Infectious Diseases
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive overview of infectious diseases, exploring the biology, transmission, prevention, and treatment of pathogens including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Students will examine the mechanisms by which infectious agents cause disease, patterns of outbreaks and epidemiology, and how human behavior and environmental factors influence the spread of infections. The course also covers emerging infectious diseases, antimicrobial resistance, vaccination strategies, and global health responses, equipping students with knowledge essential for understanding threats to public health and approaches to disease control.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey and Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 12th Edition by Betty A. Forbes
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Q1) Taxonomy can be described as
A)a consistent means to classify, name, and identify organisms.
B)the common language in science that minimizes confusion about names.
C)the naming system that allows scientific attention to center on more important issues and phenomena.
D)playing a central role in providing accurate and timely diagnosis of infectious diseases.
E)All of the above are true.
Answer: E
Q2) The most basic taxonomic group that can be defined as a collection of bacterial strains that share many common physiologic and genetic features is A)genus.
B)species.
C)class.
D)kingdom.
E)order. Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics Metabolism and Structure
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Q1) A DNA sequence that encodes for a specific product (RNA or protein) is defined as a A)gene.
B)genome.
C)nucleotide.
D)deoxyribonucleic acid.
Answer: A
Q2) The pathway of metabolism that involves a series of electron transfers from reduced carrier molecules such as NADH and NADPH to a terminal electron acceptor is A)substrate level phosphorylation.
B)fermentative metabolism.
C)oxidative phosphorylation.
D)aerobic respiration.
E)anaerobic respiration.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) The persistent survival of microorganisms on a surface of the human body is called A)infection.
B)colonization.
C)nosocomial infection.
D)a reservoir.
Answer: B
Q2) The antibody that is associated with various parasitic infections is A)IgG.
B)IgA.
C)IgM.
D)IgE.
Answer: D
Q3) Infectious processes that develop and progress slowly are known as A)chronic infections.
B)latent infections.
C)acute infections.
D)nosocomial infections.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) A cleaning solution used on the venipuncture site to avoid skin contamination of the blood sample is called a/an
A)surfactant.
B)disinfectant.
C)biocide.
D)antiseptic.
Q2) Information concerning a chemical product's health hazards, flash point, vapor pressure, and disposal procedures
A)can be found in the manufacturer's MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheets).
B)can be found on the product label.
C)is proprietary information and is only released at the manufacturer's discretion.
D)can be obtained through the manufacturer's technical support division, and acquiring access to that information is the responsibility of the laboratory worker.
Q3) The autoclave sterilizes material by
A)applying dry heat at high temperatures and pressure.
B)infusing gaseous chemicals that kill organisms.
C)applying moist heat at high temperatures and increased pressure.
D)cleaving protein bonds found in most biological agent cell walls.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Five percent to 10% hydrogen (H ), 5% to 10% CO , 80% to 90% nitrogen (N ), and 0% O is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
Q2) A principal role of the clinical microbiologist includes
A)communicating information about the patient quickly and accurately in both verbal and written formats.
B)assisting in providing accurate infectious disease diagnosis.
C)devising and updating laboratory testing and protocols to provide optimum disease management.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Reduced O (5% to 10%) and increased CO (8% to 10%) is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) The first step in the Gram stain is the application of the primary stain
A)safranin.
B)crystal violet.
C)Gram's iodine.
D)Gram's decolorizer.
Q2) In microscopy, resolution can be defined as
A)the magnification power.
B)the extent to which detail in the magnified object is maintained.
C)the ability of objects to stand out from the background.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true concerning dark-field microscopy?
A)This type of microscopy is used in some laboratories to detect spirochetes.
B)The condenser does not allow light to pass directly through the specimen but directs the light to hit the specimen at an oblique angle.
C)This technique involves the alteration of microscopic technique rather than the use of dyes or stains to achieve contrast.
D)All of the above are correct.
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8
Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) Which type of media is designed to distinguish microorganisms on the basis of certain growth characteristics?
A)Selective
B)Nutritive
C)Differential
D)Definitive
Q2) Which medium can be described as containing hemoglobin, hemin ("X" factor), and the coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD or "V" factor)?
A)Chocolate
B)CNA (colistin, nalidixic acid) blood
C)BHI (brain heart infusion)
D)Thioglycollate
Q3) Which category of media can be described as containing nutrients that support growth of most nonfastidious organisms without giving any particular organism a growth advantage?
A)Enrichment
B)Supportive
C)Selective
D)Differential
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) Hybridization methods are based on
A)the ability of two nucleic acid strands that have complementary base sequences to specifically bond with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.
B)detecting phenotypic traits not detectable by conventional strategies.
C)the principles of complementary nucleic acid hybridization with those of nucleic acid replication that are applied repeatedly through numerous cycles.
D)determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an organism.
Q2) Advantages of the amplification methods are
A)ability to detect nonviable organisms.
B)ability to detect organisms that are difficult to cultivate.
C)ability to detect more quickly those organisms that grow slowly.
D)ability to quantitate infectious agent burden directly in specimens.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
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Q1) Monoclonal antibodies are those that A)react with many different types of antigens.
B)react with many species of bacteria within the same genus. C)react with many different antigens of one specific organism. D)can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
Q2) The major advantage of immunofluorescent microscopy assays is that A)extensive training is not necessary.
B)it serves as an excellent way to preserve the reaction for referral and archiving. C)they allow visual assessment of the adequacy of a specimen.
D)fluorescent microscopes are easily accessible to most laboratories.
Q3) The precipitin test that involves antigen and antibody diffusing toward each other, producing a visible precipitin band at the point at which they meet is referred to as A)double immunodiffusion.
B)counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C)particle agglutination.
D)enzyme immunoassay.
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Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) The antibody that has 10 antigen-binding sites is
A)IgG.
B)IgA.
C)IgM.
D)IgE.
Q2) For most pathogens, to be diagnostic of current infection, there must be
A)a decrease in the patient's antibody titer of two doubling dilutions.
B)an increase in the patient's titer of two doubling dilutions.
C)a decrease in the patient's antibody titer of four doubling dilutions.
D)an increase in the patient's titer of four doubling dilutions.
Q3) The study of the diagnosis of disease by measuring antibody levels in serum is called
A)immunology.
B)immunohematology.
C)serology.
D)immunocytology.
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Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Q1) Ciprofloxacin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q2) Gentamicin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q3) Rifampin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q4) Tetracycline
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
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Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) The primary goal of antimicrobial susceptibility testing is to
A)determine whether the pathogen is capable of expressing resistance to the potential choices of antimicrobial agents.
B)determine the extent of an organism's intrinsic resistance.
C)determine in vivo whether the administered antibiotic is killing the pathogen.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC) test involves
A)a continuation of the procedure for conventional broth dilution testing.
B)subculturing the clear tubes of a completed broth dilution test.
C)99.9% reduction in CFU/mL compared with the organism concentration in the original inoculum.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Staphylococcal resistance to oxacillin is used to determine and report resistance to A)vancomycin.
B)aminoglycosides.
C)cephalosporins.
D)amikacin.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The staphylococcus that is more likely to cause uncomplicated urinary tract infections in nonhospitalized hosts, especially sexually active young women, is
A)Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
D)Staphylococcus intermedius.
Q2) In clinical isolates, the most likely identification of a coagulase-positive, catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci that is penicillin-resistant would be
A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Staphylococcus intermedius.
C)Stomatococcus luteus.
D)Micrococcus aureus.
Q3) The most frequent agent of nosocomial bacteremia is
A)catalase-negative micrococci.
B)coagulase-positive staphylococci.
C)catalase-negative stomatococci.
D)coagulase-negative staphylococci.
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Chapter 14: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Streptococcus pneumoniae can be described as
A)susceptible to bile and optochin.
B)alpha hemolytic.
C)a major cause of bacterial meningitis.
D)often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
E)All of the above are true.
Q2) Nutritionally variant streptococci (Abiotrophia)
A)require vitamin B6 for growth.
B)will grow on 5% sheep blood agar.
C)form satelliting colonies around Haemophilus species.
D)require vitamin K for growth.
Q3) Streptococcus agalactiae can be described as
A)able to hydrolyze hippurate.
B)alpha hemolytic.
C)a major cause of.pharyngitis.
D)often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
E)All of the above are true.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Induction of capsule formation by B.anthracis can be accomplished with A)5% sheep blood agar.
B)PLET agar.
C)bicarbonate agar.
D)urea agar.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are nonhemolytic, nonmotile, and penicillin-susceptible, and that produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as
A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Bacillus cereus.
D)Corynebacterium jeikeium.
Q3) Induction of sporulation by Bacillus sp.can be accomplished with A)5% sheep blood agar.
B)PLET agar.
C)bicarbonate agar.
D)urea agar.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 16: Listeria, Corynebacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The organism that exhibits characteristic end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours is
A)Listeria monocytogenes.
B)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C)Bacillus anthracis.
D)Bacillus cereus.
Q2) The isolation of a small gram-positive, catalase-positive rod with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis isolated from blood or CSF should be used as strong presumptive evidence for A)listeriosis.
B)diphtheria.
C)pertussis.
D)tetanus.
Q3) A catalase-positive, gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast, does not branch, and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Mycobacterium
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Erysipelothirix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Large numbers of large gram-positive bacilli are typical elements of a wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has
A)bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis.
B)no apparent vaginal infection.
C)bacterial vaginosis caused by Lactobacillus sp.
D)gonorrhea
Q2) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, non-branching, gram-positive rod that produces hydrogen sulfide when inoculated into TSI agar is most likely
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Erysipelothrix
Q3) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, gram-positive rod that is not acid-fast could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Erysipelothrix
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Chapter 18:
Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Nocardia have as part of their cell wall peptidoglycan
A)mesodiaminopimelic acid (DAP).
B)arabinose.
C)galactose.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Non-acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include A)Nocardia.
B)Rhodococcus.
C)Streptomyces.
D)Gordona.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) A chronic, granulomatous infection of subcutaneous tissues caused by aerobic actinomycetes resulting in tissue swelling and draining sinus tracts are referred to as A)actinomycetoma.
B)infectious granulomas.
C)lymphocytoma.
D)Actinomadura.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) MacConkey-sorbitol agar is useful for detecting pathogenic strains of
A)Escherichia coli.
B)Shigella species.
C)Salmonella species.
D)Vibrio species.
Q2) Alkaline slant, acid butt, no H S
A)Salmonella species
B)Escherichia coli
C)Proteus species
D)Pseudomonas species
Q3) Choose the bacterial family that is best described as catalase-positive, oxidase-negative, gram-negative bacilli that are facultative anaerobes and most of which reduce nitrates to nitrites.
A)Enterobacteriaceae
B)Micrococcaceae
C)Pseudomonas
D)Haemophilus
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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) An organism that can be described as oxidase-negative, MacConkey agar-positive, glucose nonfermenter is likely
A)Escherichia.
B)Pseudomonas.
C)Acinetobacter.
D)Moraxella.
Q2) Differentiation of S.maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by
A)the oxidase test.
B)maltose and glucose medium.
C)tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) The primary drug of choice for infections caused by S.maltophilia is
A)a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside.
B)trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
C)ticarcillin/clavulanic acid.
D)chloramphenicol.
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Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) All Brevundimonas, Burkholderia, Ralstonia, Pseudomonas, and Acidovorax share which of the following characteristics?
A)Oxidase-positive
B)Utilize glucose oxidatively
C)Able to grow on MacConkey agar
D)None of the above are correct.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Production of exotoxin A, which kills host cells by inhibiting protein synthesis, and production of several proteolytic enzymes and hemolysins that destroy cells and tissue are factors that contribute to pathogenicity of
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Burkholderia cepacia.
C)Ralstonia pickettii.
D)Burkholderia mallei.
Q3) The disease referred to as melioidosis is caused by A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Ralstonia pickettii.
C)Burkholderia mallei.
D)Burkholderia pseudomallei.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar
Organisms
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Q1) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Ochrobactrum anthropi.
A)Environmental only, not human flora
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
E)Environmental and human flora
Q2) Valid susceptibility testing methods are not available for
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)Achromobacter.
C)Pseudomonas.
D)Staphylococcus.
Q3) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Rhizobium radiobacter.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
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24
Chapter
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Q1) Valid susceptibility testing methods are not available for A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)Chryseobacterium.
C)Pseudomonas.
D)Staphylococcus.
Q2) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Chryseobacterium.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q3) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Empedobacter.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q4) The natural habitat of Chryseobacterium sp.can best be described as
A)the mucous membranes of animals.
B)the gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)the natural environment.
D)the genitourinary tract of animals.
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Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The mode of transmission of Bordetella bronchiseptica can best be described as A)person to person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with animals.
Q2) Pertussis (whooping cough), an epidemic disease, is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by A)Brucella species.
B)Bordetella species.
C)Pasteurella species.
D)Francisella species.
Q3) Achromobacter, Alcaligenes, and Bordetella are all A)MacConkey-positive.
B)oxidase-positive.
C)nonglucose utilizers.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) The primary habitat for Chromobacterium violaceum is
A)fresh water.
B)the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)brackish or marine water.
D)the soil and water environment.
Q2) Plesiomonas spp.can be described as
A)oxidase-negative, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
B)oxidase-positive, glucose-oxidizing, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
C)oxidase-positive, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
D)oxidase-positive, non-glucose-utilizing, gram-negative bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar.
Q3) Transmission of Plesiomonas shigelloides to humans is by
A)exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B)ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with carriers of the organism.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Sphingobacterium spp.can be described as
A)oxidase-negative, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
B)oxidase-positive, glucose-oxidizing, gram-negative bacilli that fail to grow on MacConkey agar.
C)oxidase-positive, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
D)oxidase-positive, non-glucose-utilizing, gram-negative bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar.
Q2) A yellow-pigmented, gram-negative rod on blood agar but not MacConkey that is indole- and urease-negative, oxidase-positive, and positive on wet mount motility testing is most likely A)Treponema.
B)Leptospira.
C)Borrelia.
D)Sphingomonas.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Moraxella
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Q1) True cocci, such as most Neisseria spp.and Moraxella (Branhamella) catarrhalis, can be differentiated from morphologically similar Moraxella species by
A)comparing the penicillin susceptibility testing results of the bacteria.
B)subjecting the bacterium to noninhibitory concentrations of penicillin.
C)the resistance of Moraxella to many beta-lactam antimicrobials.
D)performing the DNA test.
Q2) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella elongata appears as
A)either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B)gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C)coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D)coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
E)either coccobacilli or short, straight rods.
Q3) The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections, primarily of the respiratory tract, is
A)Moraxella catarrhalis.
B)Moraxella lacunata.
C)Moraxella canis.
D)Moraxella atlantae.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Valid susceptibility testing methods are not available for
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)Pseudomonas.
C)Eikenella.
D)Staphylococcus.
Q2) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli, which bacterial species can be recognized in culture by its bleachlike odor?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin, it is the drug of choice for infections involving
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B)Eikenella corrodens.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Weeksella virosa.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and is transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B)Eikenella corrodens
C)Pasteurella multocida
D)Weeksella virosa
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following bacterial species is a nonvirulent part of human and animal flora and is transmitted to humans during trauma such as bites or dental work?
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pasteurella multocida
D)Actinobacillus
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Of the following organisms, which can be described as slow or poorly growing, are capnophiles, and will not grow on MacConkey agar?
A)Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
B)Kingella denitrificans
C)Cardiobacterium hominis
D)Capnocytophaga gingivalis
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 31: Haemophilus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Long, slender rods
A)H. haemolyticus
B)H. influenzae biotype aegypticus
C)H. influenzae
D)H. segnis
E)H. parainfluenzae
Q2) The major difference between infections caused by type b H.influenzae and those infections caused by nontypeable strains is that
A)infections caused by type b H.influenzae are often systemic and life-threatening.
B)infections caused by other Haemophilus spp.occur much more frequently.
C)the number of type b H.influenzae infections has been greatly increased.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
Q3) Growth of H.ducreyi in culture requires
A)incubation at 33° to 35° C.
B)high humidity.
C)increased CO .
D)special media.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by A)Afipia felis.
B)Rochalimaea quintana.
C)Bartonella clarridgeiae.
D)Bartonella henselae.
Q2) Bacteremia, endocarditis, bacillary angiomatosis, cat-scratch disease, and peliosis hepatitis can all be caused by A)Afipia felis.
B)Rochalimaea quintana.
C)Bartonella clarridgeiae.
D)Bartonella henselae.
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34
Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by
A)direct contact with carriers of the bacterium.
B)contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.
C)multiplication of the organism in food products.
D)direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium.
Q2) Making sure that all foods derived from animal sources are thoroughly cooked, all milk is pasteurized, and all drinking water is chlorinated are ways to avoid becoming infected with A)Helicobacter.
B)Arcobacter.
C)Enterobacter.
D)Campylobacter.
Q3) Campylobacter spp.can sometimes be detected by direct Gram stain examination of fecal sample, which would reveal many A)large, faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
B)small, curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli.
C)small gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)plump, faintly staining gram negative bacilli.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Legionella
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Q1) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s) is necessary?
A)L-cysteine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) A febrile and pneumonic illness first named in 1976 by scientists at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) who were investigating an epidemic of pneumonia among Pennsylvania State American Legion members attending a convention in Philadelphia is known as
A)Philadelphia pneumonia.
B)legionnaires' disease.
C)tuberculosis.
D)rheumatic fever.
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)faintly staining, thin gram-negative bacilli.
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Chapter 35: Brucella
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Sample Questions
Q1) Persons considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are
A)dairy farmers.
B)livestock handlers.
C)slaughterhouse employees.
D)veterinarians.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The serum agglutination test (SAT) detects antibodies to A)Brucella abortus.
B)B.melitensis.
C)B.suis.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those which are
A)able to be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B)able to exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C)able to be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D)can only be cultured inside living organisms like mice.
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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) The mode of transmission of Bordetella pertussis can best be described as A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with animals.
Q2) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis, symptoms are
A)a runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)neutrocytosis and fever.
D)lymphadenitis.
Q3) During the catarrhal stage of pertussis, symptoms are
A)a runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)vomiting and "whooping" as air is rapidly inspired into the lungs past the swollen glottis.
D)lymphocytosis and fever.
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Chapter 37: Francisella
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Q1) F.philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it
A)is oxidase-positive.
B)is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C)hydrolyzes gelatin.
D)grows in 6% sodium chloride.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) One of the most common laboratory-acquired infections that is caused by a Biosafety Level 2 pathogen is caused by A)Bordetella pertussis.
B)Francisella tularensis.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Francisella are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
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Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Rat-bite fever, or Haverhill fever, characterized by acute onset of chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains and a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, is caused by
A)Bordetella species.
B)Brucella abortus.
C)Spirillum minus.
D)Pasteurella species.
Q2) Sodoku, characterized by swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, and a granulomatous lesion is caused by
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis.
B)Spirillum minus.
C)Bordetella species.
D)Pasteurella species.
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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) Presumptive identification of an oxidase-positive, gram-negative diplococcus on Thayer-Martin medium from genital sites of a 6-year-old female as Neisseria gonorrhoeae
A)provides the physician with quick and reliable results at minimal cost.
B)should be confirmed with a repeat culture.
C)may sometimes be incorrect and should not be reported.
D)should only be done when venereal disease is suspected.
Q2) Determination of carbohydrate utilization patterns for differentiation of Neisseria spp.and M.catarrhalis is best done by
A)48- to 72-hour incubation of inoculated cystine trypticase soy agar (CTA) with 1% dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose.
B)oxidative-fermentative (OF) medium with dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose.
C)heavy inoculation of buffered, low-peptone substrate with dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose.
D)carbohydrate testing strips.
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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) When activating a hydrogen and CO generator system used for creating an anaerobic atmosphere, indications that the catalyst and generator envelope are functioning properly include
A)production of heat within a few minutes.
B)development of moisture on the walls of the jar.
C)a change in color of the methylene blue or resazurin indicator.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Urine via percutaneous aspiration
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q3) Aspiration of peritoneal fluid using a needle and syringe
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q4) The final fill of the anaerobe jar prepared by the evacuation-replacement method consists of
A)20% to 30% nitrogen, 5% to 10% hydrogen, and 70% to 80% CO .
B)80% to 90% oxygen, 5% to 10% hydrogen, and 5% to 10% CO .
C)80% to 90% nitrogen, 5% to 10% hydrogen, and 5% to 10% CO .
D)80% to 90% nitrogen, 5% to 10% oxygen, and 5% to 10% CO .
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Chapter 41: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) Complete identification of anaerobes is
A)relatively inexpensive for the average clinical laboratory.
B)complicated and often requires several different testing methods.
C)performed in most average clinical laboratories.
D)necessary in most cases to ensure adequate treatment.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The most likely identification of an anaerobic, curved, gram-variable bacillus with tapered ends on Gram stain of vaginal secretions when vaginosis is suspected is
A)Porphyromonas spp.
B)Actinomyces.
C)Mobiluncus
D)Fusobacterium spp.
E)Bifidobacterium.
Q3) The absence of leukocytes in a Gram stain of a clinical specimen
A)rules out the presence of a serious anaerobic infection.
B)may indicate that the causative organism produces necrotizing toxins.
C)may indicate poor transport methods.
D)may indicate excessive exposure to air during specimen processing.
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43
Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
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Q1) Large numbers of a poorly stained, beaded, gram-positive bacilli in a sputum specimen might be which bacterium?
A)Klebsiella pneumoniae
B)Mycobacterium spp.
C)Streptococcus pneumonia
D)Actinomyces spp.
Q2) Specimens for Mycobacterium studies that require concentration, decontamination, or liquefaction include
A)CSF and other body fluids.
B)sputum.
C)urine.
D)swabs and wound aspirates.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) A cell wall that contains N-glycolylmuramic acid and a very high lipid content is a characteristics that is found in which bacteria?
A)Fungi
B)Klebsiella
C)Mycobacterium
D)Enterobacteriaceae
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44
Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Nonculturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) The intracellular growth, or replicative form, of the Chlamydia is called the A)reticulate body.
B)elementary body.
C)replicate body.
D)initial body.
Q2) The extracellular, metabolically inert, infective form of the Chlamydia is called the A)reticulate body.
B)elementary body.
C)replicate body.
D)initial body.
Q3) A prokaryote that differs from most other bacteria with respect to its very small size and obligate intracellular parasitism is
A)Rickettsia.
B)Ehrlichia.
C)Calymmatobacterium.
D)Coxiella.
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Chapter 44: Cell Wall-Deficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Media that can be used for isolation of Mycoplasma include
A)Thayer-Martin agar with vitamin K.
B)5% sheep blood and IsoVitaleX.
C)beef or soybean protein with serum and fresh yeast extract.
D)Hemin and NAD supplements.
Q2) Definitive identification of Mycoplasma pneumoniae is accomplished by which technique?
A)Hemadsorption of guinea pig erythrocytes
B)Traditional biochemical tests such as indole and oxidase
C)Direct detection methods such as PCR or ELISA
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Definitive identification of which of the following organisms is accomplished by hemadsorption techniques?
A)Chlamydia trachomatis
B)Mycoplasma hominis
C)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D)Ureaplasma urealyticum
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Page 46
Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Compared to other spirochetes, Leptospira can be described as
A)long, more slender, with hooked ends.
B)somewhat thicker with fewer and looser coils and hooked ends.
C)long, more slender, with tight coils.
D)somewhat thicker than treponemes with fewer and looser coils.
Q2) Long, slender, helically curved, gram-negative bacilli that present with hooked ends are identified as belonging to which species?
A)Treponema
B)Leptospira
C)Borrelia
D)Coxiella
Q3) The most common vector-borne disease in North America and Europe transmitted by the bite of Ixodes ticks is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is called
A)Weil's disease.
B)Lyme disease.
C)icteric leptospirosis.
D)Vincent's disease.
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Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections
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Q1) Strongyloides stercoralis
A)Rectal tape prep
B)Tissue biopsy
C)Sputum
D)Feces
E)Blood smear
Q2) A red blood cell parasite that can be described as infecting younger RBCs, having Schüffner's dots, presenting in all stages, and having 12 to 24 merozoites would most likely be
A)Plasmodium malariae.
B)Plasmodium vivax.
C)Plasmodium falciparum.
D)Babesia microti.
Q3) Toxoplasma gondii
A)Feces
B)Blood smear
C)Vaginal secretions
D)CSF
E)Skin scraping
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Methods in Basic Mycology
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Q1) Laboratories that have a high incidence of dimorphic fungi recovered from blood specimens should use which sytem of recovery?
A)An automated blood culture system
B)The lysis-centrifugation system
C)Filteration through a 0.45-µm membrane filter
D)A biphasic blood culture system
Q2) Rough-walled spores called zygospores are formed by
A)progressive cleavage during maturation within the sporangium.
B)rupture of the sporangial wall.
C)the rounding up and enlargement of the terminal cells of the hyphae.
D)the union of two matching types of Zygomycetes.
Q3) A mold that has septate hyphae, conidia in clusters, and no pigment would likely belong to which group of fungi?
A)Alternaria
B)Acremonium
C)Cladosporium
D)Microsporum
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Chapter 48: Laboratory Methods in Basic Virology
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Q1) Membrane ELISA tests in clinical virology
A)are well suited for high-volume testing and where rapid results are not needed.
B)cannot be performed by those with minimum training.
C)include vials of positive and negative sera for quality monitoring of test procedures.
D)involve a handheld reaction chamber with a cellulose-like membrane, reagents to apply to the membrane, and a chromogenic reaction.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) This rhabdovirus is present in saliva and is transmitted by animal bite; it invades the peripheral and central nervous systems.
A)Rubella virus
B)Alpha virus
C)Rabies virus
D)Poxvirus
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Chapter 49: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) Fungemia
A)Condition wherein fungi are present in blood, occurring primarily in immunosuppressed patients and in those with serious or terminal illness
B)The action of bacteria being carried, usually to all organs of the host, where they may grow, invade normal tissue, and produce toxic products
C)A temporary, incidental presence of bacteria in the bloodstream
D)The situation in which organisms are released into the bloodstream at a noncontinuous rate
E)Infections that originate within the cardiovascular system
Q2) The most common portal of entry for bacteremia is
A)the genitourinary tract.
B)the respiratory tract.
C)an abscess.
D)a surgical wound infection.
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Chapter 50: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) The nasal hairs, convoluted passages, and mucous lining of the nasal turbinates
A)nonspecifically protect the respiratory tract from infection.
B)promote colonization of normal bacterial flora.
C)can aid adherence by potentially harmful bacteria.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Respiratory syncytial virus is one of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among
A)previously healthy patients 2 months of age to 5 years old.
B)adults younger than 30 years of age.
C)community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D)children of school age.
Q3) Of the various types of specimens collected to diagnose respiratory infections, which one is acceptable for detection of anaerobic agents?
A)Tracheostomy aspirates
B)Bronchial washings
C)Gastric aspirates
D)Transtracheal aspirates
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 51: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) An infection normally called sore throat that presents as erythematous and swollen tissue and is characterized by inflammatory exudates, vesicles, and mucosal ulceration, or by nasopharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia is called
A)laryngitis.
B)epiglottitis.
C)pharyngitis.
D)Vincent's angina.
E)rhinitis.
Q2) Stomatitis
A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses
B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) A collective term used for the three layers of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is
A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
Q2) The outermost layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is called
A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
Q3) Organisms may gain access to the central nervous system (CNS) by which route?
A)Hematogenous spread
B)Spread from infections at other sites, such as otitis media
C)Anatomic defects in central nervous system structures
D)Travel along nerves leading to the brain
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 53: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
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Q1) Dacryoadenitis
A)An acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
Q2) Conjunctivitis in children
A) Haemophilus influenzae and S. pneumoniae
B) Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice
C) S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, and P. aeruginosa
D) Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E) Chlamydia
F) Actinomyces or Propionibacterium
G) S. aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, and S. pneumoniae
Q3) Keratitis
A)An acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
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Chapter 54: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) Asymptomatic bacteriuria
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)The isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria, frequency, and urgency but yielding fewer organisms than 105 colony-forming units of bacteria per milliliter (CFU/mL) urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma, calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis), and pelvis
Q2) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract is
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)yeasts.
C)Propionibacterium acnes.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
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Chapter 55: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) Orchitis
A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Gardnerella, Prevotella spp., Porphyromonas spp., peptostreptococci, Mobiluncus spp.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E)N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis
F)Escherichia coli and other enterics
G)Mumps virus
Q2) The predominant organisms in vaginal secretions from normal prepubescent girls and postmenopausal women are
A)lactobacilli.
B)Streptococcus agalactiae.
C)Enterobacteriaceae.
D)staphylococci.
Q3) Infections that are acquired during sexual activity are referred to as
A)endogenous infections.
B)pyelonephritis
C)Exogenous infections.
D)Upper tract infections.
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Campy-thioglycollate broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) GN Broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) XLD agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
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Chapter 57: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic undermining ulcer
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)A slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)A chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
Q2) Myositis
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)A slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)A chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
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Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) Most cases of peritonitis in patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis are caused by
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis and S.aureus.
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
D)Streptococcus spp.
E)viral agents.
Q2) Proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is
A)grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.
B)placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.
C)centrifugation with glass beads.
D)filtration under pressure.
Q3) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Haemophilus influenzae.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
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Chapter 59: Laboratory Physical Design, Management, and Organization
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Q1) The percentage of true-negative test results based on the prevalence of the disease in the population studied is referred to as A)accuracy.
B)predictive value negative.
C)sensitivity.
D)specificity.
E)predictive value positive.
Q2) The ability of the test under study to match the results of a standard test commonly known as the "gold standard" is A)accuracy.
B)precision.
C)sensitivity.
D)specificity.
Q3) The reproducibility of a test when it is run (repeated) several times is called A)accuracy.
B)precision.
C)sensitivity.
D)specificity.
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Chapter 60: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Continuous quality assurance in the microbiology laboratory includes
A)monitoring personnel performance and providing education.
B)instrument maintenance and monitoring.
C)checking the performance of media, reagents, and other products.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Long-term storage (>1 year) of stock aerobic and anaerobic bacteria can be accomplished by
A)subculture onto trypticase soy agar (TSA) slants.
B)freezing at 70° C.
C)storing them on blood agar plates at 37° C.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Positive patient outcomes produced through quality management programs in the microbiology laboratory are
A)reduced hospitalization time.
B)reduced cost of stay.
C)reduced turn-around time for diagnosis of infection.
D)appropriate antimicrobial therapy.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 61: Infection Control
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Q1) Microorganisms are spread in hospitals through
A)direct contact in contaminated food or intravenous solutions.
B)indirect contact from patient to patient on the hands of health care workers.
C)inhalation of droplets.
D)vector-borne contact.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of serologic typing of bacterial or viral antigens, such as bacterial cell wall antigens of the organism of interest, is called
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriocin typing.
E)bacteriophage typing.
Q3) An infection acquired by a hospitalized patient that was not present when they entered the hospital is referred to as
A)an autonomous infection.
B)a nosocomial infection.
C)an opportunistic infection.
D)septic introduction.
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Chapter 62: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) The act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population is referred to as
A)biosecurity.
B)biocrime.
C)microterrorism.
D)bactiterrorism.
Q2) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that
A)a covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B)a covert event is announced and an overt event is not announced.
C)an overt event is announced and a covert event is not announced.
D)an overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
Q3) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe
A)the act of using horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B)the act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population.
C)the act of using microorganisms to wage war in peace time.
D)the act of using living beings to wage war in peace time.
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