Infection Control for Allied Health Professionals
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Course Introduction
This course provides allied health professionals with a comprehensive understanding of infection control principles and practices essential to maintaining a safe healthcare environment. Topics include the chain of infection, standard and transmission-based precautions, sterilization and disinfection techniques, personal protective equipment (PPE) usage, and the management of infectious waste. Emphasis is placed on current guidelines, regulatory standards, and the development of effective infection control plans to prevent the spread of pathogens within healthcare settings, ensuring patient and practitioner safety.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology and Infection Control for Health Professionals 6th Edition by Gary Lee
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Chapter 1: The Invisible World
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Q1) The smallest free-living microorganisms are
A)viruses.
B)bacteria.
C)protozoa.
D)fungi.
E)yeasts.
Answer: B
Q2) The Australian scientist who played an important role in the development of penicillin as a therapeutic drug was
A)Howard Florey.
B)Alexander Fleming.
C)Frank Macfarlane Burnet.
D)Ernst Chain.
E)Peter Doherty.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Biological Reactions in Microbial Cells
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Q1) When glucose is broken down in the presence of oxygen the products are
A)carbon dioxide and water.
B)ATP and carbon dioxide.
C)ADP,water and carbon dioxide.
D)ATP,carbon dioxide and water.
E)carbon dioxide,alcohol and water.
Answer: D
Q2) Proteins are composed of
A)straight chains of pyruvic acids.
B)folded chains of amino acids.
C)regular sequences of five different amino acids.
D)amino acids bound to glucose by peptide bonds.
E)either acidic or basic amino acids.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Bacteria
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Q1) The cell walls of bacteria
A)enable them to be pleomorphic.
B)protect them against penicillin-derived antibiotics.
C)are single layered,but very thick.
D)protect the cells against changes in osmotic pressure.
E)all of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) The passage of water from an area of high water concentration to an area of low water concentration is called
A)active transport.
B)facilitated diffusion.
C)filtration.
D)osmosis.
E)none of the above.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Genes and Biotechnology
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Q1) DNA is composed of
A)phosphate,ribose,adenine,thymine,guanine and cytosine.
B)phosphate,deoxyribose,thymine,adenine,guanine and cytosine.
C)phosphate,ribose,adenine,uracil,guanine and cytosine.
D)phosphate,deoxyribose,adenine,uracil,guanine and cytosine.
E)none of the above.
Q2) An enzyme that can break a DNA molecule at a specific point is called a A)point mutase.
B)restriction endonuclease.
C)reverse transcriptase.
D)point depolymerase.
E)none of the above.
Q3) The synthesis of a protein requires the process of
A)conjugation followed by recombination.
B)recombination followed by conjugation.
C)transcription followed by translation.
D)translation followed by recombination.
E)transcription followed by recombination.
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Chapter 5: Viruses and Viral Diseases
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Q1) Hepatitis B virus can cause a carrier state in a person,which means that
A)there is a continuous,low level of virus replication.
B)the person is infected but doesn't transmit the virus.
C)the infection will only ever be mild.
D)the person's immune system is permanently damaged.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Interferons are
A)antiviral substances produced in response to viral infection.
B)proteins that transmit infection from one cell to another.
C)substances that transform cancer cells.
D)synthetic drugs that are used to treat bacterial infections.
E)substances that interfere with antibody formation.
Q3) Which of the following causes a latent infection?
A)Herpes zoster virus.
B)Poliovirus.
C)The common cold virus.
D)Influenza virus.
E)Rubella virus.
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Chapter 6: Eucaryotic Microorganisms: Fungi, protozoa and
Multicellular Organisms
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Q1) A yeast that commonly causes meningitis in people with AIDS is
A)Cryptococcus neoformans.
B)Candida albicans.
C)Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
D)Pneumocystis jiroveci.
E)Candida glabrata.
Q2) Many fungi thrive where bacteria cannot grow.This is because fungi
A)can use atmospheric carbon dioxide as a carbon source for growth.
B)produce spores,but bacteria do not.
C)can grow on substances with very low moisture content.
D)produce hyphae which can absorb nutrients.
E)use chlorophyll to carry out photosynthesis.
Q3) Which of the following statements about fungi is TRUE?
A)Fungi may be unicellular or multicellular.
B)All fungi are eucaryotic.
C)A few fungi are pathogenic to humans.
D)Fungi are heterotrophic.
E)All of the above.
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Chapter 7: Hostmicrobe Interactions and Principles of Disease
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Q1) Which of the following is usually an endogenous infection?
A)Urinary tract infection.
B)Tetanus.
C)Rabies.
D)Sexually transmitted infection.
E)Influenza.
Q2) The incubation period of a disease
A)is the same for every infection.
B)is the time between exposure to the pathogen and the appearance of signs or symptoms.
C)depends entirely on the dose of pathogens that the person is exposed to.
D)is the period during which the person shows the typical signs and symptoms.
E)is the period before the patient becomes infectious.
Q3) Which of the following factors increases a person's susceptibility to infection?
A)Old age.
B)Stress.
C)Damaged skin.
D)Cancer chemotherapy.
E)All of the above.
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Chapter 8: Epidemiology: How Diseases Are Spread
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Q1) Which of the following is spread by mosquitoes?
A)Malaria.
B)Ross River fever.
C)Murray Valley encephalitis.
D)Dengue fever.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is a non-communicable disease?
A)Tetanus.
B)Chickenpox.
C)Measles.
D)Influenza.
E)Hepatitis B.
Q3) Dengue fever is an example of A)a communicable disease.
B)a congenital infection.
C)an arboviral infection.
D)an opportunistic infection.
E)a zoonosis.
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10
Chapter 9: The Bodys Defence Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an activity of complement?
A)Histamine release from mast cells.
B)Lysis of foreign cell membranes.
C)Neutrophil chemotaxis.
D)Enhancement of antigen adherence to phagocytic cells.
E)Natural killer cell recruitment.
Q2) The role of opsonins in the human body is to
A)enhance phagocytosis.
B)cause bacterial cells to burst.
C)neutralise toxins.
D)inactivate viruses.
E)reduce adherence of antigens to phagocytes.
Q3) The large granular lymphocytes that are capable of destroying tumour cells are called
A)natural killer cells.
B)macrophages.
C)basophils.
D)monocytes.
E)pattern recognition cells.
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Chapter 10: Pathogenic Mechanisms and Evasion
Strategies of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The toxic shock syndrome toxin of Staphylococcus aureus
A)is a superantigen.
B)activates T lymphocytes.
C)causes a massive release of cytokines.
D)can suppress immune responses.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Influenza A virus can occasionally cause a major pandemic due to its ability to undergo
A)antigenic shift.
B)antigenic drift.
C)antigen deletion.
D)protein variation.
E)cellular transformation.
Q3) Septic shock is caused by
A)the presence of large amounts of endotoxin in the body.
B)the combined action of several neurotoxins.
C)disseminated intravascular coagulation.
D)insufficient toxoids present in the body.
E)the blockage of small blood vessels by colonies of bacteria.
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Chapter 11: Principles of Sterilisation and Disinfection
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Q1) In which of the following would a high-efficiency particulate air filter (HEPA)be used?
A)To clean the air entering operating theatres.
B)In laboratory biosafety cabinets to remove microbes from exhaust air.
C)To trap pathogens in exhaust systems from isolation units.
D)In respiratory masks.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)A disinfection process removes only some bacteria and viruses.
B)An item that has been disinfected may be used to penetrate healthy skin.
C)Chemical disinfectants can be inactivated by organic material.
D)Disinfection may only remove some pathogens.
E)Washing equipment with hot water and detergent improves the effectiveness of disinfection procedures.
Q3) The conditions necessary to destroy endospores are
A)Boiling at 100 C for 15 minutes.
B)Heating to 110 C for 30 minutes.
C)Heating to 115 C for 10 minutes.
D)Heating to 121 C for 15 minutes.
E)Any temperature above 100 C for 3 minutes.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) An antimicrobial drug that has a broad spectrum of activity
A)affects bacteria and viruses.
B)is active against a number of different bacteria.
C)affects all kinds of microorganisms including protozoa.
D)is bactericidal and bacteriostatic.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is an anti-malarial drug?
A)chloroquine.
B)mefloquine.
C)artemisinin.
D)doxycycline.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Interferon is a
A)glycoprotein produced in response to viral infection.
B)protein that transmits infection from one cell to another.
C)substance that transforms cancer cells.
D)naturally occurring protein produced by red blood cells.
E)drug that is effective against most viruses.
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14
Chapter 13: Infection Control in Healthcare Facilities
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
A)It is resistant to methicillin but not to other drugs.
B)Only healthcare workers carry this organism.
C)It is only found in hospitals with poor infection control practices.
D)It causes infections in hospitals and in the community.
E)All of the above.
Q2) In which of the following areas of a hospital are patients at a high risk of infection?
A)The burns unit.
B)An intensive care unit.
C)A transplant unit.
D)An oncology ward.
E)All of the above.
Q3) Which body site is most commonly associated with a hospital-acquired infection?
A)Urinary tract.
B)Surgical site.
C)Lower respiratory tract.
D)Skin.
E)Wound.
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Chapter 14: Issues in Public Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diseases is not acquired in Australia,but may be diagnosed in people returning from overseas?
A)Ross River fever.
B)Yellow fever.
C)Hepatitis C.
D)Dengue fever.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Live vaccines contain microorganisms that multiply in the host.
B)Inactivated toxins are used in some vaccines.
C)Vaccines made from killed or inactivated organisms usually require more than one dose.
D)The MMR (measles-mumps-rubella)vaccine rarely causes serious side effects.
E)All of the above.
Q3) The BCG vaccine for tuberculosis is recommended for
A)Aboriginal children in the Northern Territory.
B)all healthcare workers in Australia.
C)all overseas travellers under the age of 12 years.
D)all immigrants from South-East Asia.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Techniques for Diagnosis of Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood cultures
A)may not yield a result for several days or more.
B)should be collected from all patients on admission to hospital.
C)refers to a special method in which swab specimens are cultured in blood.
D)require the collection of 500 ml of blood from the patient.
E)should not be collected more than once from a patient.
Q2) The test that enables the simultaneous amplification and detection of nucleic acid is
A)multiplex PCR
B)reverse transcriptase PCR
C)broad-range PCR
D)real-time PCR
E)qualitative PCR.
Q3) Testing a patient's blood for antibodies to an infectious agent is called
A)culture and sensitivity.
B)microscopy.
C)molecular biology.
D)serology.
E)serotyping.
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Chapter 16: Skin, wound and Eye Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trachoma
A)is caused by adenoviruses.
B)is also termed ophthalmia neonatorum.
C)is endemic in some Aboriginal communities.
D)is an infection of the cornea that can lead to blindness.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning surgical wounds is TRUE?
A)Any microorganism present in a wound must be causing infection.
B)Surgery involving body sites with a microbiota have a high risk of infection.
C)Almost all infections occur during dressing changes.
D)Risk of infection is reduced if the preoperative hospitalisation time of the patient is increased.
E)Multi-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)causes all surgical wound infections.
Q3) Gas gangrene
A)is caused by group A streptococci.
B)is a type of necrotising fasciitis.
C)can only be treated by amputation of the affected limb.
D)is an infection of nerve cells.
E)all of the above.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Respiratory Tract Infections
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Q1) Bronchiolitis
A)most severely affects children under 2 years of age.
B)is most often caused by respiratory syncytial virus.
C)is highly infectious.
D)may result in respiratory distress in infants.
E)all of the above.
Q2) In diphtheria
A)bacterial invasion of tissues is common,resulting in septicaemia.
B)the infection usually descends into the lungs.
C)a pseudomembrane forms over the larynx or pharynx.
D)vaccination is the most urgent aspect of patient management.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Acute epiglottitis
A)is usually caused by viruses.
B)mainly affects the elderly.
C)can result in airway obstruction.
D)is due to the action of a potent enterotoxin.
E)cannot be prevented by vaccination.
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19
Chapter 18: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Which of the following could be transmitted by needlestick injury?
A)Hepatitis B.
B)Hepatitis C.
C)Hepatitis D.
D)All of the above.
E)None of the above.
Q2) Cholera is a disease which
A)only occurs in humans.
B)is often transmitted via contaminated drinking water.
C)can be prevented by vaccination.
D)is rare in Australia.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following organisms is responsible for the most cases of bacterial diarrhoea in Australia?
A)Helicobacter pylori.
B)Campylobacter jejuni.
C)Salmonella sp.
D)E.coli.
E)Staphylococcus aureus.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cardiovascular and Multisystem Infections
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Q1) Which species of Plasmodium causes the most serious form of malaria?
A)P.malariae.
B)P.dysenteriae.
C)P.ovale.
D)P.falciparum.
E)P.vivax.
Q2) The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with A)nasopharyngeal cancer.
B)glandular fever.
C)infectious mononucleosis.
D)Burkitt's lymphoma.
E)all of the above.
Q3) The main concern with toxoplasmosis is
A)there are no effective drugs for the disease.
B)it can cause a severe congenital infection.
C)it is carried by all cats.
D)it can't be readily diagnosed so many people remain infectious.
E)it causes severe suppression of the patient's immune system.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Nervous System
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Q1) A Gram stain of CSF from a person with suspected meningitis shows large numbers of polymorphs with intracellular Gram-negative diplococci.The causative agent is most likely to be
A)Haemophilus influenzae.
B)Neisseria meningitidis.
C)Cryptococcus neoformans.
D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
E)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Q2) The causative agent of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
A)is a nucleic acid.
B)is destroyed by standard autoclaving procedures.
C)is usually transmitted via urine.
D)causes microscopic vacuoles in the brain of an infected person.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Polio is a disease which dates back to ancient Egyptian times.
B)Poliovirus is only found in humans.
C)A vaccine for polio has been available since the 1950s.
D)Poliovirus is transmitted by faecally contaminated food,water or hands.
E)All of the above.
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Significant bacteriuria in an MSU specimen is defined as
A)10² bacteria per litre.
B)10 bacteria per litre.
C)10 bacteria per litre.
D)10 bacteria per litre.
E)any number in a properly collected MSU.
Q2) In between attacks of genital herpes,the causative agent
A)exists within nerve cells.
B)is easily obtained by culture of nerve tissue.
C)can be found in genital secretions by Gram staining.
D)is never present in genital secretions.
E)has entered the bloodstream.
Q3) Which of the following sexually transmissible infections can cause congenital defects?
A)Chlamydia.
B)Gonorrhoea.
C)Rubella.
D)Syphilis.
E)Genital warts.
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