Infectious Disease Diagnostics
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the principles and practices of diagnosing infectious diseases, focusing on the detection and identification of bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic pathogens. Students will learn about classical and modern diagnostic techniques, including microscopy, culture, serology, molecular methods, and point-of-care tests. Emphasis is placed on understanding specimen selection, laboratory workflow, test interpretation, and the role of diagnostics in clinical decision-making and public health. Case studies and real-world applications highlight the challenges and advances in diagnosing emerging and re-emerging infectious diseases.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 14th Edition by Patricia Tille
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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Q1) A bacterium that has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas)to another genus (Burkholderia)would be correctly noted as which one of the following?
A)Pseudomonas (Burkholderia)
B)Burkholderia (Pseudomonas)
C)Pseudomonas,formerly Burkholderia
D)Burkholderia,formerly Pseudomonas
Answer: B
Q2) The most basic taxonomic group that can be defined as a collection of bacterial strains that share many common physiologic and genetic features is:
A)genus.
B)species.
C)class.
D)kingdom.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, metabolism, and Structure
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Q1) Transduction is defined as the:
A)change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another.
B)internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism's genome.
C)process by which genetic elements such as plasmids and transposons excise from one genomic location and insert into another.
D)mechanism that is mediated by viruses,by which DNA from two bacteria may come together in one cell,thus allowing for recombination.
Answer: D
Q2) A pathway that generates ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation that does not require oxygen and produces various end products,including alcohols,acids,carbon dioxide,and hydrogen,is:
A)substrate-level phosphorylation.
B)fermentative metabolism.
C)oxidative phosphorylation.
D)aerobic respiration.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) The persistent survival of microorganisms on a surface of the human body is called a(n):
A)infection.
B)colonization.
C)nosocomial infection.
D)reservoir.
Answer: B
Q2) A bacterium that normally colonizes the skin gains access through a laceration and causes infection.This type of infection is classified as:
A)nosocomial.
B)opportunistic.
C)nonpathogenic.
D)immunogenic.
Answer: B
Q3) An example of antibody-mediated immunity is:
A)phagocytosis.
B)macrophage release.
C)T-cell activation.
D)B-cell activation.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) Decontaminating and disinfecting surfaces may result in a decreased removal of contaminating organisms when used in combination.This is due to the fact that:
A)agents are all synergistic and should not be of concern in the laboratory.
B)agents mixed together may actually inactivate each other or create harmful chemicals resulting in additional hazards.
C)agents are antagonistic and will not be as effective.
D)agents are already premixed to maximize sterilization.
Q2) Standard Precautions in the microbiology laboratory apply to:
A)all clinical specimens.
B)clinical specimens that contain blood or body fluids.
C)blood,body fluids,feces,sputum,saliva,urine,and vomitus.
D)only specimens that are visibly bloody.
Q3) The classification of Biological Agents and the use of safety precautions is based on all of the criteria listed except:
A)creation of aerosols during processing and infective dose.
B)availability of treatment.
C)the level of disease or seriousness of the infection.
D)the biological structure of the organism.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Selection of culture media for specific specimens includes a variety of media for all of the following reasons except:
A)a nutritive media is included to insure growth of all potential pathogens.
B)a selective media is often included to suppress normal microbiota or other potential contaminating organisms.
C)as enrichment media is utilized to cultivate organisms that do not grow on routine media.
D)a back-up broth is included to provide inoculum for additional testing.
Q2) The appropriate storage for a cerebral spinal fluid specimen is ____°C.
A)4
B)22
C)37
D)-70
Q3) The microbiologist receives a sputum specimen for culture in the microbiology laboratory.Upon receipt the microbiologist should:
A)complete the set-up of media for identification of pathogens.
B)complete a direct Gram stain and preliminary report.
C)complete an abbreviated work-up of the specimen.
D)complete a culture and definitive identification of pathogens.
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) Magnifications in excess of 100,000 times are achieved by ________ microscopy?
A)bright-field
B)electron
C)dark-field
D)phase-contrast
Q2) The most critical step in the Gram stain is the application of the:
A)safranin.
B)crystal violet.
C)Gram's iodine.
D)Gram's decolorizer.
Q3) When preparing a smear from a viscous and granular sample the microbiologist should:
A)add saline to the sample to thin out the specimen for smear preparation.
B)place some of the material in an enrichment broth and then use the broth for smear preparation.
C)use a sterile swab and roll it around in the material because it will be easier to roll the sample than to use a loop on the slide.
D)if the material is not able to be distributed using a sterile loop or swab,use a squash or crush prep to spread out sample.
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Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) The limit of detection in the microbiology laboratory is termed:
A)specificity.
B)sensitivity.
C)precision.
D)variation.
Q2) Media function testing should be performed on commercially prepared media when:
A)organisms expected to grow on the media demonstrate growth.
B)daily as required.
C)on all new lots of media.
D)only when the identity and growth characteristics appear abnormal.
Q3) Which medium can be described as containing hemoglobin,hemin (X factor),and the co-enzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)(V factor)?
A)Chocolate
B)CNA blood
C)BHI
D)Thioglycollate broth
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) Which type of hybridization method would be the optimal choice to use to detect a lesion infected with a particular virus?
A)Southern
B)In situ
C)Peptide nucleic acid
D)Sandwich
Q2) Target nucleic acid amplification (polymerase chain reaction [PCR])methods are based on:
A)the ability of two nucleic acid strands that have complementary base sequences to bond specifically with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.
B)detecting phenotypic traits not detectable by conventional strategies.
C)the principles of complementary nucleic acid hybridization with those of nucleic acid replication that are repeatedly applied through numerous cycles.
D)determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an organism.
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Chapter 9: Overview of Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection
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Q1) The precipitin test that involves antigen and antibody diffusing toward each other,producing a visible precipitin band at the point at which they meet,is referred to as:
A)double immunodiffusion.
B)counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C)particle agglutination.
D)enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) A pregnant woman had contact with her nephew who was just diagnosed with a rubella infection.Acute and convalescent samples were taken,which resulted in an acute titer of 1:16 and a convalescent titer of 1:32.Which one of the following comments explains the risk to the fetus?
A)The risk is low;a fourfold rise in titer is not present.
B)The risk is high;more than a fourfold rise is present in titer.
C)The risk is high because both titers are elevated.
D)Rubella is not a congenital disease;therefore the test should not have been ordered.
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Chapter 10: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Q1) Tetracycline
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
Q2) Gentamicin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
Q3) Antimicrobial agents that inhibit bacterial growth but generally do not kill the organism are known as:
A)bactericidal.
B)antibiotic.
C)bacteriostatic.
D)antagonistic.
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Chapter 11: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) Staphylococcal resistance to oxacillin is used to determine and report resistance to: A)aminoglycosides.
B)cephalosporins.
C)vancomycin.
D)amikacin.
Q2) As a result of the organism going through several doubling generations of growth before inhibition,a haze of bacterial growth occurs on the agar around the disk.This phenomenon,which should be ignored,can be observed when testing which class of antibiotics?
A)Aminoglycosides
B)Sulfonamides
C)Penicillins
D)Cephalosporins
Q3) The concentrations in a broth dilution test that separate the categories of susceptible,intermediate,and resistant are called:
A)border concentrations.
B)tolerance limits.
C)breakpoints.
D)reference values.
13
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Chapter 12: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following methods combines nucleic acid amplification testing and mass spectrometry (MS)for identification of S.aureus and MRSA?
A)Serodiagnosis
B)CHROMagar
C)The Xpert MRSA/SA test
D)PCR/ESI-MS
Q2) The Staphylococcaceae staphylococcus that is more likely to cause uncomplicated urinary tract infections in nonhospitalized hosts,especially sexually active young women,is:
A)S.saprophyticus.
B)S.aureus.
C)S.epidermidis.
D)S.intermedius.
Q3) Which group of bacteria is described as catalase positive and is gram-positive cocci that grow facultatively anaerobic and form grapelike clusters?
A)Neisseria
B)Rothia (stomatococci)
C)Staphylococcus
D)Micrococcus
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which species of bacteria is responsible for causing diseases such as rheumatic fever,glomerulonephritis,and exudative pharyngitis?
A)Streptococcus agalactiae
B)S.pyogenes
C)S.pneumoniae
D)Enterococcus
Q2) Optochin,PYR,bile solubility,esculin,and 6.5% NaCl are tests most likely performed on a(n)_______ Streptococcus.
A) alpha-hemolytic
B) beta-hemolytic
C) gamma-hemolytic
D)non-hemolytic
Q3) When performing the CAMP test,what bacteria is steaked down the middle?
A)S.epidermidis
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)S.pyogenes
D)E.faecalis
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Chapter 14: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)are available that can serologically identify which Bacillus species?
A)B.cereus
B)B.subtilis
C)B.thuringiensis
D)B.anthracis
Q2) A patient diagnosed with B.anthracis is allergic to penicillin.Which antibiotic can be given that will be therapeutically effective?
A)Ampicillin
B)Ciprofloxacin
C)Imipenem
D)Vancomycin
Q3) Media that can be used for isolating Bacillus anthracis include:
A)Thayer-Martin agar.
B)5% sheep blood agar.
C)MacConkey agar.
D)Columbia blood agar with colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA).
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Chapter 15: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Quality control is set up on urea media.Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of the media?
A)C.ulcerans and C.diphtheria
B)C.diphtheria and Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)C.ulcerans and Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
D)C.glucuronolyticum and C.ulcerans
Q2) A middle-aged women presented to the emergency room complaining of cramping and gastrointestinal discomfort.She had recently attended a family reunion the past weekend.The event was a picnic where potato salad,hamburgers,deviled eggs,hot dogs and chips were served.A feces culture was requested resulting in no growth.What would be the next recommended follow-up testing?
A)Serologic testing for IgM and IgG
B)No follow-up testing required
C)Collect an additional specimen and attempt to cultivate on specialized media
D)Treat the patient with ampicillin
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Chapter 16: Erysipelothrix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-negative,non-spore forming,nonbranching,gram-positive rod that produces hydrogen sulfide when inoculated into triple sugar iron (TSI)agar is most likely:
A)Corynebacterium.
B)Bacillus.
C)Actinomyces.
D)Erysipelothrix.
Q2) The reverse Christie,Atkins,Munch-Petersen (CAMP)test is positive for these curved gram-positive bacilli.Which -hemolytic organism is used in conjunction with this organism in the reverse CAMP test?
A)Streptococcus pyogenes
B)S.agalactiae
C)S.saprophyticus
D)S.aureus
Q3) Clue cells are associated with which gram-positive bacilli?
A)G.vaginalis
B)Lactobacillus
C)Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D)A.haemolyticum
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Chapter 17: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which organisms should be used to run quality control for acid-fast stains?
A)Nocardia and Rhodococcus
B)Streptomyces and Actinomadura
C)Dermatophilus and Nocardiopsis
D)Nocardia and Streptomyces
Q2) The group of bacteria that can be described as being normal inhabitants of soil and water and primarily responsible for the decomposition of plant material is:
A)Rhodococcus.
B)Nocardia.
C)Gordonia.
D)Tsukamurella.
Q3) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend into the air that are called _____ hyphae.
A)surface
B)substrate
C)aerial
D)topical
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Chapter 18: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) For the most part,all Enterobacteriaceae are positive for which biochemical reactions?
A)Glucose,oxidase,and catalase
B)Glucose,indole,and oxidase
C)Glucose,reduce nitrates to nitrites,and oxidase
D)Glucose,catalase,and reduce nitrates to nitrites
Q2) Enterotoxigenic and enteroinvasive are terms often linked to which of the following bacterial species?
A)E.coli
B)S.enteritidis
C)S.sonnei
D)Yersinia pestis
Q3) A gram-negative bacillus that is hydrogen sulfide (H S)-positive,citrate-positive,spot indole-negative,and associated with gastroenteritis in the United States is most likely: A)K.pneumoniae.
B)P.vulgaris.
C)Salmonella enteritidis.
D)S.sonnei.
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Chapter 19: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) Plump coccobacilli that tend to resist alcohol decolorization and may be mistaken for Neisseria spp.are:
A)Bordetella spp.
B)S.maltophilia.
C)Acinetobacter spp.
D)P.oryzihabitans.
Q2) Which organism is oxidase-negative,oxidizes glucose,and is a nonlactose fermenter?
A)Escherichia
B)Pseudomonas
C)Acinetobacter
D)Moraxella
Q3) The natural habitat of Acinetobacter sp.can best be described as the:
A)mucous membranes of animals.
B)gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)natural environment.
D)genitourinary tract of animals.
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Chapter 20: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) PC agar is a selective media for isolation of B.cepacia.What is the purpose of the polymixin B and ticarcillin in the media?
A)They provide nutrients to enrich the growth of B.cepacia.
B)They cause color change in the media from yellow to pink.
C)They inhibit growth of gram-positive and other gram-negative organisms.
D)They stabilize the media to support growth if prolonged incubation is needed.
Q2) Which combination of nonfermenting gram-negative bacilli are oxidase positive,but do not grow on MacConkey agar within 24 to 48 hours.
A)B.cepacia and Pseudomonas stutzeri
B)Brevundimonas dimunuta and Pseudomonas veronii
C)P.aeruginosa and R.insidiosa
D)B.vesicularis and Acidovorax facilis
Q3) Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of urea agar for quality control purposes?
A)P.fluorescens and B.cepacia complex
B)Ralstonia mannitolilytica and Acidovorax delafieldii
C)Brevundimonas diminuta and Brevundimonas vesicularis
D)B.vesicularis and R.pickettii
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Chapter 21: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following organisms has clear colonies on MacConkey agar,oxidizes glucose and xylose,and has the ability to hydrolyze esculin?
A)Alcaligenes xylosoxidans
B)Paracoccus yeei
C)Rhizobium radiobacter
D)Shewanella putrefaciens
Q2) The most common type of infection caused by both R.radiobacter and Ochrobactrum anthropi is:
A)peritonitis.
B)endocarditis.
C)meningitis.
D)bacteremia.
Q3) Which organism is a nonlactose-fermenter that oxidizes glucose and xylose and also morphologically resembles colonies of Enterobacteriaceae?
A)CDC group Ic
B)O.anthropi
C)S.putrefaciens
D)A.xylosoxidans
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Chapter 22: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A patient receiving hemodialysis began spiking a fever shortly after his treatment.Blood cultures were drawn and grew out the following gram-negative rods that were indole positive with variable results for urea,nitrate reduction,and gelatin.The organism is most likely:
A)E.meningoseptica.
B)E.brevis.
C)CDC group O-1.
D)Chryseobacterium spp.
Q2) This organism is often associated with infections in patients with leukemia or lymphoma,as well as preterm infants:
A)S.multivorum
B)C.indologenes
C)E.meningoseptica
D)Bergevella zoohelicum
Q3) The natural habitat of the bacterium Sphingobacterium is:
A)environment.
B)animal oral and respiratory flora.
C)environment,cold climates.
D)human normal flora.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The organism most frequently associated with various infections in humans is:
A)Bordetella.
B)Oligella.
C)Achromobacter.
D)Roseomonas.
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Achromobacter,Alcaligenes,and Bordetella?
A)The habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)The habitats vary from the soil and water environment to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)The habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)The habitats are limited to the mucous membranes of humans and animals.
Q3) Gram-stain morphologic features,motility,and flagellar placement are important identifying characteristics of:
A)Chryseobacterium.
B)Flavobacterium.
C)Pseudomonas.
D)Bordetella.
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Chapter 24: Vibrio, aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Vibrio spp. ,Aeromonas spp. ,Plesiomonas shigelloides,and Chromobacterium violaceum?
A)Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)Habitats are limited to the gastrointestinal tract.
C)Habitats are mostly soil and water environment.
D)Habitats are limited mostly to soil.
Q2) Profuse watery diarrhea (i.e. ,"rice water stools"),leading to dramatic fluid loss,severe dehydration,and hypotension that frequently leads to death,is the hallmark of which toxin activity?
A)Cholera toxin (CT)
B)Enteric endotoxin
C)Shiga toxin
D)Toxin A
Q3) Transmission of P.shigelloides to humans is by:
A)exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B)ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with carriers of the organism.
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Chapter 25: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) When performing quality control on motility media,which of the following organisms should be used?
A)Acidovorax facilis and Sphingomonas spp.
B)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)group IIc and CDC group IIe
C)CDC group Iii and Sphingobacterium mizutaii
D)CDC group IIh and A.facilis
Q2) Oxidase-positive,glucose-positive (oxidatively)gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include:
A)Pseudomonas.
B)Vibrio.
C)Stenotrophomonas.
D)Sphingomonas.
Q3) Although no definitive guidelines are available for the treatment of Sphingomonas paucimobilis infections,which antibiotic appears to have potential activity against this organism?
A)Penicillin
B)Ttrimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C)Amoxicillin and Flagyl
D)Isoniazid and Imipenem
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Moraxella
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Q1) Testing for differentiation of M.nonliquefaciens and M.osloensis can best be performed by:
A)the ability to utilize acetate.
B)the ability to liquefy serum.
C)glucose utilization tests.
D)growth on MacConkey agar.
Q2) The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections,primarily of the respiratory tract,is: A)M.catarrhalis.
B)Moraxella lacunata.
C)Moraxella canis.
D)Moraxella atlantae.
Q3) True cocci,such as most Neisseria spp.and Moraxella catarrhalis,can be differentiated from morphologically similar Moraxella species by:
A)comparing the penicillin susceptibility testing results of the bacteria.
B)subjecting the bacterium to noninhibitory concentrations of penicillin.
C)identifying the resistance of Moraxella to many -lactam antimicrobial agents.
D)performing the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)test.
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Chapter 27: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Of the asaccharolytic,oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar,which one of the following organisms is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
Q2) E.corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its: A)pink pigmentation.
B)grapelike odor.
C)large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.
D)bleachlike odor.
Q3) Quality control performed on indole reagent should be performed on which two organisms?
A)E.corrodens and Methylobacterium spp.
B)W.virosa and Bergeyella zoohelcum
C)B.zoohelcum and Escherichia coli
D)E.corrodens and W.virosa
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29
Chapter 28: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) An organism that causes infection as a result of a dog or cat bite was tested for catalase,resulting in a positive reaction.What could be the possible source of the error?
A)The catalase reagent could be expired.
B)This organism is normally negative for catalase;therefore a mutation may have occurred.
C)A false-positive result occurred because of the catalase production of the red blood cells in the 5% sheep blood agar.
D)No error is present.This organism is catalase-positive.
Q2) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A)Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis
B)M.haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica
C)P.multocida and Suttonella indologenes
D)Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae
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Chapter 29: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which organism is slightly a-hemolytic after 48 hours and is commonly associated with individuals with anatomic heart defects?
A)K.kingae
B)C.hominis
C)A.suis
D)Capnocytophaga spp.
Q2) K.denitrificans,which is nonhemolytic and tends to pit the agar,also grows on selective media that support the growth of which gram-negative diplococci?
A)Capnocytophaga spp.
B)C.hominis
C)A.aphrophilus
D)N.gonorrhoeae
Q3) Which of the following biochemical reactions identifies an organism associated with blood,bone,and joint infections in young children?
A)Positive catalase,positive nitrate reduction,and positive indole
B)Negative catalase,positive nitrate reduction,and positive indole
C)Negative catalase,negative nitrate reduction,and positive indole
D)Negative catalase,negative nitrate reduction,and negative indole
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Chapter 30: Haemophilus
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Q1) The virulence of this organism,which causes chancroid,is most likely attributed to: A)proteases.
B)capsular factors.
C)hemolysins.
D)catalase.
Q2) Growth of most Haemophilus species in culture is enhanced by:
A)incubation at 33°C to 35°C.
B)high humidity.
C)5% to 10% carbon dioxide (CO ).
D)enriched special media.
Q3) H.ducreyi requires what special media to grow?
A)Heart infusion-based agar,supplemented with 10% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin
B)Mueller-Hinton-based chocolate agar,supplemented with 1% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin
C)Heart infusion-based chocolate agar,supplemented with 10% fetal bovine serum and vancomycin
D)Mueller-Hinton-based agar,supplemented with 10% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Although molecular methods are available,such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species,limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of:
A)probes.
B)polymerases.
C)primers.
D)restriction enzymes.
Q2) Bacteremia,endocarditis,bacillary angiomatosis,cat-scratch disease,and peliosis hepatis can all be caused by:
A)Afipia felis.
B)Bartonella quintana.
C)B.clarridgeiae.
D)B.henselae.
Q3) Trench fever,bacteremia,endocarditis,chronic lymphadenopathy,and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:
A)A.felis.
B)B.quintana.
C)B.clarridgeiae.
D)B.henselae.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Curved,microaerophilic,gram-negative rods,with most species having strong urease activity and the majority of which colonize mammalian stomachs or intestines,describe which group of bacteria?
A)Campylobacter
B)Helicobacter
C)Arcobacter
D)Enterobacter
Q2) A gram-negative,spiral-shaped organism is isolated from a stool sample that was hippurate-positive,catalase-positive,susceptible to nalidixic acid,and resistant to cephalothin.The organism can be identified as:
A)Campylobacter coli.
B)C.jejuni subsp.doylei.
C)C.jejuni subsp.jejuni.
D)C.fetus subsp.fetus.
Q3) Virulence determinants of H.pylori include:
A)proteases.
B)urease enzyme.
C)hemolysins.
D)exotoxins.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Legionella
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Q1) Who is at most risk to develop legionnaires' disease?
A)65-year-old transplant recipient
B)14 year old swimming in a lake
C)90 year old living in an apartment complex
D)Newborn baby to a mother infected with hepatitis
Q2) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)faintly staining,thin gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) An elderly man with chronic heart and lung disease develops Legionella pneumonia.By what route was the infection most likely to have been acquired?
A)Respiratory route,from an infected person
B)Inhalation of aerosolized water from a source containing protozoa
C)Inhalation of spores from moldy hay
D)Exposure to livestock or animal products
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Chapter 34: Brucella
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Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable,which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?
A)Penicillin and azithromycin
B)Ampicillin and gentamycin
C)Doxycycline and rifampin
D)Gentamycin and vancomycin
Q3) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:
A)dairy farmers.
B)fishermen.
C)prison guards.
D)those working with exotic birds.
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Chapter 35: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) Which of the following toxins contributes to the virulence of B.pertussis and works by hemolyzing red cells and activating cyclic adenosine monophosphate,which inactivates several types of host immune cells?
A)Endotoxin
B)Pertussis toxin
C)Tracheal cytotoxin
D)Adenylate cyclase toxin
Q2) During the catarrhal stage of pertussis,symptoms are:
A)runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)vomiting and "whooping" as air is rapidly inspired into the lungs past a swollen glottis.
D)lymphocytosis and fever.
Q3) The mode of transmission of B.pertussis can best be described as:
A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with animals.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Francisella
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Q1) Which assay is available to identify F.tularensis serologically?
A)Complement fixation
B)Direct fluorescent antibody test
C)Immunodiffusion assays
D)Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)
Q2) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory,a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s)is necessary?
A)Cysteine and cystine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
Q3) Tularemia,characterized by glandular,ulceroglandular,oculoglandular,oropharyngeal,systemic,and pneumonic presentations,is caused by which of the following species?
A)Brucella
B)Bordetella
C)Pasteurella
D)Francisella
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Chapter 37: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) A laboratory assistant that works with mice recently noticed that their lymph nodes were swollen and that they had a lesion on their hand that was not there a few weeks ago.The lymph node tissue is sent to the laboratory for culture.The laboratory technologist noticed on the stained sample that there was an organism present that resembled a spiral,gram negative with flagella.The cultures grew no organisms.What is the most likely cause for the discrepancy?
A)The laboratory technologist misidentified the stain artifact as an organism.
B)The laboratory technologist did not culture the sample to media.
C)The organism is not able to grow on media and requires another method for identification.
D)The organism was not allowed to incubate long enough.
Q2) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:
A)sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)monillic fever.
D)monillic gastritis.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) The gram-negative coccus that can be described as oxidase-positive,glucose-negative,maltose-negative,sucrose-negative,lactose-negativ e,and DNase-positive is:
A)N.meningitidis.
B)M.catarrhalis.
C)Neisseria cinerea.
D)N.gonorrhoeae.
Q2) N.gonorrhoeae is spread by:
A)person-to-person nosocomial spread by respiratory droplets.
B)person-to-person spread by sexual contact.
C)from infected mother to newborn during birth.
D)B and C only.
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Neisseria are:
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-negative diplococci.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
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Chapter 39: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Urine via percutaneous aspiration is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
Q2) The indicator used to determine whether anaerobic conditions are achieved in an anaerobic jar is:
A)phenol red.
B)bromothymol blue.
C)methylene blue.
D)methyl red.
Q3) CCFA
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective;supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
Q4) Expectorated sputum is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
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Chapter 40: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) The most likely identification of kanamycin-sensitive and anaerobic gram-negative bacilli that fluoresce a chartreuse color is:
A)Fusobacterium spp.
B)nonpigmented Prevotella.
C)B.ureolyticus.
D)Porphyromonas spp.
Q2) B.fragilis group
A)Are kanamycin-resistant,colistin-resistant,and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)Are bile-sensitive,kanamycin-resistant,catalase-negative,and indole-negative
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate,and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin,and fluoresce a chartreuse color
Q3) Fecal cultures to isolate Clostridium difficile are plated on:
A)anaerobic blood agar.
B)LKV blood agar.
C)aerobic 5% sheep blood agar.
D)cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA).
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Chapter 41: Mycobacteria
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Q1) Fluorescent staining is more sensitive than conventional carbolfuchsin stains.What counterstain is used during the procedure?
A)Methylene blue
B)Crystal violet
C)Potassium permanganate
D)Auramine-rhodamine
Q2) Known to cause an inflammatory bowel disease referred to as Johne's disease in cattle,sheep,and goats,which organism has been isolated from the bowel mucosa of patients with Crohn disease?
A)M.paratuberculosis
B)M.avium-intracellulare
C)Mycobacterium phlei
D)Mycobacterium lepraemurium
Q3) The most commonly isolated mycobacterium in the United States is:
A)M.tuberculosis.
B)M.bovis.
C)Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare.
D)Mycobacterium paratuberculosis.
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Chapter 42: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) Which of the following vectors transmit scrub typhus?
A)Lice
B)Ticks
C)Fleas
D)Chiggers
Q2) The C.burnetii,an acute systemic infection,primarily affects the lungs and can exist in two antigenic states.The reference method that is both highly specific and sensitive and is recommended for identification is:
A)immunofluorescent antibody (IFA).
B)direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C)Western blot.
D)latex agglutination.
Q3) A prokaryote that differs from most other bacteria with respect to its very small size and obligates intracellular parasitism is:
A)Rickettsia.
B)Bartonella.
C)Calymmatobacterium.
D)Coxiella.
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Chapter 43: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Which of the following Mycoplasma species is associated with individuals who are positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV),is capable of invading human cells,and can modulate the immune system?
A)M.pneumoniae
B)M.genitalium
C)M.hominis
D)Mycoplasma fermentans
Q2) The natural habitat of Mycoplasma spp. ,which causes infectious disease in humans,can best be described as the:
A)mucous membranes of humans.
B)aquatic environment.
C)natural environment.
D)genitourinary tract of animals.
Q3) Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?
A)Chlamydia
B)Mycoplasma
C)Rickettsia
D)Coxiella
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Chapter 44: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Nontreponemal antibodies are those that are:
A)produced against antigens of the organisms themselves.
B)produced by infected patients against components of mammalian cells.
C)produced by the organism that causes the systemic destruction of the disease.
D)also called heterophile antibodies.
Q2) Isoluminol-antigen conjugate
A)TP-PA
B)MHA-TP
C)PaGIA
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E)Magnetic beads
Q3) An automated system uses bead-capture technology in the detection of which of the following spirochetes?
A)Treponema
B)Borrelia
C)Leptospira
D)Brachyspira
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Chapter 45: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Parasitology
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Q1) This protozoa has a trophozoite stage but no cyst stage and reproduces via longitudinal binary fission.The parasite belongs to which category?
A)Amebae
B)Flagellates
C)Ciliates
D)Microsporidia
Q2) A bone marrow aspirate is examined for the presence of parasites from a patient who has been traveling in Latin America for several months and who came in contact with a triatomid bug.Which parasite will most likely be identified?
A)Trypanosoma cruzi
B)D.fragilis
C)Fasciola hepatica
D)Chilomastix mesnili
Q3) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Paragonimus infection is: A)sputum.
B)blood.
C)urine.
D)stool.
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Chapter 46: Intestinal Protozoa
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Q1) This flagellate is pear-shaped with "falling leaf" motility.It contains variant-specific surface proteins (VSPs)on its surface,which provide a mechanism for the organism to survive in the small intestine as a result of its ability to resist intestinal proteases.The organism is:
A)G.duodenalis.
B)C.mesnili.
C)D.fragilis.
D)E.hominis.
Q2) A tissue sample is sent to the laboratory and microscopically examined for the presence of amebae.To differentiate between the host cells and the organism,_______ stain is used to allow the organisms to appear bright pink with a green-blue background.
A)Trichrome
B)Giemsa
C)Wright's
D)periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
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Chapter 47: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
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Q1) P.knowlesi
A)Normal shape and size
B)Normal shape;size may be normal or slightly smaller
C)1.5 to 2.0 times larger than normal;oval to normal
D)60% of cells are larger than normal and oval
Q2) P.falciparum
A)Normal shape and size
B)Normal shape;size may be normal or slightly smaller
C)1.5 to 2.0 times larger than normal;oval to normal
D)60% of cells are larger than normal and oval
Q3) Resistance to chloroquine and mefloquine has been identified in which Plasmodium spp.?
A)P.ovale
B)P.vivax
C)P.falciparum
D)P.malariae
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Chapter 48: Protozoa From Other Body Sites
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Q1) Tachyzoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
Q2) Bradyzoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
Q3) Laboratory diagnosis of T.gondii is confirmed by:
A)Giemsa stain.
B)tissue culture.
C)serologic testing.
D)Western blot.
Q4) Tissues suspected of containing Acanthamoeba cysts can be observed using various stains.A cyst that stains black has most likely been stained with the __________ stain.
A)methenamine silver
B)periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
C)Giemsa
D)Wright's
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Chapter 49: Intestinal Nematodes
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Q1) A 4-year-old boy attended day care 3 days per week.He was irritable,and his parents noticed that he had persistent perianal itching.A sticky paddle was pressed against the perianal region and sent to the laboratory for testing.The eggs microscopically observed would most likely have which one of the following morphologic features?
A)Long with a short buccal cavity
B)Thin shell with internal granules
C)Bipolar plugs
D)Flat-sided,football-shaped
Q2) The eggs of the A.lumbricoides worm are ingested and hatched in the duodenum,penetrate the intestinal wall,and migrate to the hepatic portal circulation.Its geographic distribution and infection rate are associated with:
A)institutional crowding.
B)poor sanitation.
C)day care centers.
D)moist warm soil.
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Chapter 50: Tissue Nematodes
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Q1) Swine
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q2) Crabs
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q3) A child is believed to have a Toxocara cati infection in his eye,which he acquired after playing with a stray cat for several weeks.A serum titer was performed,which revealed a titer of 1:8.This laboratory value can be interpreted as:
A)normal.
B)insignificant.
C)diagnostic.
D)negative.
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52
Chapter 51: Blood Nematodes
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Q1) A skin snip is performed,and microfilariae with tapered tails,no nuclei,and unsheathed are microscopically observed.The recommended therapy for this infection is:
A)ivermectin.
B)diethylcarbamazine.
C)antihistamines.
D)mebendazole.
Q2) O.volvulus
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
Q3) Chyluria is a result of lymphatic rupture and fluid entering the urine.Another lymphatic condition caused by W.bancrofti is:
A)calabar swelling.
B)elephantiasis.
C)river blindness.
D)pruritic rash.
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Chapter 52: Intestinal Cestodes
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Q1) The T.solium organism,which causes cysticercosis and can grow to be 1.5 to 8 meters long,contains 7 to 13 lateral uterine branches along the proglottid.The intermediate host is:
A)dogs.
B)cats.
C)pigs.
D)cattle.
Q2) The Diphyllobothrium latum tapeworm can reach up to 10 meters in length and can have more than 3000 to 4000 proglottids.The definitive host and reservoir host,respectively,are:
A)fish and copepods.
B)crustaceans and humans.
C)copepods and crustaceans.
D)humans and fish.
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54
Chapter 53: Tissue Cestodes
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Q1) Fur trappers and veterinarians are at an increased risk for this infection by being exposed to infected animals.The intermediate hosts of the organism,E.multilocularis,are:
A)foxes.
B)coyotes.
C)rodents.
D)humans.
Q2) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?
A)T.solium
B)Echinococcus granulosus
C)Spirometra mansonoides
D)Echinococcus multilocularis
Q3) Epileptic seizures,headaches,and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:
A)positive direct fluorescent antibody test.
B)observance of eggs in the stool.
C)positive India ink stain.
D)identification of cysts in tissue.
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Chapter 54: Intestinal Trematodes
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Q1) The adult form of the fluke,Fasciolopsis buski,is elongated in shape and ranges from 20 to 75 mm long and 8 to 20 mm wide with an oral sucker at the anterior and a ventral sucker approximately midway to the posterior.The reservoir host for the fluke is: A)snails.
B)birds.
C)rodents.
D)dogs.
Q2) The Heterophyes heterophyes worm,which has a genital sucker that surrounds the genital pore,has a variety of reservoir hosts including dogs,cats,and birds and a second intermediate host of freshwater: A)snails. B)fish.
C)crabs. D)shrimp.
Q3) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater: A)fish. B)snails.
C)crabs.
D)crayfish.
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Chapter 55: Liver and Lung Trematodes
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Q1) Lung fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
Q2) The adult worm of Fasciola measures 2 to 5 cm by 0.8 to 1.3 cm with a cephalic cone at the anterior end that contains the oral sucker.The drug of choice to treat Fasciola infections is:
A)praziquantel.
B)triclabendazole.
C)albendazole.
D)benzimidazole.
Q3) Sheep liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
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Chapter 56: Blood Trematodes
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Q1) Rodents,marsupials,and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?
A)S.japonicum
B)S.haematobium
C)S.mansoni
D)Schistosoma intercalatum
Q2) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?
A)Schistosoma mansoni
B)Schistosoma japonicum
C)S.haematobium
D)Schistosoma mekongi
Q3) An egg of the organism of S.mansoni is isolated from the feces of an adult man who has been traveling in Africa.An unoperculated egg with a large lateral spine is recovered.The patient is administered the standard dose of praziquantel;however,his infection does not improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)Metrifonate should have been administered.
B)Bilarcil is the drug of choice for this type of infection.
C)Steroids should have been initially administered.
D)A larger dose may be required to be effective against this organism.
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Chapter 57: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
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Q1) Urea agar is set up for quality control purposes using two Trichophyton spp.-T.mentagrophytes and T.rubrum.After the appropriate amount of incubation,both organisms are negative.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The medium is most likely expired.
B)These two Trichophyton spp.are poor choices for quality control.
C)The phenol red indicator is not working because both organisms are positive for urea.
D)No discrepancy is present;both organisms are negative for urease activity.
Q2) An example of a thermally monomorphic mold is:
A)P.marneffei.
B)S.schenckii.
C)Epidermophyton.
D)H.capsulatum.
Q3) A capsule and phenoloxidase melanin synthesis are virulence factors contributing to the pathogenicity of which of the following organisms?
A)Aspergillus spp.
B)P.brasiliensis
C)B.dermatitidis
D)C.neoformans
Page 59
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Chapter 58: Hyaline
Molds, Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunistic and Systemic Mycoses
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Q1) Which of the following Trichophyton spp.grows slowly (14 to 30 days)and best at 35°C to 37°C? In addition,enriched media with thiamine and inositol enhance its growth.
A)Trichophyton verrucosum
B)Trichophyton tonsurans
C)T.rubrum
D)T.mentagrophytes
Q2) Which genus is involved in infections of the skin and nails only?
A)Microsporum
B)Epidermophyton
C)Trichophyton
D)Scopulariopsis
Q3) A pulmonary fungus ball and external otomycosis and onychomycosis are all infections caused by which genera?
A)Fusarium
B)Penicillium
C)Paecilomyces
D)Aspergillus
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Chapter 59: Dematiaceious Molds
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Q1) An agricultural worker is punctured by a tool used in the field.An infection,characterized by the development of a papule that is similar to a cauliflower appearance,develops.The worker is most likely suffering from which type of infection?
A)Mycetoma
B)Chromoblastomycosis
C)Tinea nigra
D)Black piedra
Q2) Conidiophores bear a chain of large brown conidia,resembling a drumstick,and contain both horizontal and longitudinal septa.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladophialophora
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
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Chapter 60: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pjirovecii
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Q1) Which type of molecular assay has been developed to identify P.jirovecii?
A)Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)
B)Strand displacement amplification (SDA)
C)Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
D)Real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Q2) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A)Bradyzoite
B)Trophozoite
C)Sporocyte
D)Cyst
Q3) Which therapy has decreased the incident of pneumocystis infection in patients with human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS)?
A)Metronidazole
B)Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C)Aminoglycosides with fluconazole
D)Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)
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Chapter 61: The Yeasts
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Q1) A patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)notices skin lesions on his back that have begun to ulcerate.Upon physical examination,his physician also notices hepatomegaly that is most likely caused by hepatitis.The physician prescribes antifungal therapy to prevent the dissemination of which of the following yeasts?
A)C.albicans
B)C.neoformans
C)C.glabrata
D)C.tropicalis
Q2) Determining urease activity and growth on niger seed agar is helpful in determining which type of yeast?
A)C.albicans
B)Trichosporon
C)C.neoformans
D)M.furfur
Q3) White piedra
A)Trichosporon spp.
B)C.albicans
C)M.furfur
D)C.neoformans
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Chapter
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Q1) Inhibits protein synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q2) Binds microtubular proteins
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q3) Interferes with ergosterol synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
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Chapter 63: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
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Q1) A 2-year-old girl is suspected of having a rotavirus infection.The specimen of choice to collect to identify the agent is:
A)stool.
B)blood.
C)urine.
D)throat.
Q2) Skin and mucous membranes
A)Varicella-zoster virus
B)Enterovirus
C)Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D)Parainfluenza virus
E)CMV
Q3) Blood
A)Adenovirus
B)HSV
C)HBV
D)Arbovirus
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Chapter 64: Viruses in Human Disease
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Q1) Herpangina
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
Q2) Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are surface glycoproteins associated with what family of viruses?
A)Parvovividae
B)Orthomyxoviridae
C)Picornaviridae
D)Caliciviridae
Q3) The term used to describe a virus that causes a global outbreak of serious illness of which little natural immunity exists and that has sustained person-to-person transmission is:
A)epidemic.
B)pandemic.
C)endemic.
D)widespread.
Q4) Hand-foot-mouth
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
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Chapter 65: Antiviral Therapy Susceptibility Testing and Prevention
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Q1) Inhibits viral DNA synthesis.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
Q2) Emtricitabine
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
Q3) Quantifies the amount of viruses infected in cells.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
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Chapter 66: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) Granulicatella spp.and Abiotrophia spp.are dependent on which nutritional additive for optimal growth?
A)Vitamin K
B)Vitamin B
C)Vitamin B
D)Vitamin D
Q2) If tachyzoites are found circulating in blood,then the infection would be classified as a:
A)parasitemia.
B)bacteremia.
C)viremia.
D)fungemia.
Q3) Which virus found in the blood involves infecting certain T lymphocytes and possibly macrophages?
A)Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
B)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
C)Rubella virus
D)Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
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Chapter 67: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) The nasal hairs,convoluted passages,and mucous lining of the nasal turbinates:
A)nonspecifically protect the respiratory tract from infection.
B)promote colonization of normal bacterial flora.
C)can aid adherence by potentially harmful bacteria.
D)reduce colonization of normal bacterial flora.
Q2) One of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age is:
A)C.pneumoniae.
B)M.pneumoniae.
C)S.pneumoniae.
D)respiratory syncytial virus.
Q3) The most common etiologic agent of lower respiratory tract infection among adults younger than 30 years of age is:
A)Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
B)Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D)Haemophilus influenzae.
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Chapter 68: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Vincent angina
A)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,rhinovirus,and other viruses
B)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,Mycoplasma
C)H.influenza
D)S.pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium,Bacteroides,and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q2) Rhinitis
A)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,rhinovirus,and other viruses
B)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,Mycoplasma
C)H.influenza
D)S.pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium,Bacteroides,and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
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Chapter 69: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) The most common source(s)of infection in the central nervous system (CNS)is(are):
A)hematogenous spread.
B)infections at other sites such as otitis media.
C)organisms gaining access because of anatomic defects in CNS structures.
D)bacteria that are able to travel along nerves leading to the brain.
Q2) A collective term used for the three layers of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the:
A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
Q3) The innermost membrane layer surrounding the brain and spinal column is the: A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
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Chapter 70: Infections of the Eyes ears and Sinuses
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Q1) Canaliculitis
A)H.influenzae and S.pneumoniae
B)Bacteria,viruses,and occasionally lice
C)S.aureus,S.pneumoniae,and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium,including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S.aureus and S.pyogenes
Q2) Dacryoadenitis
A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
Q3) The organism that can be encountered in the conjunctival sac and that exists as indigenous flora is:
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B)Bacteroides fragilis.
C)Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Moraxella lacunata.
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Chapter 71: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) The term acute urethral syndrome is used to describe a syndrome of symptoms that include:
A)greater than 105 colony-forming units of bacteria per milliliter (CFU/mL)of urine,dysuria,and frequent urination.
B)dysuria,frequency,and urgency but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture.
C)fever and flank pain,dysuria,vomiting,diarrhea,chills,increased heart rate,and lower abdominal pain.
D)dysuria,frequency and urgency along with tenderness and pain over the area of the bladder.
Q2) Mucosal antibacterial properties,a valvelike mechanism,host immune responses,and defensins are all host defense mechanisms found in the ______ tract.
A)digestive
B)upper respiratory
C)urinary
D)genital
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Chapter 72: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) An infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy is called:
A)PID.
B)bartholinitis.
C)cervicitis.
D)chorioamnionitis.
Q2) Prostatitis
A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Gardnerella,Prevotella spp. ,Porphyromonas spp. ,Peptostreptococcus spp. ,Mobiluncus spp.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E)N.gonorrhoeae and C.trachomatis
F)E.coli and other enteric organisms
G)Mumps virus
Q3) The predominant organism in vaginal secretions from normal women of reproductive age is:
A)lactobacilli.
B)Streptococcus agalactiae.
C)Enterobacteriaceae.
D)staphylococci.
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Chapter 73: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) XLD agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) MacConkey agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) The transport medium that best preserves the viability of most intestinal bacterial pathogens is:
A)buffered glycerol.
B)rectal culture swab.
C)Cary-Blair.
D)Campylobacter thioglycollate broth.
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Chapter 74: Skin soft Tissue and Wound Infections
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Q1) The causative agents of lumpy jaw are:
A)Clostridium spp.
B)Bacteroides spp.
C)Prevotella spp.
D)Actinomyces spp.
Q2) An abnormal passage between two organs or leading from an internal organ to the body surface is known as a:
A)fistula.
B)sinus tract.
C)necrotizing fascia.
D)decubitus.
Q3) The most predominant anaerobe isolated in animal bites is:
A)Veillonella spp.
B)Clostridium spp.
C)Prevotella spp.
D)Fusobacterium spp.
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Chapter
Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis accounting for approximately 70% of infections is:
A)Streptococcus pyogenes.
B)H.influenzae.
C)S.aureus.
D)Streptococcus mitis.
Q2) Human bites and animal bites caused by ________ and _________,respectively,can ultimately lead to an underlying bone infection.
A)Eikenella corrodens;Actinomyces spp.
B)Pasteurella multocida;Peptostreptococcus spp.
C)Prevotella spp. ;S.aureus
D)E.corrodens;P.multocida
Q3) Pericardial fluid may be inoculated in blood culture broth and processed as a blood culture,provided the broth contains which anticoagulant?
A)Heparin
B)Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
C)Citrate
D)Coumadin
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Chapter 76: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) In addition to recording the lot number,date received,condition received,and expiration date,antisera should be:
A)discarded after each use.
B)frozen upon arrival.
C)dated when opened.
D)tested by the supervisor first before anyone uses it.
Q2) Defining the process from the patient's perspective,which is what the patient knowingly pays for,or the attributes of service
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
Q3) Clinicians should always be notified of "panic values," that is,potentially life-threatening results.An example of a panic value is a(n):
A)elevated thyroid level.
B)positive urine culture.
C)positive blood culture.
D)elevated sodium level.
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Chapter 77: Infection Control
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Q1) An infection acquired by a hospitalized patient that was not present when he or she entered the hospital is referred to as a(n)_____ infection.
A)autonomous
B)nosocomial
C)opportunistic
D)septic
Q2) The classification of a surgical wound as dirty refers to a:
A)lack of cleanliness of the surgical instruments.
B)surgical wound in an emergency setting in which the cleansing protocol was not followed.
C)surgical wound that has become grossly infected.
D)large number of contaminating organisms at the wound site.
Q3) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing unique biologic or biochemical characteristics of the organism of interest is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriophage typing.
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Chapter 78: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) If a pinpoint colony on blood agar after 24 hours of incubation is isolated,and if the colony is oxidase-,urease-,and indole-negative,and also exhibits bipolar staining on Gram stain,then the suspect bioterror agent is most likely:
A)Bacillus anthracis.
B)Francisella tularensis.
C)Brucella spp.
D)Yersinia pestis.
Q2) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:
A)biosecurity.
B)bio crime.
C)microterrorism.
D)cactiterrorism.
Q3) In the three-tier Laboratory Response Network,confirmed bioterrorism agents should be sent to which laboratory?
A)Clinical
B)Sentinel
C)Reference
D)National
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