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This course provides an in-depth exploration of infection control principles and practices specific to the dental setting. Students will learn about the modes of transmission of infectious agents, standard and transmission-based precautions, sterilization and disinfection techniques, and the use of personal protective equipment. Emphasis is placed on understanding regulatory guidelines and implementation of evidence-based protocols to protect both patients and dental health care workers. The course also covers current emerging infectious diseases and the importance of occupational health and safety within dental practices, ensuring a comprehensive foundation for preventing and managing infection risks in oral healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Dental Assisting 10th Edition by Doni L. Bird
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64 Chapters
2493 Verified Questions
2493 Flashcards
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36 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) ___________ is recognized for her research related to HIV and AIDS.
A)Ida Rollins
B)Lucy Hobbs-Taylor
C)Deborah Greenspan
D)Geraldine Morrow
Answer: C
Q2) Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings were initiated in: A)1924. B)1978.
C)2000.
D)2003.
Answer: D
Q3) The ADAA was founded in: A)1900. B)1924.
C)1982. D)2000. Answer: B
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Q1) Which not is true of certification?
A)It is required in all states to perform expanded functions.
B)It is achieved by passing DANB.
C)It verifies that you have obtained a certain level of knowledge.
D)It is a voluntary credential.
Answer: A
Q2) A responsible person will not:
A)arrive on time.
B)leave promptly at the end of the day.
C)volunteer to help a co-worker.
D)stay until to job is done.
Answer: B
Q3) Recommendations for good grooming and appropriate dress include:
A)using an up-to-date perfume or cologne as a form of aromatherapy.
B)limiting use of tobacco products to the outdoors to avoid an odor in treatment areas.
C)considering infection-control requirements when selecting clinical wear.
D)excessive makeup and jewelry, in order to distract patients from disagreeable aspects of their planned dental treatment.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are members of the dental healthcare team?
A)Dental assistant
B)Dentist
C)Dental supply representative
D)Both a and b
Answer: D
Q2) What is the minimum length of an ADA-accredited dental assisting program?
A)Six months
B)One academic year
C)Three months
D)Two academic years
Answer: B
Q3) Appointment control and office communications are generally the role of the: A)dentist.
B)circulating assistant.
C)business assistant.
D)EFDA.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Continuing education for dental assistants is:
A)a legal requirement in every state
B)established by the federal government
C)the ethical obligation of dental assistants
D)not necessary
Q2) You know someone who lost his or her textbook and you find it.By returning it to the owner,you are applying which principle of ethics?
A)Principle of well-being
B)Principle of justice
C)Doing no harm
D)Principle of autonomy
Q3) The ADAA code of ethics are:
A)laws.
B)never revised.
C)revised periodically.
D)both a and b.
Q4) A patient has the right to refuse treatment even if the treatment would benefit him or her.
A)True
B)False

Page 6
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a dental professional,you have the obligation to be aware of signs of ______ abuse.
A)elder
B)child
C)spousal
D)all of the above
Q2) When must a dentist refer a patient?
A)When the dentist doesn't want to treat the patient
B)When the case is unusual and conditions are beyond the dentist's scope of expertise
C)When the patient refuses to give consent
D)Both b and c
Q3) Failure of a dentist to renew his or her dental license in time is an example of a(n) _____ offense.
A)felony criminal
B)misdemeanor criminal
C)infraction criminal
D)civil
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Sample Questions
Q1) The part of the cell that makes,stores,and transports cell proteins is the:
A)membrane.
B)cytoplasm.
C)organelles.
D)nucleus.
Q2) The two major body cavities are the _____ cavities.
A)parietal and dorsal
B)thoracic and ventral
C)dorsal and ventral
D)cranial and spinal
Q3) Which type of tissue provides protection,produces secretions,and regulates the passage of materials across it?
A)Epithelial
B)Connective
C)Muscle
D)Nerve
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Sample Questions
Q1) The digestive process begins in the:
A)mouth.
B)stomach.
C)small intestine.
D)large intestine.
Q2) Toxic shock syndrome is a disorder of which body system?
A)Female reproductive
B)Urinary
C)Lymphatic
Q3) The endocrine system uses chemical messengers called _____,which move through the bloodstream.
A)hormones
B)erythrocytes
C)leukocytes
D)thrombocytes
Q4) The outer layer of hard,dense,and very strong bone is known as:
A)cancellous bone.
B)bone marrow.
C)compact bone.
D)periosteum.
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an examination,the dentist discovers that a patient is in the early stages of periodontal disease.How did the dentist determine this?
A)The alveolar socket around the crown of the tooth is resorbing.
B)The alveolar process is increasing in size and shape.
C)The alveolar crest is flattening out, increasing the distance between the CEJ and the alveolar crest.
D)The periodontal ligaments are narrowing.
Q2) The movement of the teeth into their functional positions in the oral cavity is known as:
A)exfoliation.
B)eruption.
C)tooth growth.
Q3) Variations in the shades or coloring of enamel are caused by _____ the enamel. A)differences in the thickness of B)translucency of C)color of the dentin beneath D)all of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) The strongest,longest,and only movable bone of the face is the:
A)mandible.
B)zygomatic bone.
C)maxilla.
D)frontal bone.
Q2) The _____ bone(s) form(s) the prominence of the cheek.
A)maxillary
B)zygomatic
C)sphenoid
D)ethmoid
Q3) The bone that forms the lower jaw is the:
A)lacrimal bone.
B)maxilla.
C)mandible.
D)nasal bone.
Q4) The human skull is divided into what two sections?
A)Brain and face
B)Cranium and face
C)Frontal lobe and cranium
D)Face and sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area of the mouth that is bordered by the soft palate on the top,posterior of the tongue on the bottom,and the anterior and posterior fauces is the: A)isthmus of fauces.
B)gag reflex.
C)uvula.
D)oral cavity proper.
Q2) The cartilaginous projection of the ear that is anterior to the external opening is the: A)ala.
B)tragus.
C)nasion.
D)commissure.
Q3) Unattached gingiva consists of the tissues from the top of the gingival margin to the: A)base of the gingival sulcus. B)crest of alveolar bone.
C)mucogingival junction.
D)interdental gingiva.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The upper teeth are set in the:
A)zygomatic.
B)maxilla.
C)mandible.
D)mentalis.
Q2) The jaw position that produces maximal stable contact between the occluding surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular teeth is:
A)functional occlusion.
B)malocclusion.
C)basic occlusion.
D)centric occlusion.
Q3) The mandibular arch is movable through the action of the: A)temporomandibular joint. B)maxilla.
C)gomphosis.
D)cartilaginous joint.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The smallest teeth in the permanent dentition are the:
A)maxillary lateral incisors.
B)mandibular central incisors.
C)mandibular canines.
D)maxillary central incisors.
Q2) A _____ is a pinpoint depression in the occlusal surface of a posterior tooth where two or more grooves meet.
A)pit
B)fossa
C)fissure
D)developmental groove
Q3) The developmental groove that extends mesiodistally and divides the occlusal table in half is the _____ groove.
A)marginal
B)triangular
C)central
D)none of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not true of dental plaque?
A)It is a colorless, sticky coating on the teeth.
B)It contains an adhesive substance called the pellicle.
C)It is removed by the tongue or by rinsing the mouth with water or mouthwash.
D)It contains 99% more oral bacteria than the same amount of saliva.
Q2) Cariology,the study of caries,does not include the:
A)causes of dental caries.
B)process of caries development.
C)restoration of dental caries.
D)risk management and prevention of dental caries.
Q3) New restorative materials help reduce recurrent decay by bonding to the tooth surface and releasing fluoride.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The carious lesions found frequently in elderly patients are:
A)incipient lesions.
B)rampant caries.
C)root caries.
D)secondary caries.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percent of American adults have some sort of periodontal disease?
A)35%
B)49%
C)60%
D)75%
Q2) All of the following systemic conditions may lead to sex hormone gingival disease except:
A)puberty.
B)pregnancy.
C)menstrual cycle.
D)lack of vitamin C.
Q3) Perioscopy uses:
A)a miniature camera attached to a tiny probe that is placed into the sulcus.
B)time-release antibiotic spheres delivered in a mouth tray.
C)a surgical microscope with use of gingival retraction cord.
D)reflection of tissue and treatment of root surfaces with fibronectin.
Q4) A pregnant woman expecting her first child has moderate periodontal disease.Treatment should be delayed until after the baby is born.
A)True
B)False

Page 16
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A toothpick is utilized as a component of which of the following interdental aids?
A)End-tuft brush
B)Bridge threader
C)Automatic flosser
D)Perio-aid
Q2) Patients should be cautioned about abnormal _____ of tooth structure over time,caused by vigorously scrubbing the teeth with any toothbrush.
A)attrition
B)abrasion
C)erosion
D)abfraction
Q3) Automatic toothbrushes may be helpful for:
A)patients with physical disabilities.
B)motivating children.
C)timing brushing.
D)all of the above.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Types of dietary minerals that are needed in large amounts (100 mg/day or more) include:
A)sodium.
B)potassium.
C)calcium.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Of the following,which is most easily absorbed by the body?
A)Simple sugars
B)Complex carbohydrates
C)Dietary fiber
D)All are absorbed equally
Q3) Which are reasons why good nutrition is critical for pregnant women,young children,and elderly persons?
A)Malnutrition during these crucial periods may result in physical disabilities.
B)Malnutrition during these crucial periods may result in mental disabilities.
C)Well-nourished persons are better able to heal and ward off infection than are poorly nourished individuals.
D)All of the above are reasons.
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When cells of the body divide and a deformity of a part of the body occurs,it is a(n) _____ disorder.
A)developmental B)inherited C)congenital D)genetic
Q2) The normal wearing away of a tooth structure during chewing is known as: A)attrition. B)bruxism. C)bulimia. D)abrasion.
Q3) A general term that literally means "white patch" is: A)candidiasis. B)hyperplastic. C)leukoplakia. D)aphthous.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41084
Sample Questions
Q1) Which chemicals are capable of destroying viruses in an external environment?
A)Chlorine (bleach), iodine, phenol, and formaldehyde
B)Alcohol, Lysol
C)Birex, antimicrobial soap
D)All of the above
Q2) What type of microorganism can live and multiply only inside an appropriate host cell?
A)Bacteria
B)Viruses
C)Protozoa
D)Algae
E)Fungi
Q3) Which of the following viruses breaks down the body's immune system?
A)Legionnaires' disease
B)HIV
C)Tetanus
D)Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first procedural step after an exposure incident is to:
A)contact the source patient.
B)stop operations immediately.
C)remove your gloves.
D)wash your hands thoroughly.
Q2) The correct order for removing PPE is to first remove the:
A)gloves.
B)protective eyewear.
C)gown.
D)mask.
Q3) Mistlike aerosols are:
A)visible to the naked eye.
B)created by the prophy cup during dental procedures.
C)not capable of transmitting respiratory infections.
D)finer sized particles than sprays and spatter.
Q4) All of the following are descriptions of a sharps disposal container,except:
A)puncture-resistant.
B)closeable and leakproof.
C)accessible to retrieve reusable items.
D)color-coded or labeled with a biohazard symbol.
21
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Q1) Acceptable types of barriers include:
A)clear plastic wrap.
B)plastic bags.
C)tubing and plastic-backed paper.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Under the CDC Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings-2003,housekeeping surfaces include:
A)floors.
B)walls.
C)sinks.
D)all of the above.
Q3) The high-level disinfectant with very little odor that does not require activation or mixing is:
A)chlorine dioxide.
B)glutaraldehyde.
C)ortho-phthalaldehyde (OPA).
D)sodium hypochlorite.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The least desirable method of precleaning dental instruments is:
A)hand scrubbing.
B)ultrasonic cleaning.
C)instrument washing machines.
D)rinsing in a holding solution.
Q2) Another term for biologic monitoring is _____ testing.
A)bacterial
B)culture
C)spore
D)chemical
Q3) Which of the following is incorrect about liquid chemical sterilants?
A)They have a use-life of usually 30 days.
B)They are highly toxic.
C)They require 10 hours for sterilization.
D)They may be disposed of by dumping down the sink.
Q4) The ultrasonic cleaner should be cleaned and disinfected:
A)every other day.
B)once a week.
C)at least once a day.
D)once every 28 days.
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Q1) An agency that issues rules and regulations with which dental offices must comply is a(n) _____ agency.
A)regulatory
B)advisory
C)licensure
D)local governmental
Q2) Annual OSHA inspections are mandatory for every dental practice.
A)True
B)False
Q3) OSHA is responsible for ensuring the safety of the:
A)employers.
B)patients.
C)employees.
D)none of the above.
Q4) The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is a regulatory agency that investigates ways to help prevent disease and researches the causes,treatments,and cures for both common and rare diseases.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The written program portion of the Hazard Communication Program:
A)must identify all the employers in the office who are exposed to hazardous chemicals.
B)describes how to respond to chemical emergencies.
C)is not a requirement for an office employing fewer than 15 employees.
D)describes employer, but not staff, training.
Q2) Scrap dental amalgam should be collected and stored in:
A)a designated, dry, airtight container.
B)an airtight container under photographer fixer.
C)an airtight container under water.
D) either b or c.
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a regulated waste?
A)Blood-soaked gauze
B)Human tissue
C)Saliva-soaked gauze
D)Scalpel blade
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Q1) The bacteria in the biofilm are up to _____ times more resistant to chemical germicides than planktonic bacteria.
A)3
B)5
C)100
D)1500
Q2) Which of the following techniques in dentistry has been proven to cause adverse health effects on patients?
A)Back suction
B)Clogged suction line
C)Backflow from saliva ejector
D)None of the above
Q3) To temporarily reduce the microbial count and to help clean the handpiece waterlines,DUWLs should be flushed:
A)for 20 to 30 seconds between patients.
B)every morning for several minutes.
C)every evening for 20 minutes.
D)both a and b.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The carpal tunnel contains _____ carpal bones.
A)three
B)six
C)eight
D)twelve
Q2) Prevention of CTS (carpal tunnel syndrome) can be accomplished by:
A)warming the muscles and joints of hands by slowly opening and closing hands.
B)frequently resting the hands.
C)holding one arm out in front of body with hand extended, then pulling back gently with fingers of other hand.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Shoulder shrugging helps to stretch shoulder muscles that may be strained from:
A)telephone handsets, oral evacuators, and instruments.
B)bending and twisting.
C)leaning forward.
D)sitting for long periods of time.
Q4) Eyestrain is caused by not focusing for long enough periods of time during dental procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The dentist uses a patient _____ as the primary source of information to determine the overall quality of care the patient receives.
A)record
B)encounter form
C)survey
D)treatment plan
Q2) The _____ addresses all the patient's problems that were identified during the examination and diagnosis portion of the visit in a sequenced plan,and may include more than one option.
A)informed consent form
B)clinical examination
C)treatment plan
D)progress notes
Q3) The _____ provides the patient with the expected outcomes of treatment and describes any possible complications.
A)treatment plan
B)informed consent form
C)clinical examination
D)progress notes
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Q1) The normal respiration rate ranges from ____ to ____ breaths per minute for children and teenagers.
A)10; 20
B)16; 22
C)18; 30
D)18; 40
Q2) When taking a patient's pulse,place your _____ on the patient's wrist between the radius and the tendon.
A)thumb
B)index finger
C)index and third fingers
D)third finger
Q3) Which term describes the pattern of the beats when taking a patient's pulse?
A)Rate
B)Volume
C)Rhythm
D)Arrhythmia
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Q1) Abbreviations may be used in the progress notes or chart to save space.The correct abbreviation for a mesio-occluso-buccal filling would be:
A)BuOcMe.
B)BOM.
C)MOD.
D)MOB.
Q2) A dental charting system that uses the geometric diagram style represents the teeth with:
A)illustrations that resemble the actual crowns of the teeth.
B)squares.
C)circles. D)triangles.
Q3) Using Black's classification of cavities,a pit and fissure on the occlusal surface of molars and premolars is considered a class _____ restoration or cavity.
A)V
B)I
C)II
D)III
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Q1) Which of the following is not considered to be a major factor in hypertension?
A)Stress
B)Exercise
C)Smoking
D)Heredity
Q2) It is essential to complete a _____ profile before treating an older patient.
A)social
B)genetic
C)mobility
D)medication
Q3) Which of the following is not a recommendation for treating hypertension?
A)Handle more stress.
B)Limit salt intake.
C)Follow a particular diet.
D)Perform exercise.
Q4) Treatment modifications for hearing-impaired patients include:
A)leaning toward one of the patient's ears while speaking.
B)talking with a family member rather than the patient.
C)using written information to supplement communication.
D)ignoring when they don't respond.
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Q1) Patent medicines are also known as _____ drugs.
A)over-the-counter
B)prescription
C)ethical
D)generic
Q2) Who can prescribe drugs to a patient within the dental profession?
A)Dental office manager
B)Dental hygienist
C)Dental assistant
D)Dentist
Q3) _____ is defined as the physical and chemical processes that occur within a living cell or organism and are necessary for the maintenance of life.
A)Absorption
B)Distribution
C)Metabolism
D)Excretion
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Q1) When using an automated external defibrillator (AED),it is important that the operator does not have contact with the patient during what phase of the operation of the device?
A)Application of pads
B)Analyze
C)Shock
D)Both b and c
Q2) The 2010 CPR sequence of steps C-A-B stands for:
A)care, access, breath.
B)circulation, airway, breathing.
C)chest compressions, airway, breathing.
D)chest compressions, access, breathing.
Q3) The cells of the brain are irreversibly damaged after _____ without oxygen.
A)1 hour
B)4 to 6 minutes
C)10 to 20 minutes
D)30 minutes
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Q1) In preparing the morning routine (opening the office),the dental assistant should arrive _____ minutes before the first scheduled patient.
A)15
B)60
C)10
D)30
Q2) The central sterilization area is used for maintaining dental instruments.The area is divided into the _____ area and _____ area.
A)storage; clean
B)contaminated; clean
C)sterilized; clean
D)dirty; storage
Q3) The administrative area is separate from the reception area and the clinical area to: A)be HIPAA compliant.
B)provide adequate patient privacy.
C)keep patient charts and information where other patients do not have access.
D)all of the above.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instrument exchange is used to transfer surgical instruments?
A)Palm grasp
B)Two-handed instrument exchange
C)Single-handed instrument exchange
D)Reverse palm-thumb grasp
Q2) What is indirect vision?
A)"Straight on" visual effect
B)Viewing an object through the use of a mirror
C)The object is viewed in reverse
D)Both b and c
Q3) A _____ is a finger rest that stabilizes the hand so that there is less possibility of slipping or traumatizing the tissue in the mouth.
A)base
B)fulcrum
C)leverage point
D)pivot point
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Q1) What instruments follow the examination instruments on a tray setup for an amalgam procedure?
A)Restorative
B)Accessory
C)Hand cutting
D)None of the above
Q2) One of the most convenient and efficient ways to organize instruments and supplies for a specific procedure is the use of:
A)trays.
B)a color-coding system.
C)storage tubs.
D)autoclave bags.
Q3) The _____ instruments are used to place,condense,and carve the dental material back to the normal anatomy of the tooth.
A)restorative
B)hand cutting
C)accessory
D)examination
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Q1) The _____ handpiece can operate both forward and backward and can be used with a variety of attachments.
A)high-speed
B)laboratory
C)low-speed
D)laser
Q2) Which of the following is not a use for a low-speed handpiece?
A)Removal of old or faulty restorations
B)Finishing and polishing restorations
C)Root canal treatment
D)Coronal polishing and removal of stains
Q3) A _____-shaped diamond rotary instrument is used to cut through fixed prostheses.
A)cylinder
B)flame
C)wheel
D)disc
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Q1) The HVE suction tip should be positioned:
A)after the dentist positions the handpiece and mouth mirror.
B)on the surface of the operative tooth closest to the dentist.
C)so the bevel of the suction tip is perpendicular to the tooth surface.
D)so the edge of the suction tip is even with or slightly beyond the occlusal surface or incisal edge.
Q2) After it is used,an HVE tip is:
A)thrown away.
B)disinfected.
C)sterilized.
D)either a or c.
Q3) If the high-speed handpiece is positioned on the occlusal surface of tooth #14,where would the assistant position the HVE?
A)Buccal surface of #15
B)Buccal surface of #13
C)Lower left buccal vestibule
D)Lingual surface of #14
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Q1) A short-acting local anesthetic agent can last from _____ minutes.
A)20 to 45
B)60 to 180
C)120 to 240
D)240 to 540
Q2) The most common form of topical anesthetic used to control a gag reflex during intraoral radiographs is:
A)spray.
B)liquid.
C)ointment.
D)patch.
Q3) Anesthesia is defined as:
A)the passage of a substance into the interior of another by solution or penetration.
B)a substance for killing microorganisms on the skin.
C)the temporary loss of feeling or sensation.
D)the act of inhalation, or ingestion, as of a foreign object.
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Q1) The dentist who is credited with the first practical use of radiographs in dentistry in 1896 is:
A)Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen.
B)CHOICE BLANK
C)Edmund Kells.
D)John Greenwood.
E) V. Black. c.
Q2) Filtration is used to _____ and are discs made of ______.
A)remove long wavelengths from the beam; aluminum
B)remove long wavelengths from the beam; copper
C)restrict the size of the beam; lead
D)restrict the size of the beam; aluminum
Q3) Which of the following structures will appear radiopaque on dental x-ray film?
A)Metal restorations
B)Soft tissue
C)Tooth decay
D)Dental pulp
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Q1) Which of the following time and temperature errors will result in reticulation of the film emulsion?
A)Inadequate development time
B)Developer solution too hot
C)Sudden temperature change between developer and water bath
D)Inaccurate timer or thermometer
Q2) Which of the following will affect the life of the processing solutions?
A)Number of films processed
B)Time elapsed since last change
C)Size of films processed
D)All of the above
Q3) A film cassette made of plastic or metal is used to hold and protect the extraoral film.During exposure,the _____ side of the cassette must always face the patient.
A)front
B)back
C)right
D)left
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Q1) PSPs:
A)are a major source of cross-contamination.
B)should be wiped with a cotton ball after being removed from the patient's mouth.
C)should be heat sterilized.
D)should be immersed in disinfecting solution.
Q2) Which is not true regarding the care of intensifying screens?
A)Screens should be cleaned with a commercial cleaner after each use.
B)An antistatic solution should be applied after cleaning.
C)Screens that are scratched should be replaced.
D)All of the above are not true.
Q3) Dental images are the property of the:
A)dentist.
B)patient.
C)patient's insurance company.
D)both a and b.
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Q1) The exposure sequence for the posterior teeth should begin with the _____ view.
A)maxillary right premolar
B)maxillary right molar
C)mandibular right premolar
D)mandibular right molar
Q2) In adults,a size #_____ intraoral film is used for the occlusal technique.
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)4
Q3) The bisecting-angle instrument (BAI) uses _____ to determine the correct PID angulation.
A)indicator arms
B)bite-blocks
C)aiming rings
D)dental dams
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Q1) When the patient's jaws are outside the focal trough,the resulting images are:
A)doubled.
B)ghost images.
C)distorted.
D)too light.
Q2) The part of the unit that aligns the patient's teeth as accurately as possible is the:
A)head positioner.
B)focal trough.
C)Frankfort plane.
D)tubehead.
Q3) The CBCT is useful in helping the dentist:
A)decide the correct placement of implants.
B)with extractions of impacted teeth.
C)determine the exact location of the mandibular nerve before surgery.
D)all of the above.
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Q1) The purpose of _________ is to pack the amalgam in the cavity preparation.
A)amalgamation
B)condensing
C)carving
D)trituration
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of the composition of tooth-whitening materials?
A)Most tooth-whitening products are made from a bleach (sodium hypochlorite)-based ingredient.
B)The tooth-whitening solution comes in a single concentration of 37%.
C)When the product contacts the teeth, it allows oxygen to enter the enamel and dentin, which whitens the colored substances.
D)The structure of the tooth is altered by whitening materials.
Q3) Which is not true of in-office tooth whitening?
A)It can usually be done in one treatment.
B)It requires a light-accelerated bleach.
C)It requires multiple treatments.
D)It involves isolation of soft tissue.
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Q1) Which is not a use of fluoride varnish?
A)Treatment of hypersensitive cervical areas
B)Dentin sealant
C)Luting agent
D)Topical fluoride application
Q2) You are asked to select a base for a deep cavity preparation because of extensive decay.Which would you select?
A)Zinc oxide-eugenol
B)Zinc phosphate
C)Polycarboxylate
D)Any of these
Q3) Protective bases are placed when it is necessary to protect the pulp before the restoration is placed,because without this protection there may be:
A)a premature contact on the restorative material.
B)occlusal trauma.
C)postoperative sensitivity and damage to the pulp.
D)premature loss of the restorative material.
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Q1) Which is the correct cementing consistency for zinc phosphate cement?
A)The cement should be soupy.
B)The cement should string up and break about 1 inch from the slab.
C)The mix should be slightly tacky.
D)The mix should form in a ball.
Q2) Which type of cement is preferred for cementation of ceramic veneers?
A)Zinc phosphate
B)Polycarboxylate
C)Glass ionomer
D)Composite resin
Q3) Temporary cements are used when the dentist:
A)is cementing porcelain laminate veneers.
B)will need to remove the indirect restoration at a later time.
C)is cementing cast restorations permanently.
D)restores teeth with silver amalgam restorations.
Q4) To increase the working time of glass ionomer it can be mixed:
A)quickly.
B)slowly.
C)on a glass slab.
D)none of the above.

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Q1) When taking a wax bite registration,the patient is directed to:
A)bite with the posterior teeth first.
B)close normally and gently.
C)occlude with lateral movements.
D)bite with the anterior teeth first.
Q2) Alginate material not setting or setting too rapidly may be the result of:
A)expired shelf life.
B)humidity.
C)improper storage.
D)all of the above.
Q3) If a more durable impression material is needed for bite registration,_____ may be selected.
A)polysulfide
B)zinc oxide-eugenol (ZOE)
C)polysiloxane
D)reversible hydrocolloid
Q4) Although technique may vary,when assisting a dentist in taking an elastomeric impression,mix the light-bodied material first.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The purpose of ________ is to prevent a custom impression tray from sitting too deeply when taking the impression.
A)a spacer
B)stops
C)undercuts
D)all of the above
Q2) The _________ is the measurement of where the teeth are positioned when the joints are aligned correctly and before the teeth actually come together.
A)bite record
B)articulator
C)centric relation
D)both a and c
Q3) The powder-to-water ratio for high-strength stone is ___:100.
A)45
B)30
C)19
D)12
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Q1) The purpose of a veneer is to ______ teeth.
A)improve the appearance of anterior
B)improve alignment of
C)close spaces between
D)all of the above
Q2) During a class III or IV restoration,the dentist may use a _________ to help reproduce the correct contours and contact.
A)Tofflemire matrix system
B)Mylar matrix system
C)universal matrix system
D)gingival retraction cord
Q3) A veneer is applied to the _____ surface of a prepared tooth.
A)incisal
B)facial
C)mesial
D)distal
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Q1) What is the correct order of steps for preparing the T-band matrix?
1)Close the wings and pull the free end to make a small loop of the band.
2)Holding the free end of the band toward the facial,place the band loop on the tooth.
3)Bend the wings of the T-band to form a U-shape.
4)Slip the free end of the band through the U formation.
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)2, 3, 4, 1
C)3, 4, 1, 2
D)1, 3, 4, 2
Q2) Which of the statements is not true of the spot-welded band?
A)The spot-welded band is a custom fitted band.
B)The spot-welded matrix band measures ¾" to 1" of copper material.
C)A #110 pliers is used to adapt the band to ensure the ends of the matrix are at the facial surface.
D)The matrix is welded at three positions before being placed on the tooth.
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Q1) Which of the following procedures takes place during the second appointment for the placement of a cast restoration?
A)Shade selection
B)Preliminary impressions
C)Final impressions
D)Try-in
Q2) The purpose of a core buildup is to:
A)support the cast crown.
B)provide a larger area of surface retention for cementation.
C)both a and b.
D)neither a nor b; core buildups are not used with cast crowns.
Q3) The final appointment in the crown and bridge process involves:
A)cementation of a permanent crown.
B)try-in of the casting.
C)picking a shade.
D)writing the laboratory prescription.
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Q1) The two types of provisional coverage include _____ and _____.
A)direct and indirect
B)functional and esthetical
C)custom and prefabricated
D)polymer and monomer
Q2) The provisional that used a polymer shell filled with a hybrid composite resin that bonds with the pre-formed crown and tooth is a ____ crown.
A)stainless steel
B)custom provisional
C)polycarbonate
D)pre-formed polymer
Q3) Which statement is NOT true of prefabricated crowns?
A)The crowns are supplied in many types of materials, depending on the location of the provisional.
B)Prefabricated crowns can be used for posterior and anterior preparations.
C)The crowns are available for bridges as well as for single units.
D)Prefabricated crowns can be shaped to match adjacent teeth.
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Q1) An advantage of using acrylic teeth as opposed to porcelain teeth in partial dentures is that:
A)acrylic teeth do not produce a clicking sound during chewing.
B)they do not wear as easily as porcelain teeth do.
C)they do not stain as easily as porcelain teeth do.
D)they are more susceptible to fractures.
Q2) Which of the following choices is an extraoral factor that must be considered before recommending a removable prosthesis for a patient?
A)Dietary habits
B)Musculature
C)Salivary flow
D)Residual alveolar ridge
Q3) The term that refers to when the teeth have been extracted and the body begins to absorb the alveolar bone is:
A)mastication.
B)alveoplasty.
C)resorption.
D)retrusion.
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Q1) The process by which the living jawbone naturally grows around the dental implant is called:
A)subperiosteal.
B)endosteal.
C)transosteal.
D)osseointegration.
Q2) Dental implants:
A)require modification of adjacent teeth.
B)are far less expensive than a conventional bridge.
C)can prevent the bone loss and gum recession that often accompany bridgework and dentures.
D)can support a bridge, but not a denture.
Q3) The ideal candidate for dental implants meets which of the following criteria?
A)Has good stable health and adequate alveolar bone
B)Is willing to commit to conscientious oral hygiene and regular dental visits
C)Is concerned about the financial investment of implants
D)Both a and b
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Q1) The procedure where the root and part of the tooth are removed is a(n):
A)apicoectomy.
B)apical curettage.
C)root amputation.
D)hemisection.
Q2) The two types of tests that the dentist uses to determine whether the inflammatory process has gone into the periapical tissues are ____ and ____.
A)objective; subjective
B)palpation; percussion
C)chronic; acute
D)reversible; irreversible
Q3) The most common symptom of pulpal damage is:
A)sharp pain when occluding.
B)ecchymosis.
C)petechiae.
D)leukoplakia.
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Q1) The procedure of smoothing the surface of a root by removing abnormal tooth tissue that is rough,contaminated,or permeated with calculus is the:
A)probing.
B)scaling.
C)root planing.
D)curettage.
Q2) A periodontal examination should include:
A)the patient's medical and dental history.
B)an examination of the teeth and oral tissues.
C)measuring pockets with a pocket marker.
D)both a and b.
Q3) The procedure where bone is contoured and shaped is:
A)ostectomy.
B)bone grafting.
C)bone augmentation.
D)osteoplasty.
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Q1) Which instrument is used following an extraction to scrape the inside of the socket to remove diseased tissue or abscesses?
A)Surgical curette
B)Forceps
C)Root tip picks
D)Elevators
Q2) The surgical team will perform oral surgery procedures in the:
A)the hospital operating room or outpatient surgical suite.
B)the general dentist's office.
C)the private dental office.
D)both a and c.
Q3) Which statement is not true of mouth props?
A)A mouth prop allows the patient to relax and rest the jaw muscles.
B)The mouth prop prevents to the patient from closing the mouth.
C)The mouth prop is placed close to the area being treated.
D)The mouth prop is also known as a "bite-block."
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Q1) The information for the diagnosis and treatment planning of a pediatric patient does not include:
A)x-rays.
B)clinical exam.
C)pocket probing.
D)number of children in family.
Q2) Parents should be encouraged to put their children to bed with a bottle of milk,formula,or juice.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Stainless steel crowns are:
A)durable enough to last until permanent teeth erupt.
B)indicated when there are rampant caries.
C)used to restore a fractured tooth.
D)all of the above.
Q4) Which is not used in the pulpotomy procedure?
A)rubber dam
B)high-speed handpiece
C)ZOE base
D)slow-speed handpiece.
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Q1) When polishing the mandibular arch,the patient's chin should be _____ and the chin should be _____ for the maxillary.
A)up; up
B)down; down
C)up; down
D)down; up
Q2) When using a bristle brush,the brush should be:
A)rotating rapidly before touching the tooth surface.
B)applied lightly to the tooth surface while revolving at the lowest speed.
C)placed on the tooth while not rotating, and then rotated slowly.
D)placed on the tooth while not rotating, and then rotated in a reverse direction.
Q3) Polishing agents are available as commercial premixed pastes or as powders mixed with water or mouthwash to form a(n) _____ used on the polishing cup.
A)emulsion
B)slurry
C)cellulitis
D)mandrel
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Q1) The primary reason why very few children are protected by dental sealants is:
A)they are not recommended by the American Dental Association.
B)they have not been shown to significantly reduce decay.
C)lack of public awareness.
D)they are not effective for prevention of pit and fissure decay in posterior teeth.
Q2) Dental sealants replace other preventive care.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you use an air polishing device that used sodium bicarbonate for cleaning enamel prior to sealant placement,the etching step should be repeated for a second time,or _____ should be applied to the surface for 10 seconds to neutralize the sodium bicarbonate and then thoroughly rinsed off with water prior to applying the etch.
A)surgical soap
B)chlorhexidine
C)3% hydrogen peroxide
D)sodium hypochlorite
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Q1) In preparation for the bonding of brackets the teeth are:
A)isolated using cotton rolls or retractors.
B)polished using a fluoride free paste.
C)etched, rinsed, and dried.
D)all of the above.
Q2) The habit that may be a result of narrowing of the maxilla is:
A)bruxism.
B)tongue thrusting.
C)mouth breathing.
D)all of the above.
Q3) An orthodontic positioner is designed to:
A)move the teeth.
B)retain the teeth in their desired position.
C)reposition the teeth during orthodontic treatment.
D)both a and c.
Q4) An open bite refers to a condition wherein:
A)there are no posterior teeth.
B)there are spaces between teeth in the same arch.
C)maxillary and mandibular teeth do not touch.
D)the teeth contact only during mastication.
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Q1) Nonverbal communication:
A)is only expressed through body language.
B)is expressed through body language and eye expression.
C)can cause a feeling of alarm in a patient.
D)both b and c.
Q2) Which of the following lifestyle choices will not help to reduce stress?
A)Eating healthily
B)Exercising regularly
C)Continuing to dwell on office events even after leaving for the day
D)Taking time for yourself
Q3) Closed-ended questions are used to:
A)obtain information.
B)maintain control of the conversation.
C)close a conversation.
D)build a relationship with the patient.
Q4) Closed-ended questions usually begin with words such as:
A)what.
B)when.
C)which.
D)will.
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Q1) If a 15-minute time unit is used in the practice and a patient must be scheduled for a procedure that will take approximately 40 minutes to complete,the dentist should request that this patient be given a ___-unit appointment.
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Q2) Which statement is true?
A)The maintenance of adequate records is one of the chairside assistant's most important responsibilities.
B)The business manager is responsible for determining what type of record and filing system is best for the office.
C)The maintenance of accurate and complete records is a sign of quality care.
D)Records are maintained only in electronic files.
Q3) A call list is used in the dental office for:
A)emergency numbers.
B)frequently called numbers.
C)scheduling patients on short notice.
D)confirming patient appointments.
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Q1) All receipts,including checks and cash,should be deposited:
A)daily.
B)weekly.
C)biweekly.
D)every other day.
Q2) When making financial arrangements with a patient,it is necessary to:
A)consider the patient's ability to pay.
B)put all agreements on the account statement.
C)send the information to the insurance company.
D)record the agreement on the patient's clinical chart.
Q3) The fee that is determined by a percentage of prefiled fees submitted to the insurance company is the:
A)usual fee.
B)customary fee.
C)reasonable fee.
D)limitations.
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Q1) If the employment agency charges the dentist 15% of the annual starting salary of a dental assistant,which is $21,000,what is the fee that the dentist owes the agency?
A)$315.00
B)$31.50
C)$3150
D)$262.50
Q2) A compensation package includes _____.
A)salary only.
B)salary, health insurance, and paid vacation.
C)salary plus additional benefits that the dentist includes.
D)salary plus the number of hours that will be worked.
Q3) When dressing for an interview:
A)it is appropriate to wear a "scrubs" type uniform, since that is what is usually worn in the dental office.
B)keep make-up and jewelry to a minimum.
C)dress in conservative business attire, such as a dress pants and a blouse.
D)both b and c.
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