Industrial Relations
Review Questions
Course Introduction
Industrial Relations is an interdisciplinary course that explores the dynamic relationships between employers, employees, trade unions, and the government within the workplace. It examines the historical development, theories, and models of industrial relations, focusing on collective bargaining, negotiation, dispute resolution, labor law, and human resource management practices. Through case studies and current issues, the course analyzes the impact of globalization, technological change, and labor market trends on workplace relations, aiming to equip students with a comprehensive understanding of strategies for fostering productive and equitable employer-employee relationships in a rapidly changing environment.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 5th Edition by
Lawrence Kleiman
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15 Chapters
1500 Verified Questions
1500 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Human Resource Management and Competitive Advantage
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What denotes a firm's superior marketplace position relative to its competition?
A) Marketing advantage
B) Competitive advantage
C) Monopolistic competition
D) Cost leadership
Answer: B
Q2) The ability to minimize turnover rates does not enhance cost leadership strategy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) One of the most common ways of cutting human resource management costs is to employ technology to replace some of the more expensive HR professional-delivered services.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Understanding the Legal and Environmental
Context of Hrm
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prima facie case of disparate treatment may be established in all but which of the following ways?
A) Show a restricted company policy
B) Show that discriminatory remarks were being used
C) The McDonnell-Douglas test
D) The four-fifths rule
Answer: D
Q2) In which of the following cases may an employer not use a business necessity defense?
A) Disparate impact
B) Disparate treatment
C) Adverse impact
D) Mixed-motive
Answer: B
Q3) Unintentional discrimination is referred to as ____ discrimination.
A) disparate treatment
B) disparate impact
C) mixed-motive
D) unfair labor practice
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Planning for Human Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which approach for forecasting HR demand is most appropriate when the need for additional employees arises from the introduction of new products?
A) Group brainstorming
B) Regression analysis
C) Sales force estimates
D) Ratio analysis
Answer: C
Q2) All the following are purposes served by an HRIS EXCEPT:
A) it tracks accruals of vacation days and sick leaves.
B) it tracks employee participation in each benefit option.
C) it reports turnover rates by department.
D) it tracks internal candidates.
Answer: D
Q3) As an individual moves further down a managerial hierarchy, he or she tends to have a more broad focus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Analyzing Jobs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which process do supervisors employ during job analysis to identify those tasks that are being performed properly and those that are being performed improperly?
A) Abilities inventory
B) Task analysis
C) Task inventory
D) Performance appraisal
Q2) A(n) ____ job description is one that contains a variety of information that can be used for communicating job responsibilities to employees and specifying minimum job requirements.
A) general-purpose
B) specific-purpose
C) flexible-purpose
D) essential-purpose
Q3) To overcome a lackadaisical approach to job analysis, HR professionals must solicit support for job analysis from upper-level managers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the basic practices associated with the job analysis process.
Q5) What worker requirements are needed for effective job performance?
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Chapter 5: Recruiting Applicants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Firms generally use external recruitment to fill jobs above the entry level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following recruitment processes should be used to increase retention rates among a firm's top performers?
A) Computerized career progression systems
B) Employee referrals
C) Supervisor recommendations
D) Career development systems
Q3) Which of the following involves promotional opportunities leading to reduced turnover, increased job satisfaction, and better job performance?
A) Subjective selection processes
B) Objective selection processes
C) Internal recruitment
D) External recruitment
Q4) Contingency employees generally do not need a considerable amount of orientation and training.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Selecting Applicants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interviews raise the same legal concerns as application blanks.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988:
A) bans most private-sector employers from using the polygraph test.
B) bans most public-sector employers from using polygraph tests.
C) bans employers who provide security services from using the polygraph.
D) bans pharmaceutical companies from using the polygraph.
Q3) The behavior consistency model implies that the most effective selection procedures are those that focus on the candidates' past or present behaviors in situations that closely match those they will encounter on the job.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a predictive validation study, information is gathered on actual job applicants.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the steps involved in conducting a predictive and concurrent validation process.
Q6) Discuss the behavior consistency model.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Training and Developing Employees
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Sample Questions
Q1) Experienced supervisors who establish relationships with new managers are know as action learners.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All but which of the following methods can be used to maintain a trainee's attention during a training program?
A) Use a variety of methods like cases and role plays.
B) Use long lectures and periods of passivity.
C) Use learner experience as the basis for examples and applications.
D) Use voice inflection.
Q3) All new employees, even those with appropriate technical skills, need some sort of orientation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which method of training is best suited for a class which has both fast and slow learners?
A) Lecture
B) Case method
C) Computer-based instruction
D) Role-playing
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Appraising Employee Job Performance
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Sample Questions
Q1) An organization's exposure to discrimination litigation is increased if the performance appraisal system generates feelings of unfairness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Studies conducted by management expert Howard Risher and others indicate that most organizations are very satisfied with the effectiveness of their performance appraisal systems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Managers' failure to provide effective feedback is often the death knell of an effective appraisal system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____ occur when appraisers purposely avoid giving extreme ratings even when such ratings are warranted.
A) Severity errors
B) Central tendency errors
C) Leniency errors
D) Halo effect
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Chapter 9: Determining Pay and Benefits
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ is achieved when two people evaluating the same job provide similar ratings.
A) Validity
B) Reliability
C) Equity
D) Fairness
Q2) According to compensation expert Richard Henderson, "probably no one cost of business is more controllable and has a greater influence on profits than ____ costs."
A) commission
B) marketing
C) legal
D) labor
Q3) ____ is the fastest growing category of workers' compensation claims.
A) Drug abuse
B) Mental stress
C) Alcohol abuse
D) Physical exhaustion
Q4) The development and administration of a company's compensation system is primarily the responsibility of the HRM department. Explain.
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Chapter 10: Implementing Productivity Improvement Programs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Employees are more likely to accept decisions when they have participated in the decision-making process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A pay-for-performance program cannot enhance competitive advantage unless rewarded performance contributes to the:
A) individual's job satisfaction.
B) organization's overall mission.
C) supervisor's expectations.
D) firm's EEO efforts.
Q3) ____ would be ill advised in situations where the loss in production efficiency cannot be offset by productivity gains stemming from increased motivation.
A) Job enrichment
B) Quality circles
C) Pay-for-performance
D) Participative decision making
Q4) Job enrichment generally requires an increase in direct supervision of workers.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Complying With Workplace Justice Laws
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sexually harassing behavior is unlawful when all but which of the following occurs?
A) The behavior is based on gender.
B) The behavior is welcome.
C) The behavior is abusive.
D) The behavior is pervasive.
Q2) Union employees are protected from wrongful termination even if their collective bargaining agreement does not specify that discharges may be made only if there is just cause.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A corporation's image in the community has little to do with a firm's ability to recruit high-quality applicants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the EEOC guidelines for developing a policy on sexual harassment.
Q5) Describe the extent to which employee privacy rights are protected.
Q6) What is sexual harassment and what can organizations do to prevent it?
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Chapter 12: Understanding Unions and Their Impact on Hrm
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____ specified a bill of rights for union members.
A) Landrum-Griffin Act
B) Taft-Hartley Act
C) Wagner Act
D) Norris-LaGuardia Act
Q2) There is little difference between the role of line managers in union and nonunion environments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ____ limited judges' powers to issue injunctions in union organizing efforts.
A) Wagner Act
B) Taft-Hartley Act
C) Norris-LaGuardia Act
D) Railway Labor Act
Q4) The Norris-LaGuardia Act expanded judges' power to issue injunctions in labor disputes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss why workers join unions.
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Chapter 13: Meeting Employee Safety and Health Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 1988 Drug-Free Workplace Act requires that all ____ must ensure a drug-free workplace.
A) employers
B) private-sector employees
C) government contractors
D) public-sector employees
Q2) Employers who violate safety and health regulations can be held liable for criminal charges.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the Hazard Communication Standard commonly known as?
A) Hazard Free Workplace Act
B) Fair Labor Standards Act
C) Employee Right-to-Know Law
D) Americans with Disabilities Act
Q4) Costs associated with workplace injuries and illnesses include increased insurance cost, production delays, and the cost for replacement workers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Establishing Hrm Practices in Foreign Countries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Courts have generally supported the idea that Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act affords EEO protection to expatriates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Artifacts are the rules of societal propriety and impropriety that are shared by people within a culture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Conversational currency involves the expatriates' willingness to communicate in the host country's language.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the ways in which international human resource management issues affect the line manager's job?
Q5) What are the common ways in which large companies set up operations overseas? Why have joint ventures mushroomed in recent times?
Q6) Discuss the role of the HR professional in maintaining a successful overseas operation.
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Chapter 15: Working in the Hrm Field
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Sample Questions
Q1) Upper-level managers in many organizations often reject HRM professionals' advice with respect to best practices.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Relatively few companies have established practices for assessing training needs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Firms that employ HRM best practices generally experience all but which of the following?
A) Higher profits
B) Higher turnover
C) Higher overall performance
D) Higher levels of profit growth
Q4) All but which of the following can help HR professionals gain credibility with upper management and board members?
A) Demonstrating how HRM practices help meet marketplace demands.
B) Demonstrating how HRM practices reinforces the glass ceiling.
C) Demonstrating how HRM practices improve product/service quality.
D) Demonstrating how HRM practices help reduce customer response time.
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