Infection Control in Healthcare Settings
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive overview of infection control principles and practices within healthcare settings. Students will explore the transmission and prevention of healthcare-associated infections, including the roles of hand hygiene, personal protective equipment, cleaning and disinfection, and standard precautions. Emphasis is placed on current guidelines, outbreak management, surveillance techniques, and the importance of a multidisciplinary approach in fostering a culture of safety. Real-world case studies and regulatory standards are used to reinforce understanding of risk assessment and the implementation of evidence-based strategies to protect patients, staff, and visitors in various healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology and Infection Control for Health Professionals 6th Edition by Gary Lee
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21 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Invisible World
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human immunodeficiency virus
A)has been present in the world for over a century.
B)has been largely controlled throughout the world.
C)only transmitted amongst men who have sex with men.
D)is a viral disease that is now mainly spread by insects.
E)destroys cells that are an integral part of the body's immune system.
Answer: E
Q2) Louis Pasteur contributed to our understanding of microorganisms by
A)demonstrating that they are present everywhere in the environment.
B)demonstrating that they can be destroyed by heat.
C)developing the process now known as pasteurisation.
D)disproving the concept of spontaneous generation.
E)all of the above.
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 2: Biological Reactions in Microbial Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins are made of
A)20 different peptides.
B)amino acids joined to amino bases.
C)10 different amino acids.
D)amino acids and glucose units.
E)amino acids joined by peptide bonds.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is not a primary metabolite?
A)Citric acid.
B)Vinegar.
C)Monosodium glutamate (MSG).
D)Aminoglycoside.
E)Aspartic acid.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria which are classified as Gram-positive
A)always form endospores.
B)do not have peptidoglycan in the cell wall.
C)appear blue/purple when stained with the Gram stain.
D)have a capsule to help absorb the stain.
E)all of the above.
Answer: C
Q2) The generation time of bacteria refers to
A)the time spent in the logarithmic phase of growth.
B)the time taken for a cell to reproduce itself.
C)the period before the bacteria start to grow.
D)how long it takes for a colony of bacteria to become visible on an agar plate.
E)the evolutionary period when bacteria first appeared.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Genes and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A codon is
A)a sequence of three nucleotide bases.
B)a sequence of four nucleotide bases.
C)a section of the ribosomal RNA.
D)the four nucleotide bases on transfer RNA.
E)the gene that directs protein synthesis.
Q2) A vaccine that is made from viral antigens produced in yeast cells
A)is likely to be a weaker type.
B)can only be used in animals.
C)is said to be plasmid-derived.
D)is a genetically engineered vaccine.
E)can treat a disease but not prevent it.
Q3) Biotechnology refers to
A)the various techniques for manipulating DNA.
B)the use of methods for harvesting microorganisms from nature.
C)the use of vaccines to prevent disease.
D)the use of antibiotics to treat disease.
E)the development of microorganisms that prevent disease.
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Chapter 5: Viruses and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bacteria contain a phage which is responsible for its virulence?
A)Corynebacterium diphtheria.
B)Bordetella pertussis.
C)Clostridium tetani.
D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
E)None of the above because bacteria don't need a phage for virulence.
Q2) The nucleic acid present in viruses is
A)single-stranded RNA.
B)double-stranded RNA.
C)single-stranded DNA.
D)double-stranded DNA.
E)any of the above.
Q3) The outbreak of a new strain of influenza that occurs each year is due to A)a lack of antiviral drugs.
B)climatic conditions which activate the virus.
C)a lack of influenza vaccine.
D)mutations in the influenza virus.
E)global travel.
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Chapter 6: Eucaryotic Microorganisms: Fungi, protozoa and
Multicellular Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Systemic mycoses may be fatal.
B)Candida albicans can cause systemic infections.
C)Opportunistic fungal infections occur in people with AIDS.
D)Fungal infections may be localised or systemic.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Moulds usually reproduce by
A)binary fission.
B)budding.
C)forming asexual spores.
D)schizogony.
E)forming gametes.
Q3) Which of the following is acquired by eating undercooked pork?
A)Filariasis.
B)Trichinosis.
C)Hydatids.
D)Hookworm.
E)Schistosomiasis.
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Chapter 7: Hostmicrobe Interactions and Principles of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Handwashing aims to remove which organisms from hands?
A)The normal microbiota.
B)The resident microbiota.
C)Commensals.
D)Transient contaminants.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following viruses is potentially associated with the development of cancer?
A)Human papilloma virus.
B)Epstein-Barr virus.
C)Human herpes virus 8.
D)Hepatitis B virus.
E)All of the above.
Q3) Which of the following factors influences the ability of a microorganism to cause disease?
A)Virulence of the microorganism.
B)Nutritional state of the host.
C)Immune status of the host.
D)Genetic predisposition of the host.
E)All of the above.
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Chapter 8: Epidemiology: How Diseases Are Spread
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pathogens that enter the body via the respiratory route
A)may produce symptoms in other parts of the body.
B)only cause infections in the lungs.
C)are almost always opportunistic pathogens.
D)are almost always bacteria.
E)are always readily identified by a throat swab.
Q2) The reservoir of an infection is
A)referred to as a fomite.
B)always a person who has the disease.
C)the habitat where the microorganisms can persist for long periods.
D)always another human or other animal.
E)the same as the source of the infection.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Pathogens that cause disease in humans cannot survive outside the human body.
B)Communicable diseases are only caused by pathogens which are able to survive outside the human body.
C)To cause disease pathogenic microorganisms must be transmitted directly from person to person.
D)Opportunistic pathogens always cause disease.
E)None of the above.
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Chapter 9: The Bodys Defence Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has an insufficient number of T helper cells
A)would have a reduced capacity to produce antibodies.
B)would have a reduced capacity to mount a specific immune response.
C)would have increased susceptibility to infections.
D)could have AIDS.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Reaction of antigen with IgE-sensitised mast cells causes
A)precipitation.
B)complement activation.
C)delayed hypersensitivity.
D)agglutination.
E)allergic reaction.
Q3) The B cell antigen receptor is
A)a cytokine.
B)an antigen.
C)a complement molecule.
D)CD4+ molecule.
E)an antibody molecule.
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11
Chapter 10: Pathogenic Mechanisms and Evasion
Strategies of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Certain bacteria are able to protect themselves from phagocytosis by
A)exiting the phagosome.
B)inhibiting fusion of lysosomes with the phagosome.
C)secreting leukocidins.
D)having an antiphagocytic capsule.
E)any of the above.
Q2) Influenza A virus can occasionally cause a major pandemic due to its ability to undergo
A)antigenic shift.
B)antigenic drift.
C)antigen deletion.
D)protein variation.
E)cellular transformation.
Q3) A bacterial capsule can increase an organism's virulence because it
A)breaks into fragments called endotoxins.
B)is toxic for phagocytes.
C)produces severe cytopathic effects.
D)helps the organism to evade phagocytosis.
E)specifically affects nerve cells.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Principles of Sterilisation and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) In terms of processing requirements,a bedpan would be classified as A)critical.
B)semi-critical.
C)non-critical.
D)high risk.
E)moderate risk.
Q2) The removal of microorganisms from an object with heat less than 100 C is called A)disinfection.
B)decontamination.
C)pasteurisation.
D)all of the above.
E)none of the above.
Q3) Sterilisation is a term used to describe the A)killing of pathogenic microorganisms only.
B)destruction or removal of all viable organisms.
C)prevention of infection by microorganisms.
D)reduction of the microbial population to safe levels.
E)swabbing of the skin before giving an injection.
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13
Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Literally,an antibiotic is
A)a substance that kills bacteria but not viruses.
B)a chemical that inhibits a microorganism,but doesn't necessarily kill it.
C)any substance that inhibits or kills a microorganism.
D)a substance produced by a microorganism that kills or inhibits other microorganisms.
E)none of the above.
Q2) Which of the following antibiotics does NOT inhibit cell wall synthesis?
A)Penicillin.
B)Vancomycin.
C)Carbapenem.
D)Gentamicin.
E)Cephalosporin.
Q3) The basis for the selective toxicity of tetracyclines is that they
A)are bacteriostatic.
B)bind strongly to bacterial ribosomes.
C)interfere with cell wall synthesis.
D)can be taken orally.
E)do not induce resistance.
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Chapter 13: Infection Control in Healthcare Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms means the absence of all disease-producing microorganisms?
A)Disinfection.
B)Antisepsis.
C)Barrier nursing.
D)Asepsis.
E)Sanitisation.
Q2) Standard Precautions are followed in hospitals because
A)most patients in hospitals are not a source of disease.
B)hospitals are extremely clean and thus special precautions are not required.
C)antibiotics cure most infections and so they are readily treated.
D)infectious patients do not always have obvious signs and symptoms.
E)it is important for patient care to be standardised.
Q3) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A)is commonly found in moist areas in the hospital environment.
B)often causes burns wound infections.
C)often causes infections in patients with cystic fibrosis.
D)is naturally resistant to some antibiotics and disinfectants.
E)all of the above.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Issues in Public Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The BCG vaccine for tuberculosis is recommended for A)Aboriginal children in the Northern Territory.
B)all healthcare workers in Australia.
C)all overseas travellers under the age of 12 years.
D)all immigrants from South-East Asia.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Women are advised to have regular Pap smear tests.This is to A)screen for the presence of abnormal cervical cells.
B)test for sexually transmitted infections.
C)assess the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
D)screen for the presence of group B streptococci.
E)none of the above.
Q3) An antenatal screening test on a pregnant woman shows that she has no antibodies to rubella.The risk to her unborn child is minimal if she
A)is vaccinated immediately.
B)is already in the third trimester of the pregnancy.
C)is given rubella immunoglobulin.
D)is in the first trimester of the pregnancy.
E)has already had a normal child.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Microbial Techniques for Diagnosis of Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identification of slow-growing bacteria can be achieved faster by the use of
A)polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
B)increased incubation temperature for growth.
C)detection of serum antibodies.
D)electron microscopy.
E)the streak plate method.
Q2) A negative test result for a person who actually has the disease is called a A)laboratory error.
B)specimen error.
C)test failure.
D)false positive.
E)false negative.
Q3) What is the approximate length of time it takes to grow colonies of most bacteria on an agar plate?
A)30 minutes.
B)4 hours.
C)18 hours.
D)5 days.
E)7 days.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Skin, wound and Eye Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a rare complication of A)measles.
B)chickenpox.
C)rubella.
D)shingles.
E)herpes.
Q2) Gas gangrene
A)is caused by group A streptococci.
B)is a type of necrotising fasciitis.
C)can only be treated by amputation of the affected limb.
D)is an infection of nerve cells.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Warts on the skin are caused by A)rubeola viruses.
B)papilloma viruses.
C)herpes virus.
D)varicella virus.
E)zoster virus.
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18
Chapter 17: Respiratory Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The virus that is typically transmitted to humans in the respiratory secretions of an infected horse is the
A)Hendra virus.
B)human metapneumovirus.
C)respiratory syncytial virus.
D)human bocavirus.
E)Q virus.
Q2) Inflammation of the larynx and trachea
A)is most frequently caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)is a life-threatening condition requiring urgent intubation.
C)occurs predominantly in the elderly.
D)is known as croup.
E)may spread throughout the body causing systemic effects.
Q3) Treatment of a person with tuberculosis is based on the use of A)combination drug therapy.
B)tuberculin.
C)BCG vaccination.
D)a single drug for several months.
E)immune therapy.
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19
Chapter 18: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatitis B can be transmitted by
A)male homosexual contact.
B)exposure to infected patient blood.
C)at birth,from infected mother to baby.
D)intravenous drug use.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Cryptosporidium parvum gastroenteritis
A)is not notifiable in Australia because of low incidence rates.
B)is uncommon because it has a high infective dose.
C)typically results in cyst formation in the liver and spleen.
D)can occur in outbreaks due to contaminated swimming pools.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Most intestinal pathogens invade the intestine and spread to other parts of the body.
B)Only bacteria cause gastroenteritis.
C)Gastrointestinal infection always results in diarrhoea.
D)Acute diarrhoeal infections can be fatal due to fluid loss.
E)Gastrointestinal infections are always associated with contaminated food.
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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular and Multisystem Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Schistosomiasis is not endemic in Australia because
A)it only occurs in desert areas.
B)the intermediate host is not found in Australia.
C)there is an effective vaccine available to high-risk people.
D)it has been eradicated.
E)none of the above.
Q2) A critical enzyme of the human immunodeficiency virus that is a target of some anti-HIV drugs is
A)reverse transcriptase.
B)coagulase.
C)streptokinase.
D)DNase.
E)leukocidin.
Q3) Infective endocarditis
A)often presents as a fever of unknown origin.
B)most often affects a normal heart valve.
C)is always due to infection with streptococci.
D)is diagnosed by the presence of a heart murmur.
E)all of the above.
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21
Chapter 20: Infections of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term 'aseptic meningitis' usually refers to
A)any non-bacterial meningitis.
B)a meningitis following neurosurgery.
C)a viral meningitis.
D)an infection of the inner parts of the brain.
E)meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis.
Q2) Meningitis that can spread in epidemic form is
A)meningococcal meningitis.
B)cryptococcal meningitis.
C)viral meningitis.
D)neonatal meningitis.
E)tuberculous meningitis.
Q3) Which of the following is used to smooth wrinkles in facial muscles?
A)Botulinum neurotoxin A.
B)Botulinum musculospasmin.
C)Staphylococcus aureus neurotoxin.
D)Tetanospasmin toxin.
E)Tetanus neurotoxin.
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In between attacks of genital herpes,the causative agent
A)exists within nerve cells.
B)is easily obtained by culture of nerve tissue.
C)can be found in genital secretions by Gram staining.
D)is never present in genital secretions.
E)has entered the bloodstream.
Q2) A poorly collected MSU specimen is indicated by
A)large numbers of red cells in the specimen.
B)large numbers of epithelial cells in the specimen.
C)growth of bacteria other than E.coli.
D)no bacteria or cells in the urine.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Women suffer from cystitis more often than men because
A)menstruation is likely to predispose women to infection.
B)the pelvic floor muscles are weakened after childbirth.
C)urinary tract infections are caught from a dirty toilet seat.
D)the urethra is closer to the anus in women.
E)all of the above.
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