Infectious Diseases
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive overview of infectious diseases, exploring the biology, transmission, and epidemiology of major pathogens affecting humans. Students will examine the mechanisms by which bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites cause disease, and learn about the immune response, diagnostic techniques, and modern methods of prevention and control. The course also covers the impact of emerging infectious diseases, antimicrobial resistance, and the role of public health in managing outbreaks, equipping students with the foundational knowledge necessary to understand current challenges in global health.
Recommended Textbook
Nesters Microbiology A Human Perspective 8th Edition by Denise G. Anderson
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1645 Verified Questions
1645 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Humans and the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scientist usually considered the first to see microorganisms,which he called "animalcules",was
A)Redi.
B)van Leeuwenhoek.
C)Pasteur.
D)Tyndall.
Answer: B
Q2) Archaea are very similar to bacteria and have rigid cell walls made of peptidoglycan.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The word "animalcule" was coined by A)Pasteur.
B)van Leeuwenhoek.
C)Redi.
D)Tyndall.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of bonding holds one strand of DNA to the complementary strand of DNA?
A)Covalent
B)Hydrogen
C)Disulfide
D)Ionic
Answer: B
Q2) Atoms that gain electrons are now
A)positively charged.
B)negatively charged.
C)neutral.
D)lighter.
Answer: B
Q3) Weak bonds are important for the ______________ structure of proteins.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quarternary
E)secondary,tertiary,AND quarternary
Answer: E
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Microscopy and Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structures used for motility in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes are A)cilia.
B)flagella.
C)pili.
D)fimbriae.
Answer: B
Q2) Most solutes pass through the cytoplasmic membrane via A)osmosis.
B)diffusion.
C)transport proteins.
D)secretion.
Answer: C
Q3) Which may result in Gram-positive bacteria appearing to be Gram-negative?
A)Decolorizing too long
B)Decolorizing too short
C)Using old cultures
D)Using young cultures
E)Decolorizing too long AND using old cultures
Answer: E
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Dynamics of Prokaryotic Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which phase of the bacterial growth curve does a bacterial population become much more resistant to harmful conditions?
A)Lag phase
B)Exponential phase
C)Stationary phase
D)Late log phase
Q2) In nature,bacteria
A)often grow in close association with many other kinds of organisms.
B)may remain in a prolonged exponential phase.
C)frequently synthesize structures such as slime layers.
D)may adhere to surfaces by means of pili and slime layers.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) A medium that inhibits the growth of organisms other than the one being sought is termed a(n)
A)synthetic medium.
B)specific culture medium.
C)selective medium.
D)enrichment medium.
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6
Chapter 5: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compounds of tin,mercury,arsenic,and copper are no longer used to prevent microbial growth in cooling water primarily because A)antibiotics are cheaper.
B)other chemicals were shown to be much more effective.
C)microbes developed resistance to these metals.
D)their use contributes to serious pollution of natural waters.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Plain soap is very effective in controlling spread of microorganisms because it is A)bacteriostatic.
B)very effective at the mechanical removal of microorganisms.
C)virucidal.
D)bactericidal.
Q3) A sterile item is free of A)microbes.
B)endospores.
C)viruses. D)prions.
E)microbes,endospores,AND viruses.
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7
Chapter 6: Metabolism: Fueling Cell Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transition step
A)links glycolysis to the pentose phosphate pathway.
B)links the pentose phosphate pathway to the Entner-Duodoroff pathway.
C)links glycolysis to the TCA cycle.
D)takes place in the matrix of the nucleus.
Q2) Competitive inhibition usually involves both substrate and inhibitor competing for binding at the allosteric site.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the phototrophic production of energy,the oxygen originates from A)carbon dioxide. B)water.
C)glucose.
D)hydrogen peroxide.
Q4) Enzymes act as A)substrates. B)catalysts.
C)products. D)catabolites.
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Chapter 7: The Blueprint of Life, From DNA to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The placement of the amino acid during translation is determined by the A)DNase,which transcribes both molecules.
B)complementarity of the codon-anticodon.
C)sequence of nucleotides at the 5' end of the tRNA.
D)secondary structure of the newly forming protein.
Q2) Repressors
A)are involved in negative control.
B)are involved in positive control.
C)always bind to the promoter.
D)bind or do not bind to the operator depending on their shape (conformation).
E)are involved in negative control AND bind or do not bind to the operator depending on their shape (conformation).
Q3) Which is true about prokaryotic (bacterial)RNA polymerase?
A)It is used during transcription.
B)It does not require a primer.
C)It has a detachable subunit,sigma factor,which recognizes the promoter.
D)It reads the template in the 3'-5' direction.
E)All of the choices are true.
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9
Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indirect selection
A)is necessary to isolate auxotrophic mutants.
B)uses media on which the mutant but not the parental cell type will grow.
C)uses media that reverses the mutation.
D)uses media upon which neither the parental cell typeor mutant grows.
E)is necessary to isolate auxotrophic mutants AND uses media upon which neither the parental cell typeor mutant grows.
Q2) DNA repair mechanisms occur
A)only in prokaryotes.
B)only in eukaryotes.
C)in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
D)in neither eukaryotes or prokaryotes.
Q3) Crown gall is caused by a prokaryote plasmid that can be expressed in plant cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Ames test determines antibiotic sensitivity of a bacterium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Recombinant DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digestion of DNA by restriction enzymes
A)produces sticky ends.
B)produces blunt ends.
C)cuts both strands of the DNA molecule.
D)generates restriction fragments.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Starting with a single piece of dsDNA,after 3 PCR cycles there are
A)2 additional pieces of dsDNA.
B)4 additional pieces of dsDNA.
C)8 additional pieces of dsDNA.
D)16 additional pieces of dsDNA.
Q3) The molecules used as molecular scissors in genetic engineering are A)exonucleases.
B)proteases.
C)restriction enzymes.
D)RNA polymerases.
Q4) Agarose gel electrophoresis may be considered as a partial purification technique.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Identification and Classification of Prokaryotic Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) If each of two bacteria have a %GC of 50%,this means that they are both definitely closely related.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Disagreements between conclusions obtained from rDNA data and other techniques may be explained by
A)horizontal DNA transfer.
B)vertical DNA transfer.
C)the difference in translation machinery.
D)vertical RNA transfer.
Q3) Phenotypically identical bacteria
A)look the same.
B)are genetically exactly the same.
C)may be told apart by DNA sequence analysis.
D)may not be told apart by any means.
E)look the same AND may be told apart by DNA sequence analysis.
Q4) All known species of bacteria are described in Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 11: The Diversity of Prokaryotic Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of Hansen's disease (leprosy)?
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B)Mycobacterium avium
C)Mycobacterium leprae
D)Mycobacterium smegmatis
Q2) Approximately 99% of the microbes in the intestines are obligate anaerobes.We have plenty of blood vessels that can bring oxygen to the tissues of the intestines.Why would there be obligate anaerobes within these areas?
A)The bacteria in the intestines are protected from exposure to the oxygen in the tissues by the lining of the intestines.
B)The bacteria consume all the oxygen in the tissue areas brought by the blood vessels,creating an anaerobic environment.
C)The inside space of the intestines,where bacteria reside,is highly anaerobic.It is deep inside the body where oxygen cannot reach AND,unlike the surrounding tissues,it is not supplied with blood.
D)The aerobic microbes are outcompeted for nutrients in these areas by the anaerobic microbes.
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Chapter 12: The Eukaryotic Members of the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungi that are important for fermentation of fruits
A)are yeasts.
B)are facultative anaerobes.
C)grow well at acid pH.
D)secrete enzymes that degrade organic molecules.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The group of Fungi in which sexual reproduction has not been observed is A)Ascomycetes.
B)Deuteromycetes.
C)Zygomycetes.
D)Basidiomycetes.
Q3) The terms yeast,mold,and mushrooms refers to fungal
A)reproduction.
B)morphology.
C)nutrition.
D)parasites.
Q4) Most of the medically important multicellular parasites are arthropods or helminths.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The restriction-modification system always has two genes involved,the cutting enzyme and the methylating enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The family to which the Rhinovirus belongs is the
A)Picornaviridae.
B)Enterovirus.
C)Enteroviridae.
D)Picornavirus.
Q3) Cells infected with animal viruses lyse because
A)the release of the virions depletes the cell of energy.
B)the virus releases enzymes that lyse the cell.
C)functions necessary for cell survival are not carried out and the cell dies.
D)the virus RNA and cellular protein interact to kill the cell.
Q4) Outside of living cells,viruses are
A)scavenging glucose.
B)slowly stockpiling ATP from the mitochondria.
C)using cilia to move to the next host.
D)metabolically inert.
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Chapter 14: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that work generically against any foreign substance entering the host are described as
A)innate immunity.
B)specific immunity.
C)irregular immunity.
D)immune metabolism.
Q2) Which is not involved in adaptive immunity?
A)antibody
B)T cell
C)B cell
D)tear flow
Q3) The first host response to a nonspecific tissue injury is described as A)inflammation. B)reaction.
C)antibodies.
D)trauma.
Q4) Mast cells are only found in the blood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibody and antigen are held to one another by covalent bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Memory cells may take the form of A)B cells.
B)T cytotoxic cells.
C)T helper cells.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) T-independent antigens
A)include polysaccharides.
B)require the involvement of T cells.
C)interact with MHCI molecules.
D)are usually proteins.
E)include polysaccharides AND are usually proteins.
Q4) The only class of antibody that can cross the placenta is
A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgG.
D)IgE.
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Chapter 16: Host-Microbe Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chemical nature of exotoxins is that of a A)protein.
B)carbohydrate.
C)lipid.
D)lipopolysaccharide.
Q2) High concentrations of some bacteria are necessary for successful invasion because only at high density are their virulence genes expressed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A more modern equivalent to Koch's Postulates is termed
A)Pasteur's Systematics.
B)Hoch's Postulates.
C)Atomic Theory.
D)Protein Theory.
E)Molecular Postulates.
Q4) A human fetus has no resident microbial population.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Immunologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The initial work on anaphylaxis was done by A)Watson and Crick.
B)Pasteur.
C)Fleming.
D)Richet and Portier.
Q2) A secondary immunodeficiency disease is not the result of A)genetic defects.
B)malignancies.
C)advanced age.
D)malnutrition.
Q3) Which of the following primary immunodeficiencies is the most common?
A)Severe combined immunodeficiency
B)Selective IgA deficiency
C)Agammaglobulinemia
D)Di George's syndrome
Q4) Delayed type hypersensitivity primarily involves A)erythrocytes.
B)B cells.
C)T cells.
D)mast cells.
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Chapter 18: Applications of Immune Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scientist who made variolation safer and more effective was
A)Pasteur.
B)Jenner.
C)Metchnikoff.
D)Fleming.
Q2) Anti-human-gamma-globulin antiserum is often used in
A)direct fluorescent antibody tests.
B)indirect ELISA.
C)Western blot.
D)indirect fluorescent antibody tests.
E)indirect ELISA,Western blot AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests.
Q3) Anti-human-gamma-globulin antiserum is often used in
A)direct fluorescent antibody tests.
B)complement fixation test.
C)radioimmunoassay.
D)indirect fluorescent antibody tests.
E)indirect ELISA,Western blot,AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests.
Q4) Inactivated vaccines typically require booster shots.
A)True
B)False
20
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Chapter 19: Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contributes to nosocomial disease?
A)Susceptible population
B)Hospital environment
C)Other patients
D)Patient's own normal microbiota
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) A gradual rise in numbers during an epidemic indicates a common source epidemic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) WHO has targeted for elimination of A)polio.
B)dracunculiasis.
C)measles.
D)plague.
E)polio,dracunculiasis,AND measles.
Q4) Gonorrhea is a disease that may be A)zoonotic.
B)pandemic.
C)syndemic.
D)asymptomatic.
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The zone size obtained in the Kirby-Bauer test is influenced by the drug's A)size.
B)stability.
C)concentration.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Certain antimicrobials may be life-threatening.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Spontaneous development of resistance to a particular antimicrobial is difficult if the drug
A)binds to several sites on the target molecule.
B)targets several different molecules.
C)affects only one molecule.
D)affects the plasma membrane.
E)binds to several sites on the target molecule AND targets several different molecules.
Q4) Viruses are very effectively treated with antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Respiratory System Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diphtheria toxin works on A)lysosomes.
B)mitochondria.
C)chloroplasts.
D)elongation factor 2.
Q2) Influenza is caused by A)orthomyxovirus.
B)H.influenza.
C)cytomegalovirus.
D)adenovirus.
Q3) Otitis media and sinusitis are usually preceded by a(n) A)middle ear infection.
B)pseudomonal infection.
C)oropharyngeal infection.
D)nasopharyngeal infection.
Q4) The sudden,violent,uncontrollable cough of pertussis is described as A)productive.
B)contagious.
C)infective.
D)paroxysmal.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Skin Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Complications of measles may include pneumonia and encephalitis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Diseases caused by fungi are called mycoses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most important vector of Lyme disease in the eastern United States is
A)Dermacentor virabilis.
B)Dermacentor andersoni.
C)Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Ixodes scapularis.
Q4) The growth stage of the vector that is mainly responsible for transmitting Lyme disease is the A)nymph stage.
B)egg.
C)moulter.
D)adult.
Q5) Coagulase-positive S.aureus is often involved in disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Wound Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The disease most feared to develop after an animal bite is A)tetanus.
B)rabies.
C)gas gangrene.
D)actinomycosis.
Q2) Individuals who have recovered from tetanus are not immune to the disease and must be immunized.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most common cause of chronic lymph node enlargement at a localized body site in young children is
A)rat bite fever.
B)dead bat fever.
C)cat scratch fever.
D)mouse itch fever.
Q4) Which of the following has not been associated with human bites?
A)Syphilis
B)Tuberculosis
C)Hepatitis B
D)Tetanus
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Chapter 24: Digestive System Infections
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Q1) Most North American outbreaks of Cyclospora cayetanensis have been associated with A)cattle. B)iguanas.
C)imported leafy vegetables and berries. D)chickens.
Q2) Virulent strains of Shigella typically carry an R plasmid. A)True B)False
Q3) The diarrhea of cholera has been described as A)a viscous fluid. B)small in volume.
C)somewhat watery. D)a rice water stool.
Q4) The most commonly identified waterborne illness in the United States is A)amoebiasis. B)cryptosporidiosis.
C)balantidiasis. D)giardiasis.
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Chapter 25: Genitourinary Tract Infections
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Q1) Septicemia is only caused by Gram-negative bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bacteria which cause subacute bacterial endocarditis may gain access to the bloodstream by A)trauma.
B)dental procedures.
C)brushing teeth.
D)ingestion.
E)trauma,dental procedures AND brushing teeth.
Q3) The media used to successfully grow Francisella tularensis must contain cysteine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is/are able to survive phagocytosis?
A)Brucella sp.
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Francisella tularensis
D)Brucella sp AND Francisella tularensis
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