Infectious Diseases for Health Professionals
Final Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides health professionals with a comprehensive understanding of infectious diseases, focusing on the epidemiology, pathophysiology, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of common and emerging infections. Students will explore the mechanisms of disease transmission, host-pathogen interactions, outbreak investigation, and the impact of antimicrobial resistance. The curriculum incorporates case studies and current global health challenges, emphasizing clinical decision-making and public health strategies essential for effective management and control of infectious diseases in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 2nd Edition by VanMeter
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25 Chapters
818 Verified Questions
818 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Scope of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aseptic technique
A)Robert Koch
B)Edward Jenner
C)Louis Pasteur
D)John Needham
E)Joseph Lister
F)Antony van Leeuwenhoek
Answer: E
Q2) The cleanup of various industrial wastes by living organisms is referred to as
Answer: bioremediation
Q3) The taxonomic resource for information on bacteria is __________.
Answer: Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
Q4) The binominal system of nomenclature was originally developed by
A)Pasteur.
B)Linnaeus.
C)Martini.
D)Jenner. Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The RNA nucleotide base that pairs with adenine of DNA is
A)cytosine.
B)guanine.
C)thymine.
D)uracil.
Answer: D
Q2) Particle with no charge
A)Redox
B)Electron
C)Neutron
D)Acid
E)Base
F)Salt
G)Glucose
H)Protein
I)Polysaccharide
J)Nucleic acid
K)Lipid
L)Tritium
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA replication occurs in which phase of the cell cycle?
A)G phase
B)Prophase
C)Metaphase
D)S phase
Answer: D
Q2) In which phase of mitosis do the chromatids separate?
A)Prophase
B)Metaphase
C)Anaphase
D)Telophase
Answer: C
Q3) Chitin is a component of the cell wall of A)algae.
B)bacteria.
C)fungi.
D)viruses.
Answer: C
Q4) The organelle necessary for photosynthesis is a(n)__________.
Answer: chloroplast
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treponema pallidum and Borrelia burgdorferi belong to the group of
A)gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci.
B)anaerobic gram-negative rods.
C)anaerobic gram-negative cocci.
D)spirochetes.
Q2) Which of the following organisms is a common cause of peptic ulcers?
A)Treponema pallidum
B)Vibrio cholerae
C)Helicobacter pylori
D)Escherichia coli
Q3) Microorganisms that show optimal growth in moderate temperatures (between 25° C and 40° C)are called
A)thermophiles.
B)psychrophiles.
C)mesophiles.
D)psychrotrophs.
Q4) Microorganisms that grow only in the presence of oxygen are called __________.
Q5) Rhizobium is an organism typically used in the field of __________.
Q6) The time bacteria need to adapt to a medium before cell division starts is called the __________ phase of a bacterial growth curve.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct hierarchical order for virus classification is
A)order, genus, family, subfamily, species.
B)species, genus, family, subfamily, order.
C)order, family, subfamily, genus, species.
D)genus, order, family, subfamily, species.
Q2) Human papillomavirus
A)Polyarthritis
B)Plantar warts
C)Chickenpox
D)Common cold
E)Infectious mononucleosis
F)Gastroenteritis
G)Hemorrhagic fever
Q3) Which of the following consists of DNA viruses?
A)Parvoviridae
B)Picornaviridae
C)Astroviridae
D)Togaviridae
Q4) Kaposi's sarcoma is caused by human herpesvirus number __________.
Q5) A fully assembled virus is called a __________.
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Chapter 6: Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fungal saclike structure that contains sporangiospores is called a(n)__________.
Q2) A collective mass of threadlike hyphae
A)Mycelium
B)Algae
C)Sporangia
D)Fungi
E)Dimorphic fungi
F)Coenocytic
G)Blastospore
Q3) The protozoan that lacks a cyst stage and therefore must be transferred quickly from host to host is
A)Giardia lamblia.
B)Trichomonas vaginalis.
C)Balantidium coli.
D)Entamoeba histolytica.
Q4) The unique cell organelle found in the Archaezoa and that appears to be a remnant of mitochondria is called a(n)__________.
Q5) Slime molds have both fungal and __________ characteristics.
Q6) The vegetative structure of algae is referred to as a __________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Physical and Chemical Methods of Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lowest temperature by which all microorganisms in a particular liquid will be killed within 10 minutes is the __________.
Q2) The autoclave uses pressurized steam at approximately __________° C and __________ psi.
Q3) The bioassay method for testing the effectiveness of disinfectants and antiseptics on microorganisms is the ______________________.
Q4) Alkylating agent
A)Iodine
B)Triclosan
C)Aldehydes
D)Quaternary compounds
E)Damage to DNA
F)Mercury
G)Osmotic pressure
H)Penicillin
Q5) High salt or sugar content/concentrations make use of ____________ to destroy or inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
Q6) Bacteria that thrive in extremely dry conditions are classified as
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Chapter 8: Microbiological Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following stains is the most widely used differential stain in hematology laboratories?
A)Carbolfuchsin stain
B)Ziehl-Neelson stain
C)Kinyoun stain
D)Wright's stain
Q2) A common laboratory medium is nutrient broth,which contains beef extract and __________.
Q3) A saucer-shaped liquefaction of gelatin stabs is said to have a __________ appearance.
Q4) Which of the following stains is generally used for the diagnosis of tuberculosis?
A)Acid-fast stain
B)Gram stain
C)Negative stain
D)Simple stain
Q5) Bacteria that appear red after gram staining are said to be gram-__________.
Q6) A culture that contains a single species of an organism is a __________ culture.
Q7) A disinfectant is designed to be used only on __________ surfaces.
Q8) Substances that kill bacteria are referred to as __________.
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Chapter 9: Microbiological Laboratory Safety Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A unique number that aids in finding additional toxicological information about a specific substance is the
A)CAS number.
B)atomic number.
C)DOT ID number.
D)RTECS number.
Q2) OSHA is a division of the
A)National Institutes of Health.
B)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
C)U.S.Department of Labor.
D)World Health Organization.
Q3) Ergonomic guidelines for nursing homes are issued by __________.
Q4) Control of access to BSL-3 laboratories is the responsibility of the __________.
Q5) Bypass fume hoods belong to the group of
A)general-purpose hoods.
B)radioisotope hoods.
C)perchloric acid hoods.
D)biosafety cabinets.
Q6) The type of fire extinguisher used on fires from flammable liquids such as gasoline would be a type __________ extinguisher.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Schedule II controlled substance
A)Morphine
B)Administered into the subarachnoid space
C)Diazepam
D)Administered into muscles
E)Aspirin
F)Administered sublingually
G)L-Dopa
H)LSD
Q2) The decrease in blood clotting by heparin occurs at which general site of action?
A)Cellular
B)Extracellular
C)Neuromuscular
D)Intracellular
Q3) The most rapid rate of drug absorption is achieved by __________ administration.
A)on the skin
B)intravenous
C)intramuscular
D)sublingual
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When two antibiotics are given together to increase the therapeutic effect,the phenomenon is referred to as A)antagonism.
B)mutualism.
C)synergism.
D)parasitism.
Q2) Which of the following is a synthetic antimicrobial drug?
A)Penicillin G
B)Penicillin V
C)Cephalosporin
D)Quinolone
Q3) Prontosil,a dye,was first used as an antibiotic by A)Pasteur.
B)Domagk.
C)Bovet.
D)Fleming.
Q4) The zone of inhibition is the result of the __________ method.
Q5) Resistance to only one type of drug may allow resistance to a similar drug; this process is called __________.
Q6) Another term for the effectiveness of a drug is __________.
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Chapter 12: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mold that produces penicillin is an example of A)parasitism.
B)mutualism.
C)commensalism.
D)amensalism.
Q2) An organism that does not normally cause disease in a healthy individual but that can cause disease when there is an imbalance in the normal flora or when the host becomes immunocompromised is called a(n)__________ pathogen.
Q3) The degree or extent of disease-evoking power that a microorganism has is referred to as
A)virulence.
B)strength.
C)resistance. D)competence.
Q4) Which of the following is not considered to be a vehicle transmission?
A)Airborne
B)Insect
C)Foodborne
D)Bodily fluid
Q5) The study of the cause of disease is called __________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Immune Response and Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Found in tears,saliva
A)Basophil
B)IgM
C)IgE
D)Monocyte
E)IgD
F)T cell
G)IgA
H)IgG
Q2) Which of the following provide defense against viral infections?
A)Histamines
B)Antibiotics
C)Prostaglandins
D)Interferons
Q3) T cells (T lymphocytes)are divided into four categories
A)Killer T cells, activating T cells, helper T cells
B)Killer T cells, helper T cells, suppressor T cells, memory T cells
C)Helper T cells, basophilic T cells, suppressor T cells
D)Suppressor T cells, cytotoxic T cells, secondary T cells, primary T cells
Q4) B cells are responsible for __________-mediated immunity.
15
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Tissue, and Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organism often called "flesh-eating bacteria" is
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis
C)Streptococcus pyogenes
D)Propionibacterium acnes
Q2) Acne is caused by A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis
C)Streptococcus pyogenes
D)Propionibacterium acnes
Q3) Subcutaneous mycoses occur predominantly in the A)tropics.
B)deserts.
C)forests of the Northern Hemisphere.
D)Rocky Mountains.
Q4) Diaper rash in infants is commonly caused by A)Sporothrix schenckii.
B)Actinomyces.
C)Candida albicans.
D)Malassezia furfur.
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Chapter 15: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bacterium Mycoplasma pneumonia is unique in that it lacks a(an)____________________.
Q2) The three forms of anthrax caused by Bacillus anthracis are __________,__________,and __________.
Q3) __________ is a gram-negative coccobacillus and a common cause of bronchiolitis in children,bronchitis in adults,and occasionally meningitis.
Q4) Legionellosis affects mainly the __________.
Q5) Hantaviruses,which can cause disease in humans,are carried by __________.
Q6) Pontiac fever
A)Streptococcus pyogenes
B)Coxiella burnetii
C)Klebsiella oxytoca
D)Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E)Streptococcus faecalis
F)Legionella pneumophila
G)Bordetella pertussis
Q7) The TB skin test is also known as the _______________ test.
Q8) SARS stands for __________.
Q9) Rheumatic fever is a rare complication of __________.
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Chapter 16: Infections of the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ are the most common causes of infectious diarrhea in infants and children worldwide.
Q2) Bacillary dysentery is also called A)salmonellosis.
B)shigellosis.
C)typhoid fever.
D)campylobacteriosis.
Q3) There are __________ known forms of gastroenteritis caused by Escherichia coli. A)two B)three C)four D)five
Q4) Trichinosis is an infection caused by ingestion of a A)nematode.
B)virus.
C)bacteria. D)fungus.
Q5) A periodontal disease that is restricted to the gums is an inflammation called __________.
Q6) "Thrush" is caused by the organism __________.
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Chapter 17: Infections of the Nervous System and Sensory
Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) An inflammation of the brain is called A)meningitis.
B)meningoencephalitis. C)encephalitis. D)bacteremia.
Q2) The first oral polio vaccine was introduced by Albert Sabin in A)1934.
B)1952. C)1959. D)1961.
Q3) Toxoplasmosis is caused by the organism Toxoplasma gondii,which is a A)bacterium.
B)protozoan. C)virus. D)fungus.
Q4) Meningococcal meningitis is caused by A)Neisseria meningitidis. B)Haemophilus influenzae.
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis. D)Listeria monocytogenes.
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Chapter 18: Infections of the Cardiovascular and Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a disease caused by a protozoan?
A)Cat scratch disease
B)Toxoplasmosis
C)Relapsing fever
D)Plague
Q2) All of the following are considered to be zoonotic diseases except A)brucellosis.
B)undulant fever.
C)plague.
D)salmonellosis.
Q3) Malaria is caused by a A)virus.
B)bacterium.
C)helminth.
D)protozoan.
Q4) When bacteria are found in the blood,the condition is referred to as __________.
Q5) Fungal infections capable of infecting all organs/body systems are referred to as _____________________ mycoses.
Q7) Leishmaniasis is transmitted by the bite of the __________. Page 20
Q6) Malaria is caused by a protozoan of the genus __________.
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Infections of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of bacteria in the urine is called A)toxemia.
B)bacteriuria.
C)mycoses.
D)urethritis.
Q2) Diagnosis of a UTI is a two-stage process that involves
A)collecting a blood sample and conducting a physical examination of the bladder.
B)exploratory surgery and radiation therapy.
C)collecting a urine sample and testing for antibiotic susceptibility of the organism.
D)modifying the diet of the patient and conducting a physical examination of the urethra.
Q3) __________ and __________ are genera of organisms that are usually associated with UTIs related to sexual activity.
Q4) The organism that is primarily responsible for causing cystitis is
Q5) The __________ are the central organs of the urinary system and are responsible for filtering wastes from the blood.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vaginal yeast infection
A)Candida albicans
B)Borrelia vincentii
C)Streptococcus agalactiae
D)Flagellated protozoan
E)Bacillus subtilis
F)Streptococcus pyogenes
G)Gardnerella vaginalis
1. 30% of vaginitis cases
Q2) The organism that is responsible for the vast majority of cases of fungal vaginitis is
A)Escherichia coli.
B)Streptococcus agalactiae.
C)Klebsiella oxytoca.
D)Candida albicans.
Q3) Factors that can increase the chances of vaginitis are
A)urinary blockage, drug use, and stress.
B)use of antibiotics, pregnancy, and menopause.
C)puberty, exposure to HPV, and smoking/tobacco use.
D)menopause, stress, and steroid use.
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Page 23
Chapter 21: Sexually Transmitted Infectionsdiseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Typically the first step in testing for the presence of HIV antibodies in a blood sample is the __________.
Q2) _______________________ is the most reported STI in the United States.
Q3) Trichomonas vaginalis
A)Protozoan
B)Tinea-related species
C)Treponema pallidum
D)Klebsiella species
E)Candida albicans
F)AIDS
G)Haemophilus ducreyi
Q4) Syphilis is caused by the microorganism __________ and the disease occurs in __________ stages.
Q5) NGU is the abbreviation for __________.
Q6) Which of the following organisms is the causative agent for gonorrhea?
A)Treponema
B)Neisseria
C)Mycoplasma
D)Ureaplasma
Q7) Granuloma inguinale is also called __________.
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Chapter 22: Human Age and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human herpesvirus 5
A)Congenital toxoplasmosis
B)Micrococcus
C)Cytomegalovirus
D)Staphylococcus aureus
E)Neisseria
F)Congenital rubella
G)Streptococcus
Q2) Saddle nose is characteristic of which of the following congenital infections?
A)Syphilis
B)CMV
C)Rubella
D)Toxoplasmosis
Q3) Chlamydia commonly occurring in young adults is a _________ disease.
Q4) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by __________.
Q5) The neonatal infection referred to as "sticky eye" is caused by
A)Streptococcus.
B)herpes simplex.
C)Staphylococcus.
D)Escherichia.
25
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Chapter 23: Microorganisms in the Environment and Effects on
Human Health
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Q1) Which of the following is the sixth most abundant element in the universe?
A)Nitrogen
B)Oxygen
C)Carbon
D)Hydrogen
Q2) Which of the following diseases was declared by the WHO in 1980 to be eradicated?
A)Mumps
B)Pertussis
C)Smallpox
D)Botulism
Q3) Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHFs)are caused by four families of __________ viruses.
Q4) Specific small niches in which populations and guilds within a community reside are referred to as
A)habitats.
B)biospheres.
C)ecosystems.
D)microhabitats.
Q5) Cholera is considered a Category __________ disease.
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Chapter 24: Emerging Infectious Diseases
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Q1) The Hendra virus is transmitted by __________.
Q2) Which of the following infectious diseases is considered to be a reemerging disease?
A)AIDS
B)Ebola
C)West Nile virus
D)Tuberculosis
Q3) Anthrax would be considered a group __________ emerging/reemerging disease.
Q4) CDC
A)Program to reinforce the identification and response to emerging diseases around the world
B)Primary responsibility is to protect people in the United States from infectious diseases
C)Regulations to address a global approach to prevent, detect, and respond to any public health threat of international concern
D)Classifies infectious diseases into three categories
E)Provides instructions for destroying bioterrorism weapons
F)Assigns hospitals as primary response sites in cases of pandemic
Q5) Acanthamebiasis is a group __________ emerging/reemerging infectious disease.
Q6) "Fifth disease" is caused by __________.
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Chapter 25: Biotechnology
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Q1) Genetically modified crops are also referred to as __________ plants.
Q2) The term "biotechnology" was created in 1919 by
A)Robert Koch.
B)Karl Ereky.
C)Robert Bud.
D)Louis Pasteur.
Q3) The enzyme used to synthesize complementary DNA from an mRNA template is __________.
Q4) The process of copying a plate to identify a specific colony is called __________.
Q5) Recombinant DNA technology is also referred to as __________.
Q6) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of phage therapy?
A)Specificity of phages to target bacteria
B)Specificity of phages to target viruses
C)Replication of phages at the site of infection
D)No or little side effects
Q7) Enzymes that cut DNA straight across both of the double helix strands produce __________ ends.
Q8) Enzymes that can cleave DNA at a particular site are __________.
Q9) A sense strand is a __________ to __________ mRNA or DNA molecule.
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