Infectious Disease Diagnostics
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Infectious Disease Diagnostics explores the principles and practices involved in the detection, identification, and monitoring of infectious agents in clinical settings. The course covers traditional and modern diagnostic techniques, including microscopy, culture methods, serological testing, molecular diagnostics, and rapid point-of-care technologies. Students will learn about the interpretation of diagnostic results, quality control in laboratory testing, and the role of diagnostics in guiding patient management and outbreak control. Case studies highlight challenges such as emerging pathogens, antimicrobial resistance, and the implications of diagnostic accuracy for public health and treatment strategies.
Recommended Textbook
Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 5th Edition by Connie R. Mahon
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Chapter 1: Bacterial Cell Structure, Physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics
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Q1) A _____ is a single, closed, circular piece of DNA that is supercoiled to fit inside a bacterial cell.
A)phenotype
B)chromosome
C)frame-shift mutation
D)transposon
Answer: B
Q2) In what staining procedure does carbolfuchsin penetrate the bacterial cell wall through heat or detergent treatment?
A)Gram stain
B)Acridine orange stain
C)Endospore stain
D)Acid-fast stain
Answer: D
Q3) The nuclear membrane in prokaryotes is:
A)missing.
B)impenetrable.
C)a classic membrane.
D)a lipid bilayer membrane.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Host-Parasite Interaction
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Q1) One of the most effective defenses bacteria have against phagocytosis is:
A)enzymes.
B)the capsule.
C)plasmids.
D)lipopolysaccharide layer.
Answer: B
Q2) Healthy skin secretes what substances to help prevent colonization by transient and possibly pathogenic organisms?
A)Long-chain fatty acids
B)Sebaceous glands
C)Carbohydrates
D)Antibodies
Answer: A
Q3) What is the name of a leukocidin that is lethal to leukocytes and produced by staphylococci?
A)Panton-Valentine
B)Lancefield
C)Hemolysin
D)Adhesins
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: The Laboratory Role in Infection Control
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Q1) When an outbreak is suspected, all the following steps are taken in investigating that event except:
A)establishing a case definition.
B)confirming that an outbreak exists.
C)immediately treating all persons involved with appropriate antibiotic.
D)establishing an epidemiologic curve.
Answer: C
Q2) A microbiology technologist is working at the bench and notices that a patient from the cardiac intensive care unit (CICU) grows a Klebsiella pneumoniae bacterium that is an extended-spectrum b-lactamase-producing isolate.This technologist would advise the physician to:
A)order any antimicrobial that is effective against gram-negative rods in general.
B)limit the use of antimicrobial agents that tend to induce the formation of extended-spectrum b-lactamases.
C)draw more blood cultures, because the ones that grew that organism are contaminated.
D)be on the lookout for diarrhea.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Control of Microorganisms
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Q1) The Joint Commission requires the following safety training to be documented in an employee's record except:
A)proper storage of gases.
B)biosafety level training.
C)bloodborne pathogen training.
D)hazardous materials management.
Q2) Routine handwashing in health care settings mandates washing at all the following times except:
A)in high-risk areas such as ICU and burn units.
B)on entering protective isolation units.
C)before and after routine patient contact.
D)when gloves become soiled during a procedure or dressing change on the same patient.
Q3) Universal/Standard Precautions require that:
A)only some body fluids be considered infectious and capable of transmitting disease.
B)body fluids with visible blood be treated as noninfectious.
C)blood and body fluids from all patients be considered infectious and capable of transmitting disease.
D)urine and feces be considered noninfectious.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Antimicrobial susceptibility is hard to control because many of the same species of organisms have a varied susceptibility to particular antibiotics.To reduce this variation, Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines recommend:
A)using in-house organisms isolated from past patients.
B)sharing strains between hospital laboratories.
C)using specific strains from American Type Culture Collection (ATCC).
D)obtaining test strains from Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
Q2) All of the following activities are included in a laboratory quality control program except:
A)air quality.
B)temperatures.
C)media.
D)antimicrobial susceptibility testing.
Q3) Customers of a laboratory include all the following except: A)patients.
B)insurers.
C)doctors.
D)accrediting organizations.
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Chapter 6: Specimen Collection and Processing
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Q1) How does the Department of Transportation (DOT) define an infectious substance?
A)Any substance capable of transmitting disease
B)A material known to contain or is suspected of containing a pathogen that causes disease in humans or animals
C)Any substance that can cause disease in animals
D)A bacterium, virus, prion, or virion
Q2) Two types of specimens can use preservatives to maintain them until they can be delivered to the laboratory.They are:
A)urine and stool.
B)urine and vaginal secretions.
C)stool and throat cultures.
D)pus from a wound and vaginal secretions.
Q3) Direct microscopic examinations are not recommended for all the following specimen sources except:
A)throat specimens.
B)urethral discharge from a male.
C)nasopharyngeal specimens.
D)vaginal specimens.
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8
Chapter 7: Microscopic Examination of Materials From Infected Sites
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Q1) When examining specimen smears for pathogenic bacteria, what is important to note?
A)Wright's stain reaction
B)Intracellular and extracellular forms
C)Details of the microbe's nuclear structure
D)The amount of fecal material on the slide
Q2) All of the following steps should be used to prepare a smear from thick, granular, or mucoid materials except:
A)place a portion of the sample on the labeled slide, and press a second slide onto the sample to flatten or crush the components.
B)once the material is flattened and sufficiently thinned, pull the glass slides smoothly away from each other to produce two smears.
C)take an additional swab and rub it back and forth on the two glass slides to ensure the material is thin enough to read once it is stained.
D)if the material is still too thick, repeat the first three steps with another (third) glass slide.
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Chapter 8: Use of Colony Morphology for the Presumptive
Identification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microbiologist is reading the plates from a sputum culture.The culture is from a patient with cystic fibrosis.One organism dominates the blood agar, chocolate, and MacConkey plates.The MacConkey plate shows an organism with a green pigment and a metallic sheen.The probable identification for this organism is:
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Serratia marcescens.
C)Chromobacterium violaceum.
D)Prevotella melaninogenica.
Q2) a-Hemolysis is:
A)complete clearing of erythrocytes in a blood agar plate around and under the colony.
B)partial lysing of erythrocytes in a blood agar plate around and under the colony.
C)when organisms have no lytic effect on the erythrocytes in the blood agar plate.
D)a pink "halo" around a colony.
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10
Chapter 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are organisms identified with commercial identification kits?
A)Numeric codes
B)Color codes
C)Alphabetic codes
D)Alphanumeric codes
Q2) The decarboxylase tests determine:
A)whether the bacteria possess enzymes capable of removing the carboxyl group of specific amino acids in the test medium.
B)whether the bacteria can further metabolize the acids formed during fermentation to 2,3 butanediol.
C)if bacteria can maintain an acid pH if only sucrose is present in the media.
D)to see if a-naphthol can be broken down into its constituent parts: acetoin and diacetyl KOH.
Q3) What chemicals are added to triple sugar iron (TSI) to detect the production of hydrogen sulfide gas?
A)Phenol red and ferrous sulfate
B)Bromthymol blue and sodium thiosulfate
C)Ferrous sulfate and sodium thiosulfate
D)Copper sulfate and ferrous sulfate
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) What is one of the biggest uses for Western blot tests in the laboratory today?
A)Confirming antibodies to HIV
B)Confirming antibodies to cytomegalovirus (CMV)
C)Confirming antibodies to rubella
D)DNA sequencing from herpes
Q2) What is the earliest serologic marker detected in hepatitis B?
A)HAV
B)HBsAg
C)HBcAg
D)HBeAg
Q3) Which hepatitis virus is spread by the fecal/oral route?
A)Hepatitis B
B)Hepatitis A
C)Hepatitis C
D)Hepatitis D
Q4) What is ASO used for?
A)To demonstrate serologic response to streptococcal antigen
B)To determine if a strep has been lysogenized
C)To determine if a strep produces a hemolysin
D)To demonstrate serologic response to Streptococcus pyogenes
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics
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Q1) What is proteomics?
A)The study of proteins on a cellular level
B)The study of serum proteins
C)The study of proteins in genes
D)The study of the human genome
Q2) Accurate epidemiologic surveillance of specific organisms is needed for all the following reasons except:
A)the rise of large numbers of antibiotic resistant isolates.
B)increases in the rates of toxin-producing bacteria.
C)the spread of pathogenic microbes across the world.
D)the increase in nosocomial infections.
Q3) The most sensitive technique available for detecting and quantifying messenger RNA is:
A)multiplex polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
B)standard PCR.
C)nested PCR.
D)reverse-transcription PCR.
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Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Agent Mechanisms of Action and Resistance
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Q1) All of the following antibiotics target the 50S ribosomal subunit to prevent mRNA translation in the bacteria except:
A)macrolides.
B)quinolones.
C)oxazolidinones.
D)streptogramins.
Q2) Relatively nontoxic antimicrobial therapeutic agents include all of the following except:
A)heavy metals.
B)antibiotics.
C)preservatives.
D)antiseptics.
Q3) Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus pyogenes use efflux as an effective mechanism for acquired resistance to:
A)macrolides.
B)peptidoglycans.
C)aminoglycosides.
D)quinolones.
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) Advantages of the commercial microdilution susceptibility test methods include all the following except:
A)more accurate results than manual methods.
B)automated panel readers.
C)the quantitative nature of a minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC).
D)computerized data management systems.
Q2) Therapy of disseminated meningococcal infections and various types of gonococcal infections are:
A)hard to treat and require special b-lactamase tests.
B)an important public health concern, so a full spectrum of antimicrobial susceptibility testing is always performed.
C)generally empiric based on recommendations of Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
D)none of the above.
Q3) On what media is Kirby-Bauer testing performed for Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
A)Gonococcal (GC) agar base supplemented with various nutrients
B)Mueller-Hinton agar supplemented with vancomycin
C)Mueller-Hinton agar supplemented with X and V factors
D)Mueller-Hinton agar supplemented with biotin, and X and V factors
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Chapter 14: Staphylococci
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which staphylococcal species is associated with urinary tract infections in young, sexually active females?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)S.intermedius
C)S.epidermidis
D)S.saprophyticus
Q2) The two most common species of coagulase-negative staphylococci are:
A)Staphylococcus aureus and S.epidermidis.
B)S.capitus and S.lugdunensis.
C)S.epidermidis and S.saprophyticus.
D)S.saccharolyticus and S.epidermidis.
Q3) A woman in her 20s goes to her physician complaining of burning upon urination, frequency, and general malaise.Her physician does a urine culture, and it grows out 25,000 colony-forming units (CFU)/mL of a catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, novobiocin-resistant gram-positive cocci.What is the most likely pathogen?
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis
B)S.haemolyticus
C)S.intermedius
D)S.saprophyticus
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Chapter 15: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Other
Catalase-Negative, Gram-Positive Cocci
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Q1) The atmospheric conditions best suited to grow streptococci and enterococci are: A)room air.
B)oxygen-free atmosphere.
C)high carbon dioxide concentration.
D)low carbon dioxide concentration.
Q2) One major virulence factor for Streptococcus pneumoniae is: A)hemolysin.
B)protease.
C)hyaluronidase.
D)capsular polysaccharide.
Q3) What test can be used to differentiate Streptococcus agalactiae from other b-hemolytic streptococci?
A)Bacitracin
B)Hippurate hydrolysis
C)PYR
D)Optochin
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Chapter 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli
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Q1) Why is it that although Nocardia spp.grow well on most common nonselective laboratory media, many are missed when the cultures are read?
A)These organisms require 3 to 6 days to grow.
B)These organisms require factors X and V to grow.
C)These organisms require 3 to 6 weeks to grow.
D)These organisms are anaerobic.
Q2) All of the following are commonly encountered Nocardia spp.except:
A)Nocardia asteroides.
B)N.brasiliensis.
C)N.transvalensis.
D)N.nova.
Q3) What other gram-positive rod is similar to Bacillus anthracis?
A)B.subtilis
B)B.cereus
C)L.monocytogenes
D)E.rhusiopathiae
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18
Chapter 17: Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) Why do Thayer-Martin and Martin-Lewis media have antibiotics added?
A)To permit the growth of Neisseria spp., Mycoplasma spp., and Ureaplasma spp., because these organisms use the antibiotics as growth factors
B)To allow the growth of gram-negative rods
C)To allow the growth of gram-positive rods
D)To prevent overgrowth of normal flora
Q2) A microbiologist is reading CTA sugars.The maltose and glucose tubes are positive.What organism produces acid in these two tubes?
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B)N.sicca
C)N.lactamica
D)N.meningitidis
Q3) The symptoms of meningococcal meningitis include all of the following except: A)frontal headache.
B)stiff neck.
C)backache.
D)fever.
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19
Chapter 18: Haemophilus and Other Fastidious
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) Which species of Haemophilus requires both X and V factors?
A)H.parainfluenzae
B)H.aphrophilus
C)H.influenzae
D)H.paraphrophilus
Q2) What is the drug of choice for treating a life-threatening illness caused by H.influenzae?
A)Penicillin
B)Macrolides
C)Aminoglycosides
D)Ceftriaxone
Q3) What organism produces a community-acquired pneumonia, with symptoms different than a Streptococcus pneumonia infection, leading to the designation of atypical pneumonia?
A)Legionella pneumophila
B)Mycoplasma
C)Chlamydophila asteroides
D)C.trachomatis
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) The Escherichia coli serotype O157:H7 is associated with all the following except:
A)hemorrhagic diarrhea.
B)colitis.
C)liver damage.
D)hemolytic-uremic syndrome.
Q2) What are the primary antigens used in serologic grouping of salmonellae?
A)Somatic A antigen and flagellar O antigens
B)Capsular A antigen and somatic O antigen
C)Flagellar H antigen and capsular A antigen
D)Flagellar H antigen and somatic O antigen
Q3) What organism possesses the Vi antigen?
A)Salmonella typhi
B)S.sonnei
C)Shigella sonnei
D)Citrobacter freundii
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21
Chapter 20: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas, and
Campylobacter Species
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Q1) What species of Aeromonas is the most frequently associated with gastrointestinal infections?
A)A.hydrophila
B)A.caviae
C)A.veronii
D)A.sobria
Q2) What is the name of the organism that is responsible for "summer diarrhea" in Japan?
A)Vibrio cholerae
B)V.vulnificus
C)V.parahaemolyticus
D)V.trota
Q3) Aeromonads are generally susceptible to all these antibiotics except:
A)trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
B)ampicillin.
C)aminoglycosides.
D)quinolones.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) Elizabethkingae (Chryseobacterium) meningosepticum causes all the following diseases except:
A)pneumonia.
B)gastroenteritis.
C)endocarditis.
D)meningitis.
Q2) What nonfermenter may produce a weak, slow, positive oxidase reaction?
A)Burkholderia cepacia
B)Pseudomonas putida
C)Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
D)P.stutzeri
Q3) Which of the following is a virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A)Endotoxin
B)Exotoxins
C)Capsule
D)All of the above
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Chapter 22: Anaerobes of Clinical Importance
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Q1) What disk is used to presumptively identify Peptostreptococcus anaerobius?
A)Bile
B)Nitrate
C)Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
D)Indole
Q2) What disease does Clostridium perfringens cause?
A)Botulism
B)Tetanus
C)Food poisoning
D)Toxic shock syndrome
Q3) What disease does Clostridium botulinum cause?
A)Botulism
B)Tetanus
C)Food poisoning
D)Myonecrosis
Q4) How is the true Gram stain reaction of an anaerobe determined?
A)Special potency disks
B)Shape and colony morphology
C)Aerotolerance
D)Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
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Chapter 23: The Spirochetes
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Q1) A young woman notices a bruise that looks like an erythema chronicum migrans lesion on her lower leg.She cannot remember getting bruised, even though she went hiking through the woods last weekend.The bruise goes away in about a week and she thinks nothing more about it.About 2 weeks later, she begins to feel very bad.She has joint and bone pain, extreme fatigue, and her heart just "doesn't feel right." What disease does she have, and what antibiotic is used to treat it?
A)Lyme disease and doxycycline
B)Relapsing fever and macrolides
C)Parrot fever and penicillin
D)Hemorrhagic fever and gentamicin
Q2) Early-onset congenital syphilis is characterized by all the following symptoms except:
A)osteochondritis.
B)anemia.
C)hepatosplenomegaly.
D)encephalitis.
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Chapter 24: Chlamydia, Rickettsia and Similar Organisms
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Q1) What organisms are considered obligate intracellular parasites?
A)Chlamydia
B)Mycoplasma
C)Ureaplasma
D)Haemophilus
Q2) What method is used to confirm a positive Chlamydia trachomatis enzyme immunoassay (EIA)?
A)Cytologic methods
B)Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
C)Cell culture
D)Nucleic acid probes
Q3) Infants can contract all the following chlamydial infections when passing through the birth canal except:
A)conjunctivitis.
B)nasopharyngeal infections.
C)pneumonia.
D)endocarditis.
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26
Chapter 25: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) What disease causes the condition primary atypical pneumonia?
A)Mycoplasma hominis
B)M.urealyticum
C)M.fermentans
D)M.pneumoniae
Q2) All the following antibiotics are used to treat mycoplasma infections except:
A)macrolides.
B)fluoroquinolones.
C)tetracyclines.
D)penicillin.
Q3) What time frame is suitable for blood draws for serologic testing to diagnose Mycoplasma infections?
A)Onset of symptoms and 2 to 3 weeks later
B)Week after symptoms start and 2 months later
C)Weeks after symptoms start and 3 months later
D)Onset of symptoms and 2 months later
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Chapter 26: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Nontuberculous Mycobacteria
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Q1) Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11 media are enriched with all of the following except:
A)oleic acid.
B)bovine albumin.
C)heme.
D)beef catalase.
Q2) A 35-year-old man travels on a multidestination vacation over a 2 month period, including lengthy stops in tropical Africa and Southeast Asia.Six weeks after returning come home to the United States, he develops a productive cough, fatigue, weight loss, low-grade fever, and night sweats.What disease should the physician consider as a result of his travel history?
A)Streptococcal pneumonia
B)Primary atypical pneumonia
C)Tuberculosis (TB)
D)Pneumonia caused by gram-negative rods
Q3) All of the following are biochemical tests for the identification of Mycobacterium spp.except:
A)gelatin liquefaction.
B)hydrolysis of Tween 80.
C)iron uptake.
D)arylsulfatase.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Medically Significant Fungi
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Q1) What organism is one of the primary opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?
A)Pneumocystis jirovecii
B)Hortaea werneckii
C)Coccidioides immitis
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Q2) What is the causative agent of tinea nigra?
A)Microsporum canis
B)Trichosporon beigelii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)Hortaea werneckii
Q3) Chromoblastomycosis is caused by all the following organisms except:
A)Fonsecaea compacta.
B)Penicillium marneffei.
C)Fonsecaea pedrosoi.
D)Phialophora verrucosa.
Q4) What organism frequently presents in fungus balls?
A)Fonsecaea compacta
B)Penicillium marneffei
C)F.pedrosoi
D)Aspergillus fumigatus
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Diagnostic Parasitology
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Q1) When a request is submitted to examine a blood sample for malaria, which of the following procedures should be performed?
A)A thick smear for maximum detection and to determine morphology
B)A PVA trichrome-stained blood smear
C)A Giemsa thick blood smear preparation for maximum detection and a thin smear for speciation
D)A formalin-ethyl acetate concentration for detection and a thin smear for speciation
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Chapter 29: Clinical Virology
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Q1) What is the most common virus isolated from infants with lower respiratory infections and causes croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and interstitial pneumonia?
A)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
B)Lassa
C)Rotavirus
D)Norovirus
Q2) What virus causes the Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome?
A)Sin Nombre virus
B)Dobrava virus
C)Junin
D)Lassa
Q3) What is the correct sequence of viral infection, then destruction of a host cell?
A)Attachment, penetration, replication, cell lysis
B)Penetration, attachment, replication, cell lysis
C)Replication, penetration, attachment, cell lysis
D)Penetration, replication, attachment, cell lysis
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Chapter 30: Agents of Bioterror and Forensic Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of anthrax is most deadly and most likely to be seen in a bioterrorism attack?
A)Gastrointestinal
B)Inhalation
C)Cutaneous
D)Spinal
Q2) What organism causes glanders?
A)Francisella tularensis
B)Brucella abortus
C)Yersinia pestis
D)Burkholderia mallei
Q3) All the following organizations established the Laboratory Response Network except:
A)United States Army Medical Research Institute for Infectious Diseases (USAMRIID).
B)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
C)Central Intelligence Agency (CIA).
D)Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI).
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Chapter 31: Biofilms: Architects of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is stage III of biofilm development?
A)Irreversible binding phase
B)Layering phase
C)Attachment phase
D)Multiplication phase
Q2) What disease, caused by biofilms, consumes more resources in the intensive care unit (ICU) than any other infectious disease?
A)Blood cultures positive with coagulase-negative staphylococci
B)Urinary tract infections due to gram-negative rods
C)Surgical site infections
D)Ventilator-associated pneumonia
Q3) What do biofilms allow members of the microbial community to do?
A)Withstand the shear forces of blood and urine
B)Remain in a nutrient rich environment
C)Survive
D)All of the above
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Chapter 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the cause of reduced clearance of respiratory secretions that predisposes people to respiratory infections?
A)Obstruction of a foreign body
B)Alterations in the viscosity of the mucus
C)Immature anatomic development
D)All of the above
Q2) When reading culture plates from respiratory specimens, what must the microbiologist take into consideration?
A)The types of organisms normally found at the culture site
B)The amount of media inoculated
C)The quality control performed on the media
D)The patient's physician
Q3) Why is pharyngitis produced by group A Streptococcus treated with antibiotics?
A)To prevent rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis
B)To prevent epiglottis
C)To prevent swelling of tonsils
D)To prevent swelling of soft tissues in the pharynx
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Chapter 33: Skin and Soft Tissue Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is thrush?
A)Tinea unguium
B)Tinea corporis
C)Dermatophytosis
D)Oral candidiasis
Q2) What is river blindness?
A)Infection with Naegleria fowleri
B)Infection with Onchocerca volvulus
C)Infection with Strongyloides stercoralis
D)Infection with Entamoeba histolytica
Q3) What causes rubeola?
A)Calicivirus
B)Herpesvirus
C)Paramyxovirus
D)Torovirus
Q4) What causes erythema infectiosum?
A)Parvovirus
B)Herpesvirus
C)Paramyxovirus
D)Togaviridae
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Chapter 34: Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following organisms are commonly implicated in a foodborne outbreak except:
A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Salmonella spp.
C)Clostridium botulinum.
D)Vibrio cholerae.
Q2) A man and his family drive to the coast and have an oyster dinner.A couple of days later, the man arrives at the emergency department with a fever, bullous skin lesions, and diarrhea.He is extremely ill and the physician questions whether he is septic.Blood and stool specimens are collected.The microbiologist notices curved gram-negative rods on the stool Gram stain.What is the most probable organism causing this condition?
A)Yersinia enterocolitica
B)Cryptosporidium jejuni
C)Vibrio vulnificus
D)Vibrio cholerae
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Chapter 35: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following viruses can resist inactivation by gastric acid except:
A)enteroviruses.
B)adenoviruses.
C)parvovirus.
D)herpesvirus.
Q2) What is a common neurologic complication with the mumps?
A)Encephalitis
B)Meningoencephalitis
C)Viremia
D)Aseptic meningitis
Q3) All of the following organisms commonly cause meningitis except:
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C)Haemophilus influenzae.
D)Neisseria meningitidis.
Q4) From where do most cerebral abscesses spread?
A)Middle ear infections
B)Mastoiditis
C)Paranasal sinus infections
D)All of the above
37
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Chapter 36: Bacteremia and Sepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Development of a vaccine has decreased which major cause of bacteremia in children?
A)Haemophilus influenzae
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Escherichia coli
D)Hepatitis A
Q2) What underlying condition predisposes a person to a polymicrobial bacteremia?
A)Intravenous drug use
B)Burns
C)Gastrointestinal tract sources
D)All of the above
Q3) What is the most common clinical manifestation associated with continuous bacteremia?
A)Meningitis
B)Pleurisy
C)Encephalitis
D)Endocarditis
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Chapter 37: Urinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What additive can maintain urine sample integrity for up to 48 hours at room temperature?
A)Sodium citrate
B)Calcium citrate
C)Sodium borate
D)Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid (EDTA)
Q2) All of the following are reasons why institutionalized patients have more urinary tract infections (UTIs) than noninstitutionalized patients except:
A)general ill condition of institutionalized patients.
B)less frequent emptying of the bladder.
C)higher probability of urinary tract instrumentation.
D)higher incidence of urinary tract anatomic or functional abnormalities.
Q3) What organisms growing in a urine culture can be considered contaminants?
A)Enterobacteriaceae
B)Streptococcus spp.
C)Fungus
D)Bacillus spp.
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Chapter 38: Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organism causes chancroid?
A)Treponema pallidum
B)Haemophilus ducreyi
C)Mobiluncus
D)Gardnerella vaginalis
Q2) How is genital herpes spread?
A)Hot tubs infected with herpes
B)Towels used by people with herpes
C)Contaminated toilet seats
D)Sexual contact with secretions from infected sites
Q3) All of the following conditions can occur in women with undiagnosed cervical gonorrhea except:
A)salpingitis.
B)endometritis.
C)pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
D)pharyngitis.
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Chapter 39: Infections in Special Populations
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Q1) Patients who have undergone organ transplant surgery may develop opportunistic infections 1 to 6 months after surgery caused by any of the following except:
A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)varicella-zoster virus.
C)influenzae virus.
D)hepatitis virus.
Q2) Patients with hematologic malignancies and those who have undergone surgery for tumors involving the head and spine may be at risk for developing:
A)meningitis.
B)septicemia.
C)pneumonia.
D)osteomyelitis.
Q3) All of the following factors contribute to an increased risk of infection except:
A)low leukocyte numbers.
B)decrease in cellular immune function.
C)splenectomy.
D)high levels of immunoglobulins.
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Chapter 40: Zoonotic Diseases
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Q1) Zoonotic infections that jump from animal to human and then can be transmitted human to human, include all the following except:
A)human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
B)tularemia.
C)Ebola virus.
D)severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
Q2) Rickettsial organisms, which cause disease in humans, are transmitted by which of the following methods?
A)Arthropod vectors
B)Aerosols
C)Fomite contact
D)Contact with body fluids
Q3) In the first phase of leptospirosis, humans exhibit all the following symptoms except: A)sudden temperature spikes.
B)hepatitis.
C)vivid pink eyes.
D)severe headaches.
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Chapter 41: Ocular Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What compromises vision and must be treated aggressively with antimicrobials or surgery?
A)Epithelial infection
B)Infection in Bowman's zone
C)Stromal infection
D)Perforation of Descemet's membrane
Q2) A layer of tears blankets the cornea to provide all of the following except:
A)waste elimination.
B)optical clarity.
C)lubrication.
D)nutrition.
Q3) A patient who makes her own saline solution for her contact lenses is examined at her physician's office because she has a blood red, infected right eye.The physician performs bacterial, fungal, and viral cultures, all of which are negative.What is the most probable cause of this infection?
A)Acanthamoeba spp.
B)Entamoeba spp.
C)Trypanosoma spp.
D)Leishmania spp.
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