Infection Control in Dentistry Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the principles and practices of infection control specific to dental settings, emphasizing the importance of preventing the transmission of infectious agents among patients, dental professionals, and the community. Students will learn about standard precautions, sterilization and disinfection procedures, personal protective equipment, and protocols for managing occupational exposures. The course also addresses current regulations, emerging infectious diseases, and the implementation of effective strategies to maintain a safe dental environment, fostering knowledge and skills essential for ensuring patient safety and compliance with health guidelines.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Dental Assisting 11th Edition by Doni L. Bird
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64 Chapters
2500 Verified Questions
2500 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: History of Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) When did the first hepatitis B vaccine became available?
A)1952
B)1972
C)1982
D)1992
Answer: C
Q2) Who was the first to write about nerves in the teeth?
A)Pierre Fauchard
B)Claudius Galen
C)John Baker
D)Leonardo da Vinci
Answer: B
Q3) Who is first credited with using a prosthesis?
A)Pierre Fauchard
B)Ambroise Paré
C)Leonardo da Vinci
D)Robert Woofendale
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Professional Dental Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recommendations for good grooming and appropriate dress include:
A)using an up-to-date perfume or cologne as a form of aromatherapy.
B)limiting use of tobacco products to the outdoors to avoid an odor in treatment areas.
C)bathing each day and use deodorant.
D)wearing attention-getting makeup and jewelry to distract patients from disagreeable aspects of their planned dental treatment.
Answer: C
Q2) A dental assistant can become a certified dental assistant (CDA)by:
A)passing the state clinical and written board examinations.
B)passing the national Dental Assisting National Board (DANB) examination.
C)graduating from an accredited dental assisting program.
D)working for 2 years in a dental office.
Answer: B
Q3) Benefits of membership in the ADAA include:
A)a subscription to the Journal of the American Dental Association.
B)eligibility to take the DANB (Dental Assisting National Board) examination.
C)certification as a CDA (certified dental assistant).
D)professional liability insurance.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Dental Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) The minimal education requirement for a registered dental hygienist is _____ academic years of college study and an associate's degree in an ADA-accredited dental hygiene program.
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Answer: B
Q2) What is required before a dental laboratory technician can fabricate a crown?
A)A telephone call or fax from the dental office
B)A predetermination from the insurance company
C)Radiographic images of the tooth to be restored
D)A prescription from a dentist
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following duties cannot be delegated to a dental hygienist?
A)Removing deposits on teeth
B)Providing endodontic treatment
C)Placing sealants
D)Administering local anesthesia
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Dental Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which ethical principle is based on the idea that actions are ethical as long as they will benefit a person or a community?
A)Autonomy
B)Nonmaleficence
C)Beneficence
D)Veracity
Q2) Ethics deals with:
A)moral conduct.
B)mostly absolutes of right and wrong with few gray areas.
C)legal issues.
D)issues of little importance to dental healthcare, because ethical principles are well defined by the courts.
Q3) Incomplete information,such as omission of information about a less expensive option for treatment,is a violation of which of the following ethical principles?
A)Veracity
B)Nonmaleficence
C)Beneficence
D)Confidentiality
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6
Chapter 5: Dentistry and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) The duty of care owed by a dentist to a patient includes:
A)personally treating all of their dental needs.
B)using reasonable judgment.
C)promising a successful outcome.
D)using the latest materials.
Q2) Abandonment could be charged if the dentist:
A)prepares a tooth for a crown and then does not deliver and cement the crown.
B)makes arrangements for another dentist to provide patient care in his or her absence.
C)goes on a last-minute vacation and forwards his calls to an answering service.
D)decides to move his practice to another state in 90 days.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true concerning statutory law?
A)There are four types of statutory law: criminal, civil, contract, and tort.
B)Civil law seeks to punish the offender, whereas criminal law seeks to compensate the victim.
C)Statutory law involves laws enacted by legislation through U.S. Congress, state legislature, or local legislative bodies.
D)Insurance fraud is an example of a civil act that may be committed in a dental office.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: General Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of nerve tissue is to:
A)provide protection for body surfaces.
B)coordinate and control body activities.
C)provide support and connect body organs and tissues.
D)provide movement of the body parts.
Q2) The _________ plane is any vertical plane parallel to the midline that divides the body,from top to bottom into unequal left and right portions.
A)frontal
B)horizontal
C)sagittal
D)midsagittal
Q3) Opposite terms for the directional terms for the body are:
A)medial and dorsal.
B)proximal and distal.
C)anterior and inferior.
D)inferior and lateral.
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Chapter 7: General Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of joints are the hips?
A)Fibrous
B)Cartilaginous
C)Gomphoses
D)Ball-and-socket
Q2) Epididymitis is a disorder of which body system?
A)Male reproductive
B)Female reproductive
C)Lymphatic
Q3) Which statement is not true of hormones?
A)Hormones produce long-term changes in humans, such as growth.
B)Hormones are secreted into the bloodstream through a series of intralobular and interlobular ducts.
C)Hormones help to maintain the amount of sugar in the blood.
D)Hormones can reach every cell in the body.
Q4) Blood cells are created in which of the following layers of bone?
A)Marrow
B)Periosteum
C)Cancellous bone
D)Compact bone
9
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Chapter 8: Oral Embryology and Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The attachment apparatus that retains the tooth in its functional position in the jaw includes the cementum,alveolar process,and:
A)enamel.
B)apical foramen.
C)periodontal ligament.
D)dentin.
Q2) Which of the following dental developmental disturbances occurs when the enamel organ invaginates into the dental papilla?
A)Gemination
B)Microdontia
C)Anodontia
D)Dens in dente
Q3) The muscles of mastication are formed by the _______ branchial arch.
A)first
B)second
C)fourth
D)sixth
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10
Chapter 9: Head and Neck Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of bone forms most of the roof and upper sides of the cranium?
A)parietal
B)frontal
C)occipital
D)temporal
Q2) The site where bones come together to form a cartilaginous joint is called a:
A)symphysis
B)tubercle
C)meatus
D)suture
Q3) Which artery supplies the major blood supply to the brain and eyes?
A)Internal carotid
B)Aorta
C)External carotid
D)Jugular
Q4) Which blood vessel gives rise to the common carotid artery?
A)Aorta
B)Internal carotid artery
C)External carotid artery
D)External jugular
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Chapter 10: Landmarks of the Face and Oral Cavity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are small,yellowish elevations that can appear on the buccal mucosa?
A)Vestibule
B)Fordyce granules
C)Frenum
D)Glabella
Q2) Which of the following types of gingiva is stippled,dense tissue that is firmly bound to the tissue below?
A)Attached gingiva
B)Gingival groove
C)Marginal gingiva
D)Unattached gingiva
Q3) The tissue that divides the nasal cavity into two nasal fossae is called the:
A)outer canthus.
B)inner canthus.
C)septum.
D)tragus.
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12
Chapter 11: Overview of the Dentitions
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______ are the longest teeth in the human dentition and are used for cutting and tearing.
A)Incisors
B)Canines
C)Molars
D)Premolars
Q2) Which of the following anatomic features of the teeth help to maintain their position in the dental arch and protect the tissues during chewing?
A)Pulp tissue
B)Dentin
C)Contours, contacts, and embrasures
D)Enamel epithelium
Q3) The relationship between the maxillary and mandibular teeth during biting and chewing movements is:
A)occlusion.
B)closure.
C)interproximal.
D)functional occlusion.
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13
Chapter 12: Tooth Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is not true of the maxillary canines?
A)The maxillary canines are usually the last permanent anterior teeth to erupt.
B)The canines have incisal edges similar to other anterior teeth.
C)The lingual surface of the crown of the maxillary canine is smoother than that of the mandibular canine.
D)The cusp tip is sharper on a maxillary canine than on a mandibular canine.
Q2) Which of the following is a rounded,raised area on the cervical third of the lingual surface of anterior teeth?
A)Cingulum
B)Fossa
C)Mamelons
D)Marginal ridge
Q3) Which of the following teeth in the permanent dentition will replace the primary first molars?
A)First molars
B)First and second molars
C)First premolars
D)Second premolars
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14
Chapter 13: Dental Caries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an infectious disease in which children live in constant pain from decayed primary teeth and swollen gums?
A)Trench mouth
B)Early childhood caries
C)Rampant caries
D)Gingivitis
Q2) Which of the following types of caries occurs primary on occlusal surfaces?
A)Smooth surface
B)Pit and fissure
C)Recurrent
D)Root surface
Q3) Which of the following types of caries is associated with exposed root surfaces?
A)Incipient lesions
B)Rampant caries
C)Root caries
D)Secondary caries
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Periodontal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A probing depth of more than ___ mm is associated with gingival disease.
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)6
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of chronic periodontitis?
A)It is most prevalent in adults, and severity increases with age.
B)It is characterized by inflammation of the supporting structures of the teeth.
C)It leads to destruction of the periodontal ligament and loss of adjacent bone.
D)It is strongly associated with Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans species of bacteria.
Q3) Which of the following classifications of chronic periodontitis is indicated by clinical attachment loss of up to 4 mm?
A)Gingivitis
B)Slight periodontitis
C)Moderate periodontitis
D)Severe periodontitis
Q4) A patient complaining of discomfort is one of the first signs of gingivitis.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Preventive Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What instructions should a patient be given regarding the use of a whitening toothpaste?
A)They will see immediate results.
B)Tissue irritation is never a problem.
C)The degree of whitening varies.
D)Excellent results can be guaranteed.
Q2) Which of the following can be caused by vigorously scrubbing the teeth with a toothbrush?
A)Attrition
B)Abrasion
C)Erosion
D)Abfraction
Q3) Which of the features of automatic toothbrushes is most likely to be helpful for patients with physical disabilities?
A)Timer every 30 seconds to remind user
B)Ultrasonic action
C)Larger handle
D)Circular motion
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17
Chapter 16: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) On food labels,ingredients are listed in _____ to indicate the proportions of ingredients.
A)alphabetical order
B)descending order of weight
C)descending order by fat content
D)order by protein, fat, and carbohydrate content
Q2) Oranges are a good source of which of the following minerals?
A)Calcium
B)Chloride
C)Phosphorus
D)Potassium
Q3) Which of the following is true concerning a dietary analysis?
A)The patient must record every food eaten.
B)Verbally asking the patient about dietary habits provides sufficient information for a dietary analysis.
C)A dietary analysis may be completed by reviewing the patient dental records.
D)The patient just needs to keep track of breakfast, lunch, and dinner.
Q4) Including sufficient calcium in your diet is important for keeping bones strong.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Oral Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ______ diagnosis is based on the color,size,shape,and location of a lesion.
A)clinical
B)surgical
C)microscopic
D)laboratory
Q2) Lack of jaw space can lead to:
A)attrition.
B)impaction.
C)ankylosis.
D)bulimia.
Q3) Which of the following terms is used to describe a disorder that is present at birth?
A)Developmental
B)Inherited
C)Congenital
D)Genetic
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Chapter 18: Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disease is caused by a spore-forming bacillus found in soil?
A)HIV
B)Tuberculosis
C)Tetanus
D)Syphilis
Q2) Dental assistants should be immunized against which of the following viral infections?
A)Hepatitis B
B)Hepatitis C
C)Tetanus
D)Tuberculosis
Q3) Which of the following was an English surgeon who recognized the role of airborne microorganisms in postsurgical infections?
A)Louis Pasteur
B)Aristotle
C)Robert Koch
D)Joseph Lister
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Disease Transmission and Infection Prevention
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tuberculosis,botulism,and streptococcal infections can be spread by which of the following?
A)Parenteral transmission
B)Immunity
C)Good health
D)Food and water transmission
Q2) The number of pathogenic microorganisms can be directly related to which of the following?
A)Bioburden
B)Portal of entry
C)Virulence
D)Immunity
Q3) When immunity is obtained by recovery from a disease,it is called _____ immunity.
A)inherited
B)acquired
C)active
D)artificially acquired
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21
Chapter 20: Principles and Techniques of Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The agency responsible for the Bloodborne Pathogens Standards that requires contaminated surfaces to be disinfected between patients,even if no evidence of contamination is visible is:
A)the CDC.
B)OSHA.
C)the FDA.
D)none of the above.
Q2) If the surface below the barrier is inadvertently touched when removing a contaminated barrier,the protocol to follow indicates:
A)the surface does not have to be cleaned and disinfected.
B)the surface needs to be cleaned and disinfected.
C)all treatment room surfaces need to be cleaned and disinfected.
D)a double layer of protective material needs to be placed over the contaminated surface.
Q3) Disinfectants used in dentistry must be:
A)registered with the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
B)registered as hospital disinfectants with tuberculocidal claims.
C)able to kill all spores.
D)both a and b
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Principles and Techniques of Instrument
Processing and Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recommended methods for sterilizing dental handpieces include:
A)chemical liquid sterilization.
B)steam sterilization.
C)chemical vapor sterilization.
D)both b and c
Q2) An ultrasonic cleaner cleans dirty instruments using sound waves,which cause:
A)cavitation.
B)implosion.
C)vibrations.
D)both a and b
Q3) Process indicators that change color are useful for:
A)monitoring sterilization.
B)identifying instrument packs that have been exposed to a certain temperature.
C)determining whether an instrument package has been processed.
D)both b and c
Q4) The least desirable method of precleaning dental instruments is:
A)hand scrubbing.
B)ultrasonic cleaning.
C)instrument washing machines.
D)rinsing in a holding solution.
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Chapter 22: Regulatory and Advisory Agencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) States that administer their own state-operated OSHA programs do not have to meet or exceed federal OSHA standards.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The governmental regulatory agency that ensures the safety and effectiveness of disinfectants associated with dentistry is the:
A)Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
B)Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
C)Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
D)Centers for Disease Control (CDC).
Q3) The U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)requires good manufacturing practices,reviews the safety and effectiveness of drugs and medical devices,and:
A)approves sterilizers, biologic and chemical indicators, and ultrasonic cleaners.
B)protects the health and safety of people at home and abroad.
C)regulates antimicrobial handwashing products and mouth rinses.
D)both a and c
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Chapter 23: Chemical and Waste Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a chemical is transferred to a different container,the new container must be labeled with:
A)an official label obtained from the manufacturer of the chemical product.
B)an official label obtained from the EPA.
C)any label, providing the labeling system is easy to use and all employees are properly trained to understand and read the label.
D)a reduced size photocopy of the label from the original container.
Q2) An example of regulated waste that requires special disposal is:
A)human tissue.
B)food.
C)A saliva-soaked gauze.
D)a used patient bib.
Q3) The product that does not need to be listed on the chemical inventory is:
A)dental film.
B)phosphoric acid etch.
C)amalgam.
D)composite.
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25
Chapter 24: Dental Unit Waterlines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Planktonic bacteria are:
A)unable to survive in DUWLs.
B)prevented from entering DUWLs by use of anti-retraction valves.
C)free floating in the water.
D)in the biofilm attached to DUWL walls.
Q2) Disposable inline microfiltration cartridges should be replaced:
A)according to the manufacturer's recommendations.
B)between patients.
C)once a week.
D)twice a day.
Q3) While using for routine dental procedures,biofilm and bacteria found in water from municipal lines can enter the oral cavity of a patient through:
A)the faucet.
B)the handpiece.
C)the waterline.
D)both b and c
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Chapter 25: Ergonomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of ergonomics is to:
A)adapt the human body to the work environment.
B)increase their range of twisting and reaching motions.
C)establish sequences of repetitive motions to reduce work strain.
D)stay healthy while performing their work more effectively.
Q2) In carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS),tendons swell and exert pressure on the:
A)carpal bones.
B)volar carpal ligament.
C)median nerve.
D)synovial sheath.
Q3) All the following factors contribute to musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs)except: A)posture.
B)repetition and force.
C)twisting.
D)both a and b
Q4) To prevent eyestrain,the dental assistant should:
A)always wear safety glasses.
B)look up frequently and focus on a point in the distance for about 20 seconds.
C)focus on the dentist's hands and patient's mouth.
D)never look at the curing light.
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Chapter 26: The Patient Record
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Q1) The clinical examination form includes:
A)the plan of care.
B)charting for existing restorations and present conditions.
C)progress notes.
D)informed consent.
Q2) The written medical-dental health history form:
A)eliminates the need for a face-to-face conversation with the patient.
B)should be regarded as minimal information.
C)does not need to be signed and dated by the patient to certify that the information is correct.
D)is considered to be part of the treatment plan.
Q3) Properly documenting patient information helps in clinical patient care and:
A)conveys a legal significance of which the dentist and assistant must be aware.
B)contains has a large volume of information.
C)both a and B
D)none of the above.
Q4) The patient record is not considered a legal document.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Vital Signs
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Q1) The term used to indicate an abnormally slow respiratory rate is:
A)tachypnea.
B)hyperventilation.
C)bradypnea.
D)congestion.
Q2) How many phases of Korotkoff sounds are heard when taking the blood pressure?
A)Five
B)Four
C)Three
D)Two
Q3) The normal respiration rate for a relaxed adult is _____ beats per minute.
A)10 to 20
B)30 to 40
C)50 to 60
D)5 to 12
Q4) The artery used when taking a patient's blood pressure is the _____ artery.
A)femoral
B)radial
C)carotid
D)brachial
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Chapter 28: Oral Diagnosis and Treatment Planning
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Q1) The diagram used for charting the primary teeth includes _____ primary teeth and _____ permanent teeth.
A)24; 30
B)20; 36
C)20; 32
D)32; 20
Q2) The term used to indicate grinding or clenching teeth is: A)mouth breathing.
B)bruxism.
C)tongue-thrust swallowing.
D)none of the above.
Q3) An intraoral camera provides the dentist with: A)case presentation.
B)medical and legal documentation.
C)magnification of an image for better evaluation. D)all of the above.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: The Special Needs and Medically
Compromised Patient
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Q1) A deficiency of red blood cells in the hemoglobin can cause:
A)leukemia.
B)hemophilia.
C)anemia.
D)excessive bleeding.
Q2) More than 100 diseases can indirectly affect a patient's ability to perform adequate oral hygiene procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diabetes mellitus is a:
A)metabolic disorder characterized by high blood glucose and an absolute or relative insufficiency of insulin.
B)form of progressive mental deterioration occurring in middle to older age.
C)condition resulting from excessive activity of the thyroid gland.
D)condition resulting from severe thyroid hormone insufficiency.
Q4) The cause of dark and brittle teeth in an older adult is:
A)reduced size of the pulp chamber.
B)deposits of secondary dentin.
C)large caries.
D)both a and b
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Chapter 30: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) All the following statements are false regarding prescriptions except:
A)the symbol Rx is Latin for "prescription."
B)a prescription is a verbal order by a physician, dentist, or dental hygienist for the preparation and administration of a medicine.
C)any member of the dental team can prescribe medications.
D)prescription pads should be kept in a locked drawer.
Q2) Tylenol,another name for acetaminophen,is a _____ name.
A)chemical
B)generic
C)brand or trade
D)primary or true
Q3) A drug applied directly to the site of use is considered:
A)a local-action drug.
B)a systemic-action drug.
C)a drug that affects the whole body.
D)both a and B
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Chapter 31: Assisting in a Medical Emergency
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Sample Questions
Q1) CPR is not performed until the patient is determined to be:
A)unconscious.
B)unresponsive.
C)choking.
D)conscious.
Q2) When defibrillation is provided within the first 5 minutes of cardiac arrest,there is about a _____ chance that you can save the victim's life.
A)10%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
Q3) Erythema is another term for:
A)pain.
B)redness.
C)swelling.
D)infection.
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33
Chapter 32: The Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Model trimming,model pouring,and making bleaching trays are all procedures that take place in the:
A)operatory.
B)sterilization area.
C)laboratory.
D)dental staff lounge.
Q2) A patient who is having a radiograph exposed should be in the ___________ position.
A)supine
B)upright
C)subsupine
D)None of the above
Q3) The recommended floor covering in the clinical and laboratory areas is:
A)hardwood.
B)linoleum.
C)carpet.
D)concrete.
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Chapter 33: Delivering Dental Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dentist and the dental assistant try to eliminate or reduce class _____ movements to reduce stress and body fatigue.
A)IV and V
B)III and IV
C)II and III
D)I and II
Q2) Which instrument grasp holds the instrument in the palm of the hand and uses the thumb to stabilize and guide the instrument?
A)Reverse palm-thumb grasp
B)Palm grasp
C)Pen grasp
D)Palm-thumb grasp
Q3) The finger rest that stabilizes the hand so that there is less possibility of slipping or traumatizing the tissue in the mouth is called a:
A)base rest.
B)fulcrum.
C)leverage point.
D)pivot point.
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35
Chapter 34: Dental Hand Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hand cutting instrument used to cut enamel and bevel the gingival margins of a cavity preparation is a(n):
A)hatchet.
B)excavator.
C)hoe.
D)gingival margin trimmer.
Q2) The type of scissors most often associated with restorative dental procedures are _____ scissors.
A)surgical
B)suture
C)tissue
D)crown and bridge
Q3) Articulating paper can be used to check a patient's bite on:
A)a crown or bridge.
B)a denture.
C)a new restoration.
D)all of the above.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Dental Handpieces and Accessories
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ handpiece supplies a water coolant,because it can generate enough frictional heat on a tooth to cause possible damage to the pulp.
A)air-abrasion
B)high-speed
C)low-speed
D)ultrasonic
Q2) A #557 bur is a(n)_______ and is used for ________.
A)round bur; gaining entrance into tooth structure
B)straight fissure cross-cut; forming internal walls of the preparation
C)inverted cone; forming retention grooves
D)pear; extending cavity preparation
Q3) The air abrasion technique uses high-pressure delivery of _____ particles through a small probe to remove tooth structure.
A)zirconium silicate
B)aluminum oxide
C)silicon carbide
D)tin oxide
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Chapter 36: Moisture Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) To block the flow of saliva and to protect the tissues,a dry-angle isolator placed on the:
A)floor of the mouth under the tongue.
B)hard palate.
C)buccal mucosa over the Stensen's duct.
D)tongue.
Q2) All of the following are specific guidelines for positioning the HVE except:
A)position the bevel to be parallel to the tooth surface.
B)place the HVE after the dentist positions the handpiece and mirror.
C)position the HVE tip on the surface of the operative tooth closest to the dental assistant.
D)keep the HVE tip edge even with or slightly beyond the occlusal or incisal surface.
Q3) Dental dams are made of either latex or latex-free material and come precut as squares that measure:
A)4 × 4 inches.
B)5 ×5 inches.
C)6 ×6 inches.
D)both b and c
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Chapter 37: Anesthesia and Pain Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ anesthesia is frequently used on the mandibular teeth and is injected near a major nerve that numbs the entire area served by that nerve branch.
A)Block
B)Infiltration
C)Innervation
D)Induction
Q2) What part of the anesthetic syringe must engage so that aspiration can occur during the injection?
A)Piston rod
B)Thumb ring
C)Barrel
D)Harpoon
Q3) The color-coding system for anesthetic cartridges allows the practitioner to select the correct anesthetic solution by distinguishing the correct _____ of the solution.
A)ratio
B)brand
C)induction time
D)ratio and brand
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Chapter
38: Foundations of Radiography, Radiographic Equipment, and Radiation Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who should hold the film in a patient's mouth if the patient is unable to do so?
A)Receptionist
B)Parent or relative of the patient
C)Assistant
D)Dentist
Q2) Damage caused by ionizing x-radiation to genetic cells:
A)affects only the person being exposed.
B)can affect future generations.
C)affects only the dental assistant.
D)affects the cells of the eye, skin, and oral mucosa.
Q3) A lead apron and a thyroid collar:
A)are used for a full-mouth series of films but are not necessary for single periapical films.
B)must be used on all patients for all exposures.
C)are required for pediatric patients but is optional for adults.
D)are mandated only for pregnant women.
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Chapter 39: Digital Imaging, Dental Film, and Processing
Radiographs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positioning instruments in digital radiography:
A)assist in film placement.
B)keep the patient's fingers from being exposed.
C)should not be used.
D)Both a and b are correct.
Q2) Digital radiography requires less radiation than traditional radiography because the: A)exposure time is increased.
B)sensor is smaller.
C)sensor is more sensitive to x-ray energy.
D)sensor is attached to the computer.
Q3) The recommended distance between the safelight and where the films are unwrapped is:
A)2 feet.
B)4 feet.
C)6 feet.
D)as close as possible.
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Chapter 40: Legal Issues, Quality Assurance, and Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A good protocol to follow for decreasing the contamination of dental imaging equipment and supplies is to:
A)gather all supplies needed before beginning the procedure.
B)use overgloves if additional supplies are needed during a procedure.
C)ask for help.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The simplest method for ensuring the freshness of each box of film is to:
A)check the expiration date.
B)process one film from each box with fresh chemicals.
C)use the clearing test.
D)do all of the above.
Q3) When a daily radiograph is lighter than the reference radiograph,it indicates the developer is too:
A)weak.
B)strong.
C)hot.
D)weak or hot.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Intraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American Dental Association recommends that films be mounted:
A)with the concave portion of the dot facing up.
B)according to the labial mounting method.
C)as if the viewer is standing on the patient's tongue.
D)so the patient's left side is on the viewer's left side.
Q2) For the patient with a hypersensitive gag reflex,the teeth that should be exposed last are:
A)maxillary molars.
B)mandibular molars.
C)mandibular anteriors.
D)maxillary premolars.
Q3) If the central ray of the x-ray beam is not centered on the film sensor,a partial image will result on the film sensor,which is called a(n):
A)cone cut.
B)herringbone image.
C)blurred image.
D)elongated image.
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43
Chapter 42: Extraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The part of the unit that aligns the patient's teeth as accurately as possible is the: A)head positioner.
B)focal trough.
C)Frankfort plane.
D)tubehead.
Q2) When a patient's teeth are not positioned in the groove of the bite-block,the teeth will appear:
A)fat.
B)skinny.
C)tall.
D)short.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of a panoramic tubehead?
A)It has a filament that produces electrons and a target that produces radiographs.
B)The vertical angulation is adjustable.
C)It always rotates behind the patient's head.
D)The collimator is a lead plate with an opening shaped like a narrow vertical slit.
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Chapter 43: Restorative and Esthetic Dental Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) The curing process in which it is the most critical that the materials are mixed and placed within the working and setting times is with:
A)auto-cured materials.
B)light-cured materials.
C)dual-cured materials.
D)none of the above.
Q2) Criteria for new restorative materials states that the material must be:
A)able to protect the tooth and tissues of the oral cavity.
B)easily formed and placed restoring comfort, function, and contour.
C)not capable of irritating tissues or being poisonous.
D)all of the above.
Q3) For adhesion to take place,_____ film thickness is desired.
A)a thick
B)a thin
C)a medium
D)any
Q4) Retention holds a material in place and seals the structures together.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Dental Liners, Bases, and Bonding Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thermal changes from hot,cold,or electrical energy created by other metals coming into contact with the tooth are defined as which type of pulpal stimuli?
A)Biological
B)Mechanical
C)Physical
D)Chemical
Q2) Which of the following is not a use of fluoride varnish?
A)Treatment of hypersensitive cervical areas
B)Dentin sealant
C)Luting agent
D)Topical fluoride application
Q3) Zinc phosphate cement should be mixed:
A)on a cool glass slab.
B)on a warm glass slab.
C)on a paper pad.
D)quickly.
Q4) When a varnish is used,it is always used before other materials.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Dental Cements
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should cement be placed into an indirect restoration for delivery?
A)Fill casting until it is overflowing.
B)Add a thin lining to cover all internal walls of the casting.
C)Fill to the top margin of the crown.
D)Add a thin layer on the very bottom of the crown.
Q2) The provisional restoration should be lined with luting cement when being placed for temporary coverage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement best represents the dental assistant's priority when preparing dental cements?
A)Work quickly.
B)Mix in all powder at once.
C)Follow the manufacturer's instructions.
D)Change ratios depending on temperature.
Q4) How should polycarboxylate cement appear once setting has initiated?
A)Stringy or weblike
B)Glossy
C)Powdery
D)All of the above
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Chapter 46: Impression Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) An impression is a positive reproduction of teeth and surrounding oral tissues.The model created from the impression is a negative reproduction of the structures.
A)Both statements are correct.
B)Neither statement is correct.
C)The first statement is correct; the second statement is incorrect.
D)The first statement is incorrect; the second statement is correct.
Q2) Alginate material that is not setting or setting too rapidly can be the result of which factor?
A)Expired shelf life
B)Humidity
C)Improper storage
D)All of the above
Q3) Which irreversible hydrocolloid material is used most widely for preliminary impressions?
A)Light-bodied
B)Alginate
C)Polysulfide
D)Polyether
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Materials and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements correctly describes the pouring methods used to create the base portion of a dental model?
A)The art portion of the cast is poured first when the double-pour method is used.
B)The completed box should extend at least 1 inch above the palatal area of the maxillary impression when the box-and-pour method is used.
C)The inverted-pour method consists of mixing one large mixture of plaster or stone and pouring both portions of the model in a single step.
D)The "box" used in the box-and-pour method is made of baseplate wax.
Q2) Which type of baseplate wax is a softer and used for denture construction?
A)I
B)II
C)III
Q3) The first step in making a custom tray is to:
A)prepare the resin.
B)make a spacer.
C)prepare a diagnostic model.
D)place blockout material.
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Chapter 48: General Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which restorative material is selected for the permanent restoration of a class I lesion?
A)Composite
B)Amalgam
C)Glass ionomer
D)Both a and b
Q2) Which statement is true?
A)If loss of tooth structure becomes greater than the remaining tooth structure, the tooth is not restorable.
B)When using retention pins, one pin is placed for each missing cusp.
C)Retention pins are screwed into the pulp of the tooth for greater support.
D)Retention pins are available in varying lengths and types of metals.
Q3) Which procedure listed is included under the umbrella of esthetic dentistry?
A)Whitening techniques
B)Endodontic therapy
C)Stainless steel crowns
D)Silver amalgam
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Chapter 49: Matrix Systems for Restorative Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mylar strips are used for class ___ restorations.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)V
Q2) Which of the following is the instrument of choice when positioning a wooden wedge?
A)Amalgam carrier
B)Mouth mirror
C)Howe pliers
D)Cowhorn explorer
Q3) Once the AutoMatrix band is positioned on the tooth,how is the band tightened?
A)A wrench turns the coil counterclockwise to tighten the band.
B)Use fingers to turn the coil until it is snug.
C)A wrench turns the coil clockwise to tighten the band.
D)It is wedged to form the contour.
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Chapter 50: Fixed Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the opening into which a post is cemented?
A)Keyway slot
B)Chamfer
C)Shoulder
D)Post channel
Q2) Which component of a fixed bridge anchors to existing teeth?
A)Abutment
B)Pontic
C)Unit
D)Core
Q3) What occurs at the final appointment in the crown and bridge process?
A)Cementation of a permanent crown
B)Casting try-in
C)Choose a shade
D)Writing the laboratory prescription
Q4) Which device is used to determine the tooth color for ceramic crowns or bridges?
A)Articulator
B)Chamfer
C)Shade guide
D)Infuser
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Chapter 51: Provisional Coverage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which procedure would require a patient to wear a provisional prosthesis for a longer period of time?
A)Porcelain veneers
B)Implants or periodontal therapy
C)Full gold cast crowns
D)Porcelain jacket crowns
Q2) The cervical margins of the provisional should have no more than ___ mm of space between the crown margin and the finish line of the preparation.
A)1.0
B)0.1
C)0.5
D)0.10
Q3) Why is the provisional placed on the tooth in the patient's mouth for the final curing stage?
A)To ensure the color and shape of the provisional match the tooth
B)To ensure the provisional is in correct occlusion
C)To avoid excess shrinkage of the provisional during the final curing stage
D)To check the margins for accuracy before curing
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Chapter 52: Removable Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Retention of a maxillary denture depends on the suction seal from which element?
A)Flange
B)Palatal suction
C)Post dam
D)Border molding
Q2) What home care instructions are given to patients when delivering a partial denture?
A)Store the partial denture in water or in a moist, airtight container while not wearing it.
B)Brush the partial while in the mouth when brushing natural teeth.
C)Disinfect the partial with bleach about once a week.
D)Floss around the retainers to keep them clean.
Q3) Approximately how many appointments are needed to fabricate a partial denture?
A)Two
B)Three
C)Four
D)Five
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Chapter 53: Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which oral anatomic structures are factors in the placement of dental implants?
A)Maxillary tuberosity
B)Maxillary sinus and nasal floor
C)Retromolar area
D)Lacrimal bones
Q2) A "healing collar" is used in which implant procedure?
A)Endosteal
B)Subperiosteal
C)Transosteal
D)None of the above
Q3) Why are dental implants significant for patients?
A)To provide natural-looking replacements for missing teeth
B)To hold the artificial teeth firmly in place in the bone
C)To incorporates principles from fixed and removable prosthodontics
D)All of the above
Q4) What is the area surrounding the mouth called?
A)Circumoral
B)Endosteal
C)Subperiosteal
D)Transosteal
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Chapter 54: Endodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is pulp fibrosis?
A)It develops as a result of necrosis of the pulp.
B)It is seen in patients with a traumatic injury to the tooth.
C)It has a draining tract where pus is intermittently discharged.
D)It has symptoms of sudden onset of pain, swelling, and pus formation.
Q2) What instrument is used to remove coronal pulp tissue and decay from a tooth?
A)Barbed broach
B)Spoon excavator
C)Glick Number 1
D)K-type file
Q3) Which step in root canal therapy takes place first?
A)Estimated working length
B)Access preparation
C)Debridement and shaping the canal
D)Obturation
Q4) What class of symptoms is described by the patient?
A)Objective
B)Acute
C)Chronic
D)Subjective
Page 56
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Chapter 55: Periodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What soft material forms on the teeth and is the primary cause of gingival inflammation and other forms of periodontal disease?
A)Calculus
B)Exudates
C)Fluoride
D)Plaque
Q2) Which periodontal surgery does not remove any of the affected tissue,but pushes the tissues away from the underlying tooth roots and alveolar bone?
A)Gingivectomy
B)Flap surgery
C)Incisional surgery
D)Both b and c
Q3) Which statement is incorrect about the use of lasers in periodontics?
A)Lasers can be used to remove excess tissues, such as in a gingivoplasty.
B)Laser incisions heal faster than those made with a scalpel.
C)The risk of blood-borne contamination is reduced.
D)Special training is needed by any person who operates or assists during a laser operation.
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Chapter 56: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surgical assistant should have knowledge of which tasks?
A)Patient monitoring
B)Use of specialized instruments
C)Pain control techniques
D)All of the above
Q2) Which procedure removes and examines tissue to distinguish malignant from nonmalignant lesions?
A)Alveoplasty
B)Biopsy
C)Exfoliative cytology
D)Both b and c
Q3) Which instrument is used to remove a tooth in one piece,with the crown and root intact?
A)Periosteal elevator
B)Surgical forceps
C)Surgical curette
D)Rongeur
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Chapter 57: Pediatric Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which services would not be routinely provided in a pediatric dental office?
A)Preventive procedures
B)Restorative procedures
C)Interceptive orthodontics
D)Third molar extractions
Q2) What appliances are recommended for participants in contact sports?
A)Bite planes
B)Mouth guards
C)Splints
D)Retainers
Q3) Which item is not used in the pulpotomy procedure?
A)Rubber dam
B)High-speed handpiece
C)ZOE base
D)Slow-speed handpiece
Q4) Which of the following indicators is not a reason to suspect child abuse?
A)Trauma to oral tissues
B)Bite marks
C)Bruises in various stages of healing
D)Mild shyness
Page 59
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Chapter 58: Coronal Polishing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which procedure is included with an oral prophylaxis?
A)Fluoride treatment
B)Removal of calculus and debris
C)Examination
D)Removal of decay
Q2) The term fulcrum is used to describe the placement of the _____ finger of the hand to stabilize the handpiece or instrument being used.
A)first
B)second
C)third
D)fourth
Q3) Polishing _____ the uptake of professionally applied fluoride; therefore,polishing is _____ before fluoride application.
A)improves; necessary
B)improves; not necessary
C)does not improve; necessary
D)does not improve; not necessary
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Chapter 59: Dental Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which technique is sometimes used before sealant application to open fissures and remove slight decay?
A)Rubber cup polishing
B)Bristle-brush polishing
C)Microabrasion
D)Scaling
Q2) The highest risk period for decay occurs within the first ___ years of eruption.
A)3
B)5
C)7
D)9
Q3) What is the primary reason that few children are protected by dental sealants?
A)They are not recommended by the American Dental Association.
B)They have not been shown to reduce decay significantly.
C)There is a lack of public awareness.
D)They are not effective for prevention of pit and fissure decay in posterior teeth.
Q4) Dental sealants replace other preventive care.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 60: Orthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Orthodontic fixed appliances are also known as what?
A)Braces
B)Separators
C)Hawley retainers
D)Clear "aligners"
Q2) What is class II occlusion?
A)It is normal occlusion.
B)It is mesioclusion.
C)It occurs when the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes in the interdental space between the mandibular second premolar and the mesial cusp of the mandibular first molar
D)It occurs when the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes in the interdental space between the distal cusp of the mandibular first permanent molar and the mesial cusp of the mandibular second permanent molar
Q3) Which of the following is incorrect about customized aligners?
A)They consist of a series of aligners designed by computer technology.
B)Each aligner is worn for about 2 weeks.
C)They can be used for all types of orthodontic treatment.
D)They are referred to as invisible braces.
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Page 62
Chapter 61: Communication in the Dental Office
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15622
Sample Questions
Q1) How should a dental assistant react if,while in the dental chair,the patient begins to move restlessly,is sweating,and appears to be agitated?
A)Ignore the behavior.
B)Ask the patient if he wants to stop the procedure.
C)Ask the patient if he is in pain and assure him that everything is fine.
D)Suggest that the patient reschedule for a time when he can relax more.
Q2) In the dental office,the telephone should be answered:
A)after four rings.
B)after you finish with the patient checking out.
C)after the first ring.
D)by only one person.
Q3) Closed-ended questions usually begin with words such as:
A)what.
B)when.
C)which.
D)will.
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63
Chapter 62: Business Operating Systems
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15623
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the continuing care program of regularly scheduled preventive appointments?
A)Preventive scheduling
B)Preventive treatment plan
C)Preventive recall program
D)A hygiene program
Q2) What is the purpose of a call list in the dental office?
A)Emergency numbers
B)Frequently called numbers
C)Scheduling patients on short notice
D)Confirming patient appointments
Q3) What is the time that is reserved each day for scheduling emergency patients called?
A)Buffer period
B)Matrix
C)Emergency block
D)Bracket time
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64
Chapter 63: Financial Management in the Dental Office
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15624
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the parties involved in dental insurance,who is the carrier?
A)The person receiving treatment
B)A spouse or child of the subscriber
C)The union or employment organization that has negotiated the dental insurance as part of its benefits package
D)The party that pays the claims and collects the premiums
Q2) Which type of fee is determined by a percentage of prefiled fees submitted to the insurance company?
A)Usual fee
B)Customary fee
C)Reasonable fee
D)Limitations
Q3) Which codes are used to simplify dental transaction processing under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996?
A)ADA
B)CDC
C)CDT
D)ADHA
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65
Chapter 64: Marketing Your Skills
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15625
Sample Questions
Q1) A follow-up letter should be sent to the interviewer within _____ after the interview.
A)1 hour
B)48 hours
C)1 week
D)6 to 10 days
Q2) What would a potential employee provide that includes a brief description of a person's professional or work experience,education,and qualifications?
A)Employee agreement
B)Resume
C)Job description
D)Employment history
Q3) Which statement is correct regarding employment agencies?
A)They are state run and charge a fee for their services.
B)They can be private agencies, with employer-paid fees.
C)They base their fee on the current minimum wage rate.
D)They are paid on a monthly basis.
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