Infection Control in Dentistry Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive overview of infection control principles and practices essential for dental professionals. Students will learn about the transmission of infectious agents in the dental environment, standard precautions, and the proper use of personal protective equipment. The curriculum covers sterilization and disinfection of instruments and surfaces, dental office asepsis protocols, management of sharps and waste, and the role of hand hygiene. Emphasis is placed on the latest guidelines, regulatory standards, and ethical responsibilities in preventing healthcare-associated infections, ensuring patient safety, and maintaining a safe clinical setting for both staff and patients.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Dental Assisting 11th Edition by Doni L. Bird
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2500 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: History of Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Hippocratic Oath is an obligation to:
A)uphold the ethical principles of the American Medical Association.
B)practice within the bounds of a particular specialty and to refer when indicated.
C)maintain standards to maintaining and transferring patient records according to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).
D)refrain from wrongdoing and to treat patients to the best of one's ability.
Answer: D
Q2) When was the American Dental Association (ADA)founded?
A)1809
B)1839
C)1859
D)1929
Answer: C
Q3) The Dental Assisting National Board (DANB)was founded in: A)1908.
B)1928. C)1938.
D)1948.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Professional Dental Assistant
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Q1) In addition to assisting in the delivery of dental care,a dental assistant may find employment opportunities in:
A)dental product sales.
B)teaching dental assisting.
C)processing insurance claims.
D)any of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) Teamwork in the dental office is important.The letters TEAM stand for:
A)treat everyone as members.
B)take everything as money.
C)together, everyone accomplishes more.
D)two equals a lot more.
Answer: C
Q3) A dental assistant can become a certified dental assistant (CDA)by:
A)passing the state clinical and written board examinations.
B)passing the national Dental Assisting National Board (DANB) examination.
C)graduating from an accredited dental assisting program.
D)working for 2 years in a dental office.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Dental Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which member of the dental team ensures that patient privacy measures are in place and followed?
A)Clinical dental assistant
B)Expanded-functions dental assistant
C)Business assistant
D)Dental hygienist
Answer: C
Q2) Which dental specialty became the first new dental specialty in 36 years when it was granted recognition by the ADA in 1999?
A)Oral and maxillofacial radiology
B)Dental public health
C)Oral pathology
D)Periodontics
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following duties cannot be delegated to a dental hygienist?
A)Removing deposits on teeth
B)Providing endodontic treatment
C)Placing sealants
D)Administering local anesthesia
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Dental Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ethics deals with:
A)moral conduct.
B)mostly absolutes of right and wrong with few gray areas.
C)legal issues.
D)issues of little importance to dental healthcare, because ethical principles are well defined by the courts.
Q2) Respecting a patient's confidentiality is a(n)_____ obligation.
A)legal and ethical
B)legal but not ethical
C)ethical but not legal
D)neither ethical nor legal
Q3) If a dental assistant faces a situation in which the dentist's or employer's conduct violates ethical standards,the dental assistant is:
A)legally responsible for the errors of the employer.
B)legally obligated to report questionable actions.
C)legally obligated to attempt to alter the circumstances.
D)not legally obligated to attempt to alter the circumstances.
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Chapter 5: Dentistry and the Law
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Q1) Which of the following offenses is most likely to result in imprisonment?
A)Felony criminal
B)Misdemeanor criminal
C)Infraction criminal
D)Civil
Q2) Who should make a guarantee about the outcome of dental treatment?
A)Dentist
B)Dental assistant
C)Business office staff
D)No one
Q3) Who owns the patient's original dental records?
A)The dentist
B)The patient
C)The state
Q4) ____________ is (are)not included in the patient chart.
A)Patient financial records
B)Examination records
C)Radiographs
D)Correspondence to or about a patient
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Chapter 6: General Anatomy
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Q1) Imaginary lines called _______ are used to divide the body into sections.
A)divisions
B)sections
C)planes
D)structural units
Q2) The axial division of the body consists of the:
A)arms and legs.
B)head, neck, and trunk.
C)heart, lungs, esophagus, and trachea.
D)stomach.
Q3) Standing erect with face forward,feet together,and arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing forward is called _______ position.
A)anatomic
B)standard
C)prone
D)supine
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Chapter 7: General Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bursa is a(n):
A)gomphosis.
B)fibrous sac.
C)suture.
D)articulation.
Q2) The function of the ventricles of the heart is to:
A)receive the blood.
B)pump the blood.
C)supply blood to the heart muscle.
D)send the blood to the lungs.
Q3) Which of the following types of cells produce antibodies?
A)Leukocytes
B)Lymphocytes
C)Monocytes
D)Macrophages
Q4) The esophagus is part of which body system?
A)Respiratory
B)Endocrine
C)Digestive
D)Urinary
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Chapter 8: Oral Embryology and Histology
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Q1) The face begins to develop during the fourth week of pregnancy within the _______ period.
A)preimplantation
B)embryonic
C)fetal
D)proliferative
Q2) The periodontal ligament connects the ______ of the tooth to the alveolar bone.
A)cementum
B)dentin
C)apical foramen
D)inner enamel epithelium
Q3) Which of the following is the correct sequence of the periods of prenatal development?
A)Blastula, gastrula, and morula periods.
B)Preimplantation, embryonic, and fetal periods.
C)Implantation, ectodermal, and fetal periods.
D)Conception, zygote, and embryonic periods.
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Chapter 9: Head and Neck Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fontanelle,or soft spot,of a newborn infant is located where the parietal bones will articulate with which of the following bones?
A)Occipital
B)Frontal
C)Sphenoid
D)Temporal
Q2) Which statement is true of the parotid salivary gland?
A)The parotid gland is the smallest of the major salivary glands.
B)The parotid gland is located in the buccal, lingual, and labial mucosa.
C)The parotid gland produces approximately 65% of the total volume of saliva.
D)The parotid gland empties into the mouth through the Stensen's duct.
Q3) A(n)_______ can develop in the salivary duct that prevents the saliva from flowing into the mouth.
A)hamulus
B)meatus
C)sialolith
D)ossicle
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11
Chapter 10: Landmarks of the Face and Oral Cavity
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Q1) Which of the following types of mucosa covers the oral surface of the hard palate?
A)Respiratory mucosa
B)Masticatory mucosa
C)Lining mucosa
D)Specialized mucosa
Q2) Which of the following terms corresponds to the "roof" of the mouth?
A)Vermilion border
B)Buccal mucosa
C)Hard palate
D)Vestibule
Q3) Normal gingiva has which of the following characteristics?
A)Normal gingiva is firm and resistant and can be tightly attached to tooth and bone.
B)Gingiva is a form of specialized mucosa.
C)The color of normal gingiva is a uniform coral pink, even among different races and ethnicities.
D)The free gingival groove runs perpendicular to the margin of unattached gingiva.
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12
Chapter 11: Overview of the Dentitions
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Q1) The ______ is the exact spot where adjacent teeth actually touch each other.
A)contour
B)contact area
C)height of contour
D)contact point
Q2) The initiation of the mixed dentition period is marked by which of the following events?
A)Eruption of the adult mandibular first molar
B)Eruption of the adult mandibular central incisor
C)Loss of the primary mandibular central incisor
D)Loss of the primary first molar
Q3) The relationship between the maxillary and mandibular teeth during biting and chewing movements is:
A)occlusion.
B)closure.
C)interproximal.
D)functional occlusion.
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13
Chapter 12: Tooth Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Premolars and molars are used for _____ food.
A)tearing
B)cutting
C)chewing
D)shearing
Q2) The first premolar is anterior to the _____,whereas the second premolar is anterior to the first _____.
A)lateral incisor; molar
B)second premolar; premolar
C)second premolar; molar
D)canine; premolar
Q3) Which of the following terms is used to describe the rounded enamel extensions on the incisal edge of newly erupted central and lateral incisors?
A)Cusps
B)Mamelons
C)Diastemas
D)Fossas
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Chapter 13: Dental Caries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of bacteria are associated with a high sugar intake?
A)Porphyromonas gingivalis
B)Bacteroides gingivalis
C)Lactobacilli
D)Streptococcus mutans
Q2) Which of the following group(s)of bacteria are responsible for dental caries?
A)Staphylococci
B)Mutans streptococci and lactobacilli
C)Bacilli
D)Spirochetes
Q3) Which of the following types of caries is associated with exposed root surfaces?
A)Incipient lesions
B)Rampant caries
C)Root caries
D)Secondary caries
Q4) New restorative materials help reduce recurrent decay by eliminating the tiny space between the tooth and the restorative material.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Periodontal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following classifications of chronic periodontitis is indicated by clinical attachment loss of up to 4 mm?
A)Gingivitis
B)Slight periodontitis
C)Moderate periodontitis
D)Severe periodontitis
Q2) Periodontal science has proven a relationship with:
A)liver failure.
B)renal disease.
C)several types of cancer.
D)several systemic diseases.
Q3) Which of the following characteristics is associated with diseased rather than healthy gingival tissue?
A)Uniformly pale pink
B)Attached and stippled
C)Bleeding upon probing
D)Firm and resilient
Q4) A patient complaining of discomfort is one of the first signs of gingivitis.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Preventive Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of _________ dentistry is to help people of all ages obtain optimal oral health throughout their lives.
A)esthetic
B)restorative
C)pediatric
D)preventive
Q2) Which of the following is used to protect difficult-to-clean occlusal surfaces of teeth from caries?
A)Fluoride varnish
B)Crown
C)Sealant
D)Fluoride gel
Q3) Oral hygiene should begin:
A)before the baby has teeth.
B)when the first tooth erupts.
C)after all teeth are present.
D)when the child can master the skill.
Q4) Every person needs the same patient education for oral health needs.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are needed in small amounts and are found in all foods except those that are highly refined?
A)Vitamins and minerals
B)Proteins
C)Carbohydrates
D)Fats
Q2) Well-nourished persons are usually better able to do which of the following than poorly nourished individuals?
A)Avoid grand mal seizures.
B)Ward off infections.
C)Manage insulin resistance.
D)Prevent dental caries.
Q3) Consumption of which of the following nutrients can help lower blood cholesterol?
A)Water-soluble fiber
B)Insoluble fiber
C)Simple sugars
D)Complex carbohydrates
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Chapter 17: Oral Pathology
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Q1) Which of the following types of lesions extends above the mucosal surface?
A)Hematoma
B)Ulcer
C)Erosion
D)Cyst
Q2) The condition is which a small,toothlike mass of enamel and dentin form within the lingual pit is called:
A)anodontia.
B)macrodontia.
C)dens in dente.
D)supernumerary teeth.
Q3) Which of the following is a general term that means "white patch"?
A)Candidiasis
B)Hyperplastic
C)Leukoplakia
D)Aphthous
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dental assistants should be immunized against which of the following viral infections?
A)Hepatitis B
B)Hepatitis C
C)Tetanus
D)Tuberculosis
Q2) Which of the following diseases is commonly known as lockjaw?
A)Legionnaires' disease
B)Syphilis
C)Tuberculosis
D)Tetanus
Q3) ______ is the study of microorganisms.
A)Anatomy
B)Microbiology
C)Antiseptic
D)Disinfectant
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Disease Transmission and Infection Prevention
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Q1) An infection that is long in duration is a(n)_____ infection.
A)chronic
B)latent
C)acute
D)opportunistic
Q2) The law designed to protect employees against occupational exposure to bloodborne disease-causing organisms such as HBV,HIV,and HCV is:
A)the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens (BBP) Standard.
B)Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings-2003.
C)the OSHA Health and Safety Standards.
D)the exposure control plan.
Q3) When immunity is obtained by recovery from a disease,it is called _____ immunity.
A)inherited
B)acquired
C)active
D)artificially acquired
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Chapter 20: Principles and Techniques of Disinfection
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Q1) One difference between a disinfectant and sterilant is:
A)a disinfectant kills disease-causing microorganisms remaining on surfaces after precleaning.
B)a disinfectant destroys all microorganisms.
C)a disinfectant is destroys all spores and fungi.
D)both a and b
Q2) Precautions when using glutaraldehyde include:
A)avoid inhaling the fumes.
B)always rinse instruments thoroughly prior to any intraoral use.
C)wear PPE to protect the eyes, skin, and lungs.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Under the CDC Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings-2003,housekeeping surfaces include:
A)floors.
B)walls.
C)sinks.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 21: Principles and Techniques of Instrument
Processing
and Sterilization
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Q1) When transporting and processing contaminated patient care items,precautions need to be taken to avoid personal exposure to microorganisms through:
A)percutaneous injury.
B)contact with mucous membranes of the eye, nose, or mouth.
C)breathing aerosol from disinfectant and other chemicals.
D)a and b
Q2) All of the following will cause a sterilization failure except:
A)excessive packaging.
B)using correct packaging material.
C)overloading of sterilizer.
D)inadequate instrument cleaning.
Q3) The order of the cycles of a steam sterilizer is:
A)drying; heat-up; depressurization, sterilizing.
B)depressurization; heat-up; sterilizing; drying
C)heat-up; sterilizing, depressurization, drying.
D)sterilizing; heat-up; depressurization; drying.
Q4) Microorganisms in a steam sterilizer are killed by:
A)heat.
B)pressure.
C)both heat and pressure.
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Chapter 22: Regulatory and Advisory Agencies
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Q1) The ADA,ADAA,ADHA,and OSAP are regulatory agencies that monitor and regulate the practice of dentistry.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)is responsible for:
A)reviewing the manufacturers' antimicrobial claims to ensure that they are supported by scientific evidence.
B)regulating the manufacturing and labeling of medical devices.
C)publishing guidelines on preventing transmission of tuberculosis in healthcare settings including dental offices.
D)reviewing claims on the labels of products to be certain that those claims are true.
Q3) States that administer their own state-operated OSHA programs do not have to meet or exceed federal OSHA standards.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Annual OSHA inspections are mandatory for every dental practice.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Chemical and Waste Management
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Q1) Used radiographic fixer:
A)should be flushed down the toilet.
B)requires offsite treatment.
C)can be managed on site with the installation of a silver recovery system.
D)is nonhazardous; however, used radiographic developer is hazardous.
Q2) Which of the following is a form of toxicity that can be caused by chronic benzene exposure?
A)Headache
B)Dizziness
C)Unconsciousness
D)Leukemia
Q3) Which of the following is the classification for waste that is infectious and requires special handling,neutralization,and disposal?
A)Contaminated waste
B)Hazardous waste
C)Regulated waste
D)Nonregulated waste
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Chapter 24: Dental Unit Waterlines
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Q1) The advantages of self-contained water reservoirs include:
A)they are less expensive to use.
B)dental personnel can select the quality of water used.
C)maintenance of the water system is under the control of the dental staff.
D)both b and c
Q2) Flushing the dental waterlines for several minutes at the beginning of the treatment day and for 20 to 30 seconds between patients will help to:
A)reduce prep time.
B)reduce the microbial count.
C)do both a and b
D)do none of the above.
Q3) Methods of reducing the level of bacterial contamination in waterlines include all of the following except:
A)yearly replacement of all water lines.
B)chemical treatment regimens.
C)self-contained water reservoirs.
D)microfiltration.
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Chapter 25: Ergonomics
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Q1) To relieve stress on the back,neck,and shoulders a dental assistant can:
A)periodically get up and walk around.
B)perform a full back release and head rotations.
C)perform a shoulder shrug.
D)do both b and c
Q2) The risk for cumulative trauma disorders (CTDs)can increase with:
A)standing in one position for extended periods of time.
B)overflexion and overextension of the wrist.
C)slouching.
D)none of the above.
Q3) Periodic stretching of the muscles that support the back,neck,forearms,wrists,and hands will help keep them strong and healthy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The full back release involves:
A)drawing the left arm across the chest and moving the head slowly to the right.
B)dropping the head down slowly while allowing the arms and head to fall between the knees.
C)placing the hands and knees on a flat surface an arching the back like a cat.
D)touching your toes and then hyperextending your back and neck.
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Chapter 26: The Patient Record
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Q1) A patient's medical-dental history should be updated:
A)once a year.
B)every time the patient comes into the office.
C)every 6 months.
D)only after a major illness.
Q2) Before treatment,a patient's overall health and dental status is recorded on a:
A)patient registration.
B)medical-dental health history.
C)medical alert information.
D)consent form.
Q3) A treatment plan is properly sequenced to address all problems that were identified during the examination and diagnosis portion of the patient visit,and can include more than one option for treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The patient record is not considered a legal document.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Vital Signs
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Q1) The artery most commonly used to take a pulse when performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation is the _____ artery.
A)brachial
B)carotid
C)femoral.
D)radial
Q2) The normal respiration rate for a relaxed adult is _____ beats per minute.
A)10 to 20
B)30 to 40
C)50 to 60
D)5 to 12
Q3) How many phases of Korotkoff sounds are heard when taking the blood pressure?
A)Five
B)Four
C)Three
D)Two
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Chapter 28: Oral Diagnosis and Treatment Planning
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Q1) The tooth-numbering system that begins numbering the maxillary right third molar as tooth #1 and ends with the mandibular right third molar as tooth #32 is the:
A)Universal System.
B)Palmer Notation System.
C)International Standards Organization/Fédération Dentaire Internationale System.
D)Bracket Numbering System.
Q2) The most common tooth-numbering systems used are the:
A)Universal System, the Palmer Notation System, and the International Standards Organization/Fédération Dentaire Internationale System.
B)Global Numbering System, the Bracket Numbering System, and the Palm Beach System.
C)Federal Numbering System, the Global Numbering System, and the Palmer Notation System.
D)World Numbering System, the Palmer Notation System, and the Bracket Numbering System.
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Chapter 29: The Special Needs and Medically
Compromised
Patient
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Q1) To facilitate an easy patient transfer,a wheelchair-bound patient should initially be positioned:
A)as close to the dental chair as possible.
B)the same way that he or she will be seated in the dental chair.
C)the opposite way that he or she will be seated in the dental chair.
D)as described in both a and b
Q2) Adults who are older than 65 years and who are beginning to have multiple health problems are categorized as:
A)functionally independent older adults.
B)dependent older adults.
C)frail older adults.
D)senior citizens.
Q3) All of the following considerations need to be made when treating a patient with diabetes except:
A)schedule a long appointment for late in the day.
B)maintain normal dietary intake.
C)minimize stress.
D)minimize the risk of infection.
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Chapter 30: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) A life-threatening adverse effect from a body's reaction to a drug is termed:
A)hives.
B)fever.
C)anaphylaxis.
D)rash.
Q2) Patent medicines are also known as _____ drugs.
A)over-the-counter
B)prescription
C)ethical
D)generic
Q3) The prescription abbreviation t.i.d.stands for _____ daily.
A)twice
B)once
C)four times
D)three times
Q4) A professional who is authorized to prescribe medications must have:
A)a federal Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) identification number.
B)a prescription pad.
C)a medical or dental office.
D)both a and B
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Chapter 31: Assisting in a Medical Emergency
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an emergency,which dental staff member is most likely to call emergency services and remain on the telephone at all times to obtain appropriate medical assistance?
A)Business assistant
B)Clinical assistant
C)Dental hygienist
D)Dentist
Q2) The 2010 CPR sequence of steps C-A-B stands for:
A)care, access, breath.
B)circulation, airway, breathing.
C)chest compressions, airway, breathing.
D)chest compressions, access, breathing.
Q3) Most emergencies in the dental office occur:
A)when the patient arrives or immediately thereafter.
B)when the patient completes the health history form.
C)during or immediately after administration of local anesthesia.
D)after the procedure is completed and the patient is dismissed.
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Chapter 32: The Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) The room in which a dentist discusses the diagnosis and treatment plans with a patient is the:
A)reception room.
B)dentist's private office.
C)dental laboratory.
D)consultation room.
Q2) A patient who is having a radiograph exposed should be in the ___________ position.
A)supine
B)upright
C)subsupine
D)None of the above
Q3) The recommended floor covering in the clinical and laboratory areas is:
A)hardwood.
B)linoleum.
C)carpet.
D)concrete.
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Chapter 33: Delivering Dental Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct positioning of the operator's stool should include:
A)feet on base.
B)thighs elevated higher than hips.
C)backrest positioned to support the upper portion of the back.
D)none of the above.
Q2) Team dentistry is described as:
A)four-handed dentistry.
B)being taught to dentists and dental assistant students for the past 40 years.
C)the way the dentist and the dental assistant work together to perform clinical procedures.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Which zone is the area where the instruments and dental materials are exchanged between the dental assistant and the dentist?
A)Static zone
B)Assistant's zone
C)Transfer zone
D)Operator's zone
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35
Chapter 34: Dental Hand Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The instruments most often referred to by number rather than by name are:
A)forceps.
B)pliers.
C)amalgam carvers.
D)both a and b
Q2) Cement spatulas are:
A)single-ended.
B)made of stainless steel.
C)used to mix liners, bases, and cements.
D)all of the above.
Q3) The instrument that transports freshly triturated amalgam from an amalgam well to a cavity preparation is the amalgam:
A)condenser.
B)carver.
C)burnisher.
D)carrier.
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Chapter 35: Dental Handpieces and Accessories
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Sample Questions
Q1) A high-speed handpiece can reach how many rotations per minute (rpm)?
A)250,000
B)100,000
C)450,000
D)300,000
Q2) The metal shaft on which sandpaper disks and other abrasives are mounted is called a:
A)shaft.
B)working end.
C)screw.
D)mandrel.
Q3) The ultrasonic handpiece is used for:
A)cavity preparation.
B)polishing.
C)scaling.
D)adjusting dentures.
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Chapter 36: Moisture Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The piece of dental dam equipment that stabilizes and stretches the dam away from the tooth is the:
A)clamp.
B)bow.
C)punch.
D)frame.
Q2) An antimicrobial solution should be flushed through the evacuation system hoses: A)weekly.
B)daily.
C)monthly.
D)every other day.
Q3) Which of the following is used the most throughout a restorative dental procedure?
A)Saliva ejector
B)High-volume evacuator
C)Spittoon
D)Both a and b
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Chapter 37: Anesthesia and Pain Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The different levels of consciousness and unconsciousness are referred to as stages of anesthesia; these stages include all of the following except stage:
A)I (analgesia).
B)II (excitement).
C)III (cardiac arrest).
D)Both a and b are correct.
Q2) _____ is added to a local anesthetic agent to slow down the intake of the agent and increase the duration of action.
A)Sodium chloride
B)A vasoconstrictor
C)An amide
D)An ester
Q3) To provide optimal effectiveness,an ointment type of topical anesthetic should remain on the site of injection for a minimum of:
A)2 to 5 seconds.
B)15 to 30 seconds.
C)2 minutes.
D)3 to 5 minutes.
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Chapter
38: Foundations of Radiography, Radiographic Equipment, and Radiation Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of cumulative radiation exposure is:
A)cataracts.
B)leukemia.
C)cancer.
D)all of the above.
Q2) The council that determines the radiation effects and levels tolerable for humans is the:
A)American Dental Association (Council on Radiation Safety).
B)American Dental Association (Council on Dental Materials).
C)National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) What happens when the exposure button is engaged?
A)The high-voltage circuit is activated.
B)Kilovolts drive the electrons to the target.
C)Electrons slam against the target producing the x-ray.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 39: Digital Imaging, Dental Film, and Processing
Radiographs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of the lead foil in the dental film packet is to:
A)provide stiffness to the film.
B)reduce film fogging.
C)absorb the primary beam.
D)make the packet more flexible and resilient.
Q2) Film speed is determined by the:
A)thickness of silver bromide salt.
B)thickness of cellulose acetate base.
C)size of the silver bromide crystals.
D)Both a and c are correct.
Q3) When film emulsion interacts with x-rays,the result is:
A)a visible distortion.
B)a distorted light source.
C)a latent image.
D)none of the above.
Q4) All the following are true statements about image plates except they:
A)need to be protected in the patient's mouth with barriers.
B)should be autoclaved.
C)require care not to scratch when handling.
D)are positioned in the mouth like dental film.
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Chapter 40: Legal Issues, Quality Assurance, and Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following the completion of the film-screen contact test,areas of good film-screen contact will:
A)be uniform.
B)be darker.
C)vary in densities.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) When a daily radiograph is lighter than the reference radiograph,it indicates the developer is too:
A)weak.
B)strong.
C)hot.
D)weak or hot.
Q3) The simplest method for ensuring the freshness of each box of film is to:
A)check the expiration date.
B)process one film from each box with fresh chemicals.
C)use the clearing test.
D)do all of the above.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Intraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Basic principles of the bitewing technique include the:
A)film sensor is placed parallel to the crowns of the teeth.
B)blue Rinn type holder is used to stabilize the film sensor in the patient's mouth.
C)central ray is directed through the contacts of the teeth using +10 degrees horizontal angulation.
D)angulation of the PID is not a factor in the bitewing technique.
Q2) Incorrect horizontal angulation of the PID results in:
A)elongation.
B)foreshortening.
C)blurred images.
D)overlapped contact areas.
Q3) The alignment of the x-ray beam in the horizontal and vertical planes formed by the long axis of the teeth and the film sensor placement is referred to as:
A)angulation.
B)interproximal.
C)paralleling.
D)perpendicular.
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43
Chapter 42: Extraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct position of the Frankfort plane for a diagnostically correct panoramic image is:
A)parallel to the floor.
B)perpendicular to the floor.
C)tipped downward.
D)tipped upward.
Q2) To avoid a lead apron artifact on a panoramic radiograph:
A)use a lead apron without a thyroid collar.
B)place the lead apron high around the neck of the patient so that it does not block the x-ray beam.
C)place the lead apron low around the neck of the patient so that it does not block the x-ray beam.
D)do both a and c
Q3) When a patient's chin is too high during the panoramic exposure:
A)the maxillary premolars will be blurred.
B)the floor of the nasal cavity will be superimposed over the roots of the mandibular teeth.
C)a "reverse smile line" will appear on the radiograph.
D)detail of the mandibular region will be lost.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Restorative and Esthetic Dental Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) A porcelain casting is chosen over other castings because it:
A)has higher strength.
B)has the ability to match natural tooth structure.
C)is a good insulator.
D)is all of the above.
Q2) Materials used to restore posterior teeth must be capable of withstanding _____ psi.
A)10,000
B)15,000
C)18,000
D)28,000
Q3) The purpose of packing the amalgam in the cavity preparation is to _____ it.
A)amalgamate.
B)condense
C)carve
D)triturate.
Q4) Retention holds a material in place and seals the structures together.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Dental Liners, Bases, and Bonding Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thermal changes from hot,cold,or electrical energy created by other metals coming into contact with the tooth are defined as which type of pulpal stimuli?
A)Biological
B)Mechanical
C)Physical
D)Chemical
Q2) Dental varnish is used in the cavity preparation to:
A)seal dentinal tubules.
B)reduce leakage around a restoration.
C)stimulate growth of reparative dentin.
D)do both a and b
Q3) A desensitizer could be indicated for which of the following procedures?
A)Amalgam restoration
B)Sealants
C)Provisional coverage
D)Fluoride application
Q4) When a varnish is used,it is always used before other materials.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Dental Cements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of dental cement is used as an adhesive for permanent indirect restorations?
A)Temporary B)Luting
C)Provisional D)Liner
Q2) Which item listed would not use luting cement for placement?
A)Laminate veneers
B)Orthodontic fixed appliances
C)Direct provisional restorations
D)Indirect restorations
Q3) Which statement best represents the dental assistant's priority when preparing dental cements?
A)Work quickly.
B)Mix in all powder at once.
C)Follow the manufacturer's instructions.
D)Change ratios depending on temperature.
Q4) Properly mixed glass ionomer cement should have a glossy appearance.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Impression Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the impression tray prepared for an elastomeric impression?
A)Stops placed
B)Spacers placed
C)Coated with adhesive
D)Treated with lubricant
Q2) Which type of elastomeric material has the highest viscosity?
A)Light-bodied
B)Regular-bodied
C)Heavy-bodied
D)Putty
Q3) An impression tray should be sufficiently deep to allow _____ mm of material between the tray and the incisal or occlusal edges of the teeth.
A)0.5 to 1
B)2 to 3
C)4 to 5
D)6 to 7
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Materials and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which technique listed would be incorrect when pour an impression?
A)In small increments
B)In large amounts
C)In the same place
D)In a continuous flow
Q2) When taking a face-bow registration,the vertical indicator rod should be aligned with which oral landmark?
A)Midline
B)Upper first molar
C)Lower canine
D)Nose
Q3) What is the powder-to-water ratio for high-strength stone?
A)10
B)19
C)30
D)45
Q4) When constructing custom trays it is best to remove excess material with a lab knife after it has cured.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: General Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a class III or IV restoration,the dentist may use a _____ to help reproduce the correct contours and contact.
A)Tofflemire matrix system
B)Mylar matrix system
C)universal matrix system
D)gingival retraction cord
Q2) What classification of restoration involves the lingual pit of a maxillary incisor?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
E)V
Q3) Complete the statement: "When completing a permanent restoration,the dentist should have knowledge of:
A)the size and position of the pulp of the tooth."
B)the crown as it relates to the pulp of the tooth."
C)where the body of the tooth lies."
D)the directions of the enamel spindles."
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Chapter 49: Matrix Systems for Restorative Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the statements is incorrect about a spot-welded band?
A)The spot-welded band is a custom fitted band.
B)The spot-welded band measures 3/4 to 1 inch of copper material.
C)A #110 pliers is used to adapt the band to ensure the ends of the matrix are at the facial surface.
D)The matrix is welded at three positions before being placed on the tooth.
Q2) Why is a matrix band contoured prior to placing the restorative material?
A)Ensure that the band will fit the tooth being restored.
B)Curl the band to make it easier to fit the tooth.
C)Ensure that the final restoration will have proper contact with the adjacent tooth.
D)Ensure that there is no cupping of the final restoration.
Q3) For there to be a solid closure of margins on a posterior composite restoration,where should the prongs of the tension ring for the Palodent system be placed?
A)Distal to the band and wedge
B)Between the band and wedge
C)Mesial to the band and wedge
D)Buccal to the band and wedge
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Chapter 50: Fixed Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is correct when packing retraction cord?
A)It is important to place the retraction cord into the sulcus without damaging the surrounding gingival tissues.
B)The placement and removal of gingival retraction cord are expanded functions and may be performed by a dental assistant trained in expanded functions.
C)Generally, the operator removes the cord while the assistant prepares the impression material.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) How is the area under the pontic of a bridge maintained?
A)Brush with a toothbrush.
B)Clean under the pontic using floss and a floss threader.
C)Irrigate with a cannula.
D)Swish with a mouth rinse.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a fixed prosthesis?
A)Partial denture
B)Silver amalgam core
C)Three-unit bridge
D)Pin-retained amalgam
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Chapter 51: Provisional Coverage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the materials listed,which one is used most commonly for custom provisional coverage?
A)Self-curing acrylic resin
B)Light-cured composite resin
C)Polycarbonate shells
D)Alginate
Q2) What is one disadvantage of using custom provisional coverage?
A)It can only be used for anterior teeth.
B)It can be the most time-consuming to make.
C)It is hard to fit the prepared tooth.
D)It does not look natural.
Q3) Which statement is correct regarding prefabricated temporary crowns?
A)They can be used for posterior but not anterior preparations.
B)They are available in cast gold.
C)They are available in porcelain fused-to-metal.
D)Crowns made of polycarbonate are used where appearance is important.
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53
Chapter 52: Removable Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) During fabrication of a complete denture,the dentist uses the baseplate wax-occlusal rim assembly in order to evaluate the _____,which includes centric,protrusive,retrusive,and lateral excursions.
A)vertical dimension
B)occlusal relationship
C)smile line
D)canine eminence
Q2) How long of an appointment is scheduled to deliver the partial denture?
A)5 to 10 minutes
B)10 to 20 minutes
C)20 to 30 minutes
D)1 hour
Q3) Which statement is correct concerning salivary flow?
A)The prosthesis is considered a foreign object and can cause the salivary glands to produce excessive saliva.
B)Physical conditions such as medications and radiation treatment can also increase the amount of saliva produced.
C)The lack of saliva can make it difficult for a patient to wear a prosthesis.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 53: Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term refers to the bond that is developed between living bone and the surface of an implant fixture?
A)Ostectomy
B)Transosteal
C)Subperiosteal
D)Osseointegrated
Q2) The entire endosteal dental implant process may take _____ to reach completion.
A)1 month
B)3 to 6 months
C)3 to 9 months
D)1 year
Q3) The implantation process involves several steps and may take _____ months to complete.
A)1 to 3
B)3 to 6
C)3 to 9
D)6 to 12
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Chapter 54: Endodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thermal sensitivity tests:
A)include testing for sensitivity to heat and cold.
B)can be used on metallic restorations.
C)include testing for cold sensitivity with dry ice.
D)Both a and c are correct.
Q2) What is the role of radiographs in endodontics?
A)Radiographs are used for diagnosis only.
B)Radiographs are used only during treatment to determine file length.
C)Radiographs are used for diagnosis and during treatment to determine file length.
D)Radiographs are used for diagnosis, during treatment to determine file length, and at posttreatment evaluations.
Q3) Which process is used to remove bacteria,necrotic tissue,and organic debris from the root canal?
A)Obturation
B)Opening the canal
C)Debridement
D)Shaping
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56
Chapter 55: Periodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instrument is designed to remove supragingival calculus from the posterior teeth?
A)Sickle scaler
B)Contra-angle sickle scaler
C)Chisel scaler
D)Files
Q2) Which type of radiographs are excellent for determining the extent of crestal bone loss?
A)Anterior periapical
B)Posterior periapical
C)Vertical bitewing
D)Both a and b
Q3) The _____ includes the gathering of information such as periodontal pocket readings,furcations,tooth mobility,presence of exudate (pus),and gingival recession.
A)medical history
B)dental charting and history
C)periodontal examination and charting
D)hygiene examination
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Chapter 56: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surgical setup cannot be open for more than _____ before it is no longer considered sterile.
A)30 minutes
B)60 minutes
C)90 minutes
D)3 hours
Q2) In which location will the surgical team perform oral surgery procedures?
A)Hospital operating room or outpatient surgical suite
B)General dentist's office
C)Private dental office
D)Both a and c
Q3) Which statement is incorrect concerning forceps extractions?
A)A "simple" forceps extraction is not considered a surgical procedure.
B)Most routine extractions do not require placement of sutures.
C)A forceps extraction is performed on a tooth that is fully erupted.
D)A forceps extraction is performed using extensive instrumentation.
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Chapter 57: Pediatric Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which government agencies should be contacted in cases of suspected child abuse?
A)Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
B)State police
C)Child protective services agency
D)Welfare office
Q2) Which services would not be routinely provided in a pediatric dental office?
A)Preventive procedures
B)Restorative procedures
C)Interceptive orthodontics
D)Third molar extractions
Q3) Which information for diagnosis and treatment planning for a pediatric patient would not be necessary?
A)Radiographs
B)Clinical examination
C)Pocket probing
D)Disclose for plaque
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Chapter 58: Coronal Polishing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is not a negative effect of coronal polishing?
A)Dentinal hypersensitivity during and after the appointment
B)Loss of enamel
C)Scratches or rough surfaces left on restorations
D)Decreased fluoride uptake
Q2) To avoid injury,the rubber polishing cup is directed ______ the gingival third and pressed ______ against the tooth surface.
A)toward; lightly..
B)away from; lightly
C)toward; firmly
D)toward; lightly
Q3) What type of stain,found on some children's teeth,can be caused by poor hygiene and the fungi that are retained in bacterial plaque?
A)Black
B)Green
C)Orange
D)Red
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Chapter 59: Dental Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary reason that few children are protected by dental sealants?
A)They are not recommended by the American Dental Association.
B)They have not been shown to reduce decay significantly.
C)There is a lack of public awareness.
D)They are not effective for prevention of pit and fissure decay in posterior teeth.
Q2) Which type of sealant is polymerized by chemical reaction?
A)Cold-cured
B)Light-cured
C)Self-cured
D)Dual-cured
Q3) Sealants are used in only ____% of low-income children.
A)50
B)75
C)15
D)30
Q4) Dental sealants replace other preventive care.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 60: Orthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The arch wire that is used as a "working arch wire" is:
A)nickel titanium.
B)stainless steel.
C)beta titanium.
D)Opti-Flex.
Q2) What information is needed for the diagnosis and treatment planning of an orthodontic case?
A)Medical and dental histories
B)Photographs and radiographs
C)Diagnostic models
D)All of the above
Q3) Which type of arch wire would not be used to position the crown and root of the teeth in final stages of treatment?
A)Round
B)Square
C)Rectangular
D)All of the above
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Chapter 61: Communication in the Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are closed-ended questions used?
A)To obtain information
B)Maintain control of the conversation
C)To close a conversation
D)To build a relationship with the patient
Q2) Which statement is not true concerning social attitudes?
A)Social attitudes have no influence on a person's behavior.
B)People tend to make others' attitudes their own.
C)Socialization is the process of society's influences on individuals.
D)Social attitudes can influence a person's cultural way of thinking.
Q3) How are the patient's needs met during patient care?
A)Having fresh plants or flowers in the office
B)Making humorous remarks
C)Calling them by their first names or nicknames
D)Having them wait for appointments or showing them how popular the dental office is
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 62: Business Operating Systems
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15623
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is incorrect about inventory management?
A)An inventory system should be updated at all times.
B)It should be organized into expendables and nonexpendables.
C)All expendable items must always be placed on the automatic shipment system.
D)It is advisable that a clinical assistant be assigned to handle the inventory of clinical supplies.
Q2) When is the best time to see young children in the dental office?
A)After their nap
B)Right after lunch
C)Late in the day
D)In the morning
Q3) When is appointment scheduling is most effective?
A)Everyone in the office knows how to schedule.
B)All appointments are scheduled at least 2 weeks in advance.
C)Only one person is responsible for the scheduling.
D)Emergency patients are always seen over the noon hour.
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Chapter 63: Financial Management in the Dental Office
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15624
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has an existing balance of $75.00.The charges for that day are $1350.What is the total amount due on the walkout statement?
A)$75.00
B)$1350.00
C)$1425.00
D)$1275.00
Q2) Which statement is correct regarding patient management systems?
A)They are essential to maintain practice records.
B)They must be protected with backup files stored in a safe place away from the office.
C)They will automatically generate account totals and monthly summaries.
D)Both b and c are correct statements.
Q3) Which statement represents when a detailed list of goods shipped or services rendered with an account of all costs on an itemized bill?
A)Packing slip
B)Invoice
C)Statement
D)Transaction
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65
Chapter 64: Marketing Your Skills
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15625
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of dental assistant helps dental practices enhance employee satisfaction and improve communication skills?
A)A hospital
B)Management consulting
C)Teaching
D)Dental schools
Q2) How many minutes early should you arrive before the interview?
A)Five to 10 minutes
B)Ten to 15 minutes
C)Right at the time for the interview, so you don't have to wait
D)A couple of minutes after the time of the appointment, so the dentist will be ready for you when you arrive
Q3) How is work experience listed on a resume?
A)List in chronological order beginning with the most recent.
B)Provide dates of employment.
C)Provide employers names and locations.
D)All of the above are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.