Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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Q1) Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium,Bacillus anthracis?
A)Joseph Lister
B)Ignaz Semmelweis
C)Robert Koch
D)Louis Pasteur
E)Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
Answer: C
Q2) Scientists today utilize microorganisms to break down toxic chemicals in our environment.The decomposition of pollutants by microbes is referred to as
A)genetic engineering.
B)bioremediation.
C)restriction analysis.
D)biogenesis.
Answer: B
Q3) Nucleic acids have primary,secondary,tertiary,and quaternary levels of organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis
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Q1) Culturing of the sputum resulted in the growth of distinct colonies on the medium,and the technician informs you that further isolation by subculturing is now needed.You understand that this is accomplished by taking a bit of growth from an isolated colony and inoculating a separate medium,resulting in the production of a A)diagnosis.
B)pure culture.
C)broth.
D)mixed culture.
Answer: B
Q2) A reducing medium contains A)sugars that can be fermented.
B)extra oxygen.
C)hemoglobin,vitamins,or other growth factors.
D)substances that remove oxygen.
E)inhibiting agents.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be
A)material would not be able to cross the cell membrane.
B)protein synthesis would stop.
C)destruction of the cell's DNA.
D)formation of glycogen inclusions.
E)loss of capsule.
Answer: B
Q2) A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis probably has A)fimbriae.
B)a capsule.
C)thylakoids.
D)flagella.
E)metachromatic granules.
Answer: D
Q3) Pili used for conjugation are only found on gram-negative bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Q1) In the helminth life cycle,adulthood and mating of the worm occur in which type of host?
A)intermediate
B)transport
C)accidental
D)definitive
Q2) Amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery)is most commonly contracted through the A)fecal-oral route from contaminated food or water.
B)direct transmission from one host to another.
C)puncture wounds.
D)insect bites.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) The long,threadlike branching cells of molds are called A)conidiophores.
B)pseudohyphae.
C)hyphae.
D)septate.
E)ascus.
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Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Life Cycles
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Q1) A naked virus only has a(n) A)capsid.
B)capsomere.
C)nucleocapsid.
D)envelope.
E)antigenic surface.
Q2) The activation of a prophage is called A)activation.
B)lysogeny.
C)transformation.
D)induction.
E)adsorption.
Q3) Visible,clear,well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called A)lysogeny.
B)budding. C)plaques.
D)cytopathic effects. E)pocks.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Q1) Organisms called _____ live on or in the body of a host and cause some degree of harm.
A)mesophiles
B)thermophiles
C)commensals
D)parasites
E)halophiles
Q2) The term autotroph refers to an organism that
A)uses CO<sub>2</sub> for its carbon source.
B)must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.
C)gets energy from sunlight.
D)gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.
E)does not need a carbon source.
Q3) Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called
A)facilitated diffusion.
B)diffusion.
C)active transport.
D)osmosis.
E)endocytosis.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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Q1) As the RN,you are familiar with ATP production in bacterial and eukaryotic cells.How many ATP do you expect aerobic respiration to yield in the patient's cells?
A)2 ATP
B)38 ATP
C)36 ATPs
D)ATP yield is unpredictable.
Q2) As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons,they actively pump _____ into the outer membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force.
A)ATP
B)phosphate
C)hydrogen ions
D)oxygen
E)NADH
Q3) ATP is composed of deoxyribose,adenine,and three phosphate groups.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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Q1) DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because
A)nitrogenous bases have a net positive charge.
B)nitrogenous bases have a net negative charge.
C)phosphate groups have a net positive charge.
D)phosphate groups have a net negative charge.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called A)genetic engineering.
B)biotechnology.
C)recombinant DNA.
D)gel electrophoresis.
E)gene probes.
Q3) Split genes
A)are common in bacteria and eukaryotes.
B)only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA.
C)have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region.
D)use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Q1) Prior to placement of the central venous line,the patient's skin is scrubbed with chlorhexidine.Which of the following microorganisms are targeted by this chemical agent?
A)bacteria
B)viruses
C)fungi
D)bacteria,viruses,and fungi
Q2) Which concentration of alcohol is deemed most effective in alcohol-based hand cleaners?
A)25%
B)10%
C)70%
D)95%
Q3) A method for sterilizing milk,called _____ treatment,uses 134<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C for 1 to 2 seconds.
A)pasteurization
B)batch pasteurization
C)flash pasteurization
D)ultra high temperature
E)None of the choices is correct.
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Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Q1) Which two antibiotics affect the DNA and RNA of bacteria?
A)tetracycline and amphotericin B
B)trimethoprim and sulfonamides
C)rifampin and quinolones
D)tetracycline and bacitracin
Q2) Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in the treatment of
A)gram-positive infections.
B)gram-negative infections.
C)fungal infections.
D)protozoan infections.
E)viral infections.
Q3) Which of the following reactions by the patient would demonstrate an allergic response?
A)anaphylaxis
B)rash
C)difficulty breathing
D)Anaphylaxis,rash development,and difficulty breathing could all indicate allergic response in a patient.
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Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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Q1) Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called A)opportunistic pathogens.
B)normal biota.
C)indigenous biota.
D)true pathogens.
E)micropathogens.
Q2) Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called
A)syndromes.
B)malaises.
C)inflammation.
D)asymptomatic.
E)secondary infections.
Q3) Which is mismatched?
A)secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites
B)mixed infection - several agents established at infection site
C)acute infection - rapid onset of severe,short-lived symptoms
D)local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site
E)toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues
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Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Q1) What is the first step in the major events of the inflammation process?
A)formation of pus and edema
B)scar formation and/or resolution
C)vascular reactions
D)injury and mast cells releasing chemical mediators
E)activation of the complement system
Q2) Mary's mother is very concerned about her high fevers.She thinks that the fevers are a sign that Mary is unable to fight this infection.What is a proper response to Mary's mother's concerns?
A)"It's hard to say why she's having these fevers.Doctors call this a fever of unknown origin."
B)"Fevers are actually a healthy response to help fight infections."
C)"These fevers are very dangerous,and you have strong reason for concern."
D)"High fever could be a sign of a tumor of the hypothalamus."
Q3) Genetic differences among species and within a species can convey genetic immunity to certain diseases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) The structural and functional differences that distinguish immunoglobulin isotypes are due to variations associated with their Fc fragments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following except
A)two identical heavy polypeptide chains.
B)two identical light polypeptide chains.
C)disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains.
D)four antigen binding sites.
E)a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.
Q3) Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines
A)contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
B)are always genetically engineered.
C)contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
D)confer passive immunity.
E)utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen.
Q4) Antibody molecules circulate in lymph,blood,and tissue fluids.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following allergic mediators are being currently activated in Mark's system?
A)mast cells
B)leukotrienes
C)serotonin
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a(n)
A)autoimmune disease.
B)immunodeficiency.
C)hypersensitivity.
D)transfusion reaction.
E)desensitization.
Q3) Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor
A)all other Rh<sup>+</sup> fetuses are at risk.
B)she can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
C)she can never again have a low risk pregnancy.
D)only future Rh<sup>-</sup> fetuses are at risk.
E)None of the choices is correct.
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Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Precipitation tests involve all of the following except
A)they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection.
B)they include the VDRL test for syphilis.
C)they are often performed in agar gels.
D)they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution.
E)a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react.
Q2) Specimen collection
A)is always done by a medical professional.
B)must be done under sterile conditions.
C)must utilize aseptic techniques.
D)does not require special handling.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Halley's CRP came back markedly elevated.What finding does this point to?
A)An elevated CRP is a highly sensitive urinary tract infection marker.
B)An elevated CRP points to inflammation from any of a variety of sources.
C)An elevated CRP shows elevated levels of vitamin C in the blood.
D)An elevated CRP points to a bacterial infection and nothing else.
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Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Measles is described as a ______ skin lesion.
A)purpura
B)bulla
C)papule
D)macule
E)maculopapular
Q2) Which of the following is not true of Propionibacterium acnes?
A)anaerobic or aerotolerant
B)gram-negative rod
C)releases lipase
D)attracts white blood cells
E)present in hair follicles
Q3) Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mottled,discolored pigmentation is seen in patients with tinea versicolor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Q1) Pneumovax is a vaccine for prevention of disease caused by strains of Neisseria meningitidis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) No cases of attenuated polio virus reverting to a neurovirulent strain have been documented.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In both botulism and tetanus,respiratory muscles cannot facilitate breathing and,if untreated,respiratory collapse leads to death.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which organism is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii? 4-10-2013
A)cat
B)dog
C)mouse
D)mosquito
E)raccoon
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) Lyme disease involves
A)early symptoms of fever,headache,and stiff neck.
B)crippling polyarthritis,and cardiovascular and neurological problems.
C)people having contact with ticks.
D)treatment with antimicrobials.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Control of rodent populations is important for preventing A)brucellosis.
B)plague.
C)malaria.
D)Q fever.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The presence of viruses in the blood is called A)viremia.
B)fungemia.
C)hemovirus.
D)bacteremia.
E)septicemia.
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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Q1) Staining of the specimen from the throat swab revealed the presence of distinct gram-positive club-shaped bacilli.The laboratory technician immediately contacts the local health department and begins the process of submitting specimens for PCR testing to the CDC.The suspected pathogen is
A) A.influenza
B)Pneumocystis (carinii)jiroveci.
C)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
D)Bacillus anthracis.
Q2) Influenza virus can exhibit constant mutation of viral glycoproteins called ________,or __________ ,a more serious phenomenon caused by the exchange of a viral gene with that of another influenza virus strain.
A)antigenic shift,antigenic drift
B)antigenic drift,antigenic shift
C)None of these is correct.
Q3) People who have received the BCG immunization will generally have a negative tuberculin skin test.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Q1) Hepatitis B virus
A)is principally transmitted by blood.
B)transmission risks include shared needles,anal intercourse,and heterosexual intercourse.
C)is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers.
D)has many chronic carriers.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is mismatched?
A)H antigen - flagellar
B)K antigen - capsule
C)O antigen - cell wall
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) Escherichia coli infections
A)are often transmitted by fecal-contaminated water and food.
B)have been due to undercooked meat.
C)involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea.
D)can be self-limiting with the only treatment being rehydration.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Based on the presentation,what diagnosis would be your main suspicion?
A)urethritis
B)cystitis
C)pyelonephritis
D)general urinary tract infection
Q2) The primary virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is A)endotoxin.
B)exotoxin.
C)kinase.
D)fimbriae.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) During which stage of syphilis does fever,lymphadenopathy,and a red to brown rash occur?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)latent
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 22: One Health: The Interconnected Health of the Environment, humans,
and Other Animals
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Q1) The activated sludge step in wastewater treatment is an example of the A)primary phase of wastewater treatment.
B)secondary phase of wastewater treatment.
C)tertiary phase of wastewater treatment.
Q2) Use of a trickling filter that sprays wastewater over rocks coated with bioflms which aerobically degrade organic matter is an example of A)primary phase of wastewater treatment.
B)secondary phase of wastewater treatment.
C)tertiary phase of wastewater treatment.
Q3) What type of bacteria is water screened for when determining its safety?
A)presence bacteria
B)indicator bacteria
C)confirming bacteria
D)yielding bacteria
Q4) Primary sewage treatment includes
A)sludge digesting.
B)skimming.
C)filtration.
D)chlorination.
E)aeration.
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