is the bridge between the computer side and the human side.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Organizational Strategy, Information Systems
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Q1) Which of the following describes suppliers in a position of strong bargaining power?
A)coffee planters during a season of frost that decreases production
B)domestic suppliers of corn in the event of removal of import duties on corn
C)providers of logistic support when fuel prices have been reduced
D)temporary part-time gym instructor at a well-known gym
Answer: A
Q2) Inbound and outbound logistics are the primary value generators in a service-oriented company.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) Value chains exist in service-oriented companies.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Procurement falls under the category of primary activities in a value chain.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Hardware and Software
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Q1) ________ is a computer code that is written by humans and understandable by humans.
A)Bar code
B)Machine code
C)Source code
D)Overhead code
Q2) What is unique about Linux as an operating system?
Q3) Firefox, Chrome, Opera, and Edge (formerly Internet Explorer)are examples of thick-client applications.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ computers have four central processing units (CPUs).
A)Quad-processor
B)Dual-processor
C)Tri-processor
D)Tetra-processor
Q5) What is an operating system? How is it different from an application program?
Q6) Main memory is also called read-only memory.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Database Processing
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Q1) In a database, columns are also called ________.
A)records
B)tables
C)files
D)fields
Q2) What is a database management system (DBMS)? Explain with suitable examples.
Q3) Browser database application forms, reports, and queries are displayed and processed using HyperText Markup Language (HTML).
A)True
B)False
Q4) DB2 is a popular database management system product that is licensed from Microsoft.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define Structured Query Language (SQL).
Q6) Describe the elements in a database.
Q7) Reports in database applications provide security, data consistency, and special-purpose processing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Cloud
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Q1) A content delivery network (CDN)services a user's request using the geographically closest server.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is the term pooled used to describe the cloud?
Q3) A remote system designed by Alpha Solutions uses cameras and motion-sensing equipment to issue tickets for traffic violations.This system is an example of ________.
A)telediagnosis
B)teleassessment
C)telelaw enforcement
D)teleinstruction
Q4) Which of the following is an advantage of a private cloud in an organization?
A)It reduces the complexity involved in using other publicly available cloud services.
B)It eliminates the need to use an additional secure network to access this cloud from outside the organization.
C)It allows the organization to repurpose its idle servers for use to other organizations.
D)It allows the organization to manage its servers with elastic load balancing.
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Chapter 7: Organizations and Information Systems
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Q1) A(n)________ exists when data are isolated in separated information systems.
A)walled garden
B)information silo
C)mashup
D)viral hook
Q2) Business process reengineering is extremely fast and economical.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of inherent processes?
A)Inherent processes are almost always a perfect fit.
B)Organizations cannot license the software used in inherent processes.
C)Inherent processes are expensive and time-consuming.
D)Inherent processes provide an alternative to business process reengineering.
Q4) The work of committees and steering groups developed for providing process management is slow and expensive.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most organizations today create their own enterprise systems from scratch.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Social Media Information Systems
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Q1) ________ in the context of management means loss of control of employees.
A)Transcendence
B)Divergence
C)Emergence
D)Dependence
Q2) Social media's flow cannot be designed or diagrammed as it is very ________.
A)dynamic
B)static
C)confounding
D)simple
Q3) Explain the hardware component of social media information systems (SMIS)with respect to each of the three organizational roles.
Q4) Connection data differentiates social media information systems (SMIS)from Web site applications.
A)True
B)False
Q5) According to Nan Lin, how do people benefit from social capital?
Q6) Explain the procedure component of social media information systems (SMIS)with respect to a user and an organization.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Business Intelligence Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is a fundamental category of business intelligence (BI)analysis?
A)data acquisition
B)reporting
C)push publishing
D)pull publishing
Q2) ________ process operational and other data in organizations to analyze past performance and make predictions.
A)Virtualization techniques
B)Live migration techniques
C)Business intelligence systems
D)Windowing systems
Q3) What are the three primary activities in the business intelligence process?
Q4) ________ is an open source program supported by the Apache Foundation that manages thousands of computers and that implements MapReduce.
A)Hadoop
B)BigData
C)Linux
D)Apache Wave
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Chapter 10: Information Systems Security
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Q1) Explain the functions of the two organizational units responsible for data safeguarding.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of the financial losses due to computer crimes?
A)All studies on the costs of computer crimes are based on surveys.
B)There are several set standards for tallying computer crime costs and financial losses.
C)Companies are legally required to calculate their financial losses due to computer crime every month.
D)Knowledge about the cost of computer crimes is restricted to large companies.
Q3) Packet-filtering firewalls cannot prohibit outsiders from starting a session with any user behind the firewall.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the precautions to be taken when opening email attachments to avoid malwares?
Q5) Pretexting occurs when someone deceives by pretending to be someone else.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Information Systems Management
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of outsourcing information systems?
A)An outsourcing company is typically in complete control of the process.
B)It is a cheaper short-term solution to achieve long-term benefits.
C)It can be an easy way to gain expertise otherwise not known.
D)The vendors can be easily and cheaply changed if performance is below par.
Q2) Which of the following staff functions is at the top-most level of a typical senior-level reporting relationship?
A)chief information officer (CIO)
B)chief operating officer (COO)
C)chief technology officer (CTO)
D)chief financial officer (CFO)
Q3) A ________ performs a wide range of activities such as programming, testing, database design, communications and networks, project management, and is required to have an entrepreneurial attitude.
A)systems analyst
B)consultant
C)small-scale project manager
D)database administrator
Q4) Explain the advantages of management in outsourcing information systems.
Q5) Explain the responsibilities of information systems users.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Information Systems Development
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Q1) A development team's composition changes over time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organizational feasibility refers to estimating the time it will take to complete a project.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ testing is the process of allowing future system users to try out a new system on their own.
A)Unit
B)Alpha
C)Integration
D)Beta
Q4) Which of the following statements is true of systems development?
A)It has little need for human relations skills as tasks are performed by individuals and not by groups.
B)It is a technical task undertaken exclusively by programmers and hardware specialists.
C)It has lesser scope than computer program development.
D)It requires business knowledge and an understanding of group dynamics.
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Chapter 13: Collaboration Information Systems for Decision Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between project data and project metadata.
Q2) Which of the following should be followed for an effective collaboration?
A)Iterations should be avoided for the smooth functioning of a collaborative process.
B)Group members should never be critical, or give each other negative feedback.
C)Multiple iterations and feedback should be used to improve collaboration.
D)Collaboration should take place at the final stage of a project to be more effective.
Q3) Strategic decisions are almost always collaborative.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Differentiate between cooperation and collaboration with examples.
Q5) Which of the following should be avoided for a collaboration to be successful?
A)replying to the criticisms offered by different members in the group
B)giving different perceptions of the topics under discussion
C)giving critical feedback against other members of a group
D)giving critical feedback that leads to distrust among group members
Q6) Operational decisions are always collaborative.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Collaborative Information Systems for Student Projects
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Q1) The alerts feature in SharePoint ________.
A)sends a team member an email whenever a task is assigned to him or her
B)requires team members to check the task list for new tasks every hour
C)does not support customization of email requests
D)can send emails only when an existing task is deleted
Q2) Morgan's company has outsourced its accounting process to a small firm in India.Morgan needs to discuss some quality control measures with the firm's managers.He conducts the meeting via videoconference.Given the nature of the meeting, it can also be called a(n)________ meeting.
A)concurrent
B)parallel
C)asynchronous
D)virtual
Q3) With the ________ collaboration tool set, a participant should be able to collaborate with his or her team, though he or she will get little support from the software.
A)Minimal
B)Optimal
C)Good
D)Comprehensive
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Mobile Systems
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Q1) When some applications move complex code onto powered and powerful cloud servers, it improves the security.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A browser provides a more-or-less consistent environment for a Web application when it is developed to be run outside the browser.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Web applications can be developed by less-skilled, lesser-paid employees; they are considerably cheaper to develop than ________ applications.
A)thin-client
B)user-code
C)remote
D)native
Q4) The cost of native applications is very low when compared to Web applications.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is roaming? What are its applications?
Q6) State the primary characteristics of a quality mobile application.
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Microsoft Excel 2013
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Q1) Rachel is working on a spreadsheet to calculate financial ratios.She tabulates the values and begins creating a formula to calculate the ratios.Which of the following signs should Rachel remember to use at the beginning of her formula?
A)plus sign
B)minus sign
C)percentage sign
D)equal sign
Q2) In Excel, the FORMULAS tab is used for creating complex formulas.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A user enters a formula into cell G9.Which of the following would be possible if the user presses the F2 function key after selecting the cell G9?
A)The formula in G9 can be edited without retyping the entire formula.
B)The formula can be copied to the clipboard.
C)A graph can be created based on the cells that appear in the formula.
D)The formula in the cell can be locked.
Q4) The real power of Excel lies in its amazing computational capability.Explain.
Q5) What are the different ways of entering data into an Excel worksheet?
Q6) Explain the process of inserting rows and columns in Microsoft Excel.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Database Design
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Q1) 1:N means that more than one entity is allowed on each side of the relationship.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The data integrity problem can occur only if data are missing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) While representing the relationship between two entities in an entity-relationship diagram, the N:N notation is used to indicate that the same number of entities are present on each end of the relationship.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a highly popular technique for creating a data model with which the developers describe the content of a database by defining what is to be stored in the database and the associations among them?
A)entity-relationship (E-R)data model
B)Unified Modeling Language (UML)
C)object-relational model
D)semantic data model
Q5) Explain the role of users in designing a database.
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Chapter 18: Using Microsoft Access 2013
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the alternatives for creating a data entry form in Microsoft Access?
A)data definition tab
B)query wizard
C)property sheet
D)default table display
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about queries in Microsoft Access?
A)Only rows with value matches in all tables are shown by default if more than one table is selected.
B)Only rows having "Number" data type can be used to arrange the results of a query in ascending order.
C)Queries can include fields from only one table.
D)The query design option is present in the Database Tools tab.
Q3) To create a report in Microsoft Access with data from a single table, we must use the Report Wizard.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the different alternatives provided by Microsoft Access for creating data entry forms.
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Chapter 19: Using Excel and Access Together
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Q1) Which of the following procedures must be used to create a named range for data in Microsoft Excel?
A)highlight the required data click the Formulas tab click Define Name in the Defined Names section enter a suitable name
B)highlight the required data click the Home tab click Insert Name in the Cells section enter a suitable name
C)highlight the required data click the Data tab click Connections in the Connections section enter a suitable name
D)highlight the required data click the Design tab click Property Sheet in the Show/Hide section enter a suitable name
Q2) Microsoft Access queries can be imported into Microsoft Excel. A)True
B)False
Q3) What are delimited text files?
Q4) Explain the significance of using Microsoft Access and Microsoft Excel together.
Q5) The Totals button is present in the Results section of the Design tab.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Network and Cloud Technology
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of digital subscriber lines (DSLs)?
A)They use television lines for data transmission.
B)Their signals do not interfere with voice telephone services.
C)Their operations are independent of voice telephone lines.
D)They do not allow data transmission to occur when telephone conversations occur.
Q2) A ________ is a networking device that detects the speed that a given device on a local area network (LAN)can handle and communicates with it at that speed.
A)bus
B)switch
C)domain
D)hub
Q3) What is the difference between a local area network (LAN)and a wide area network (WAN)? Give an example of how each one could be used in businesses.
Q4) Bluetooth is a protocol that can transmit data over long distances.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is HTTP? How does it work?
Q6) What is a domain name? What is the procedure to get a domain name?
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Chapter 21: Enterprise Resource Planning Erpsystems
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Q1) Oracle's enterprise resource planning (ERP)products are designed according to SOA principles and hence are adaptable and customizable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Microsoft offers its CRM product online as SaaS (software as a service), but it has no full enterprise resource planning (ERP)implementation in the cloud.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Infor Business Cloud is an enterprise resource planning (ERP)solution that can be installed in a bare-bones way and offered as IaaS (infrastructure as a service).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain enterprise resource planning (ERP)application programs.
Q5) Enterprise resource planning (ERP)training includes topics such as obtaining top-level management support.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the primary purpose of an enterprise resource planning (ERP)system?
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Chapter 22: Supply Chain Management
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Q1) At each level of a supply chain, an organization can work with many organizations both up and down the supply chain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a traditional supply chain, distributors order products from ________.
A)retailers
B)manufacturers
C)customers
D)suppliers
Q3) Each organization in a supply chain is an independent company with its own objectives.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Information systems have the capability to eliminate the bullwhip effect.
A)True
B)False
Q5) True demand is the demand from the only party that introduces money into the system.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Enterprise Social Networks and Knowledge Management
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Q1) What are content management systems? Define the challenges of content management.
Q2) Software is the only component present in a content management system. A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ are rule-based systems that encode human knowledge in the form of If/Then rules.
A)Document management systems
B)Expert systems
C)Content management systems
D)Enterprise resource planning systems
Q4) Custom content management applications are expensive to develop and maintain. A)True B)False
Q5) Document contents in content management systems are perishable. A)True B)False
Q6) Documents in content management systems exist in isolation from each other. A)True B)False Page 25
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Chapter 24: Database Marketing
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Q1) A minimum difference among groups is used as the criterion for constructing the decision tree.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The frequency of customer purchases is not a determining factor for RFM scores.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the process of conducting RFM analysis.
Q4) Which of the following RFM scores refers to the most valuable customer?
A)111
B)555
C)123
D)333
Q5) Groups created by decision tree algorithms are as different from each other as possible.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Define the three market-basket terminologies: support, confidence, and lift.
Q7) What is database marketing?
Q8) What are decision trees? How do they classify people into groups?
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Chapter 25: Reporting Systems and Olap
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a measure in an online analytical processing (OLAP)report?
A)sales region
B)average cost
C)customer location
D)customer type
Q2) The ________ in a reporting system indicate the channel to be used for sending a report to a user and whether the report is to be pushed or pulled.
A)metadata
B)microdata
C)network packets
D)data structures
Q3) Describe online analytical processing (OLAP).
Q4) Which of the following types of reports is an example of a push report?
A)static report
B)dynamic report
C)query report
D)online analytical processing (OLAP)report
Q5) Explain report authoring, report management, and report delivery.
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Chapter 26: Data Breaches
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Q1) Jobs Dot Com, an online recruitment site, was hacked into, and personal information of a number of users was stolen.What information should Jobs Dot Com include in its data breach notification to its users?
A)the costs incurred due to the breach
B)a sincere apology and an acceptance of responsibility for the incident
C)details of how the breach occurred and the reasons for the breach
D)a report on the current security measures
Q2) Venclave Hospital is a privately-owned organization that specializes in treating neurological diseases.Which of the following regulatory laws governs the data security measures to be taken by this hospital for protecting against data breach?
A)the Health Maintenance Organization Act of 1973
B)the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
C)the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)
D)the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)
Q3) Explain the basic countermeasures to be taken by organizations to protect themselves against data breaches.
Q4) What are countermeasures? Why is it important for organizations to implement countermeasures?
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Chapter 27: International Mis
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Q1) Which of the following is an issue related to global databases?
A)Data transmission speeds are often too slow to process data from a single geographic location.
B)A single database increases data integrity problems.
C)A single database is ideal for companies that use multiple languages.
D)With a single database, it is not possible to have an integrated view of a customer or an organization's operations.
Q2) The emergence of ________ technologies has made it easier for companies all over the world to obtain the latest in server technology.
A)international cloud
B)big data
C)data mining
D)distributed database
Q3) Information systems procedures, unlike business processes, need not reflect local cultural values and norms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the problems of inherent processes?
Q5) What are the challenges of international information systems (IS)management?
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Chapter 28: Systems Development Project Management
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Q1) What are the biggest challenges for managing a large-scale systems development project?
Q2) The critical path determines the earliest date by considering the shortest path through the network of activities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A function point is a feature or function of a new program.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Requirements creep is the process by which a project manager reduces his or her responsibilities for requirements through miniscule rollbacks.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Taking responsibility for requirements is the single most important task a user can perform for a large-scale development project.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is a critical path? How is a critical path analysis done?
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Chapter 29: Agile Development
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Q1) The systems development life cycle (SDLC)generates values ________.
A)in the beginning
B)after the design phase
C)at frequent intervals
D)at the very end
Q2) The systems development life cycle (SDLC)gained popularity because it was stipulated that it would be used for all software development contracts by the U.S.Department of ________.
A)Defense
B)Education
C)Agriculture
D)Commerce
Q3) According to the systems development life cycle (SDLC), the progress from requirements to implementation is nonlinear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a scrum, who is a product owner?
Q5) Agile development methodologies welcome changes in requirements.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Business Process Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73135
Sample Questions
Q1) When the assessment process indicates that a significant need for change has arisen, the Business Process Management cycle is ________.
A)repeated
B)terminated
C)altered
D)updated
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about designing, creating, and implementing a new business process?
A)Process changes that don't work can be undone easily.
B)Computer simulation of alternative processes is inexpensive.
C)Technology may change during the development process.
D)Resolution of implementation problems is easier for enterprise processes.
Q3) Describe business process management (BPM)in brief.
Q4) If employees are already using an information system (IS), one way of adjusting role resources is to improve the information system so as to facilitate a new process.
A)True
B)False
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