
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Industrial Relations explores the dynamic interactions between employers, employees, and the various institutions and frameworks governing the workplace. The course examines the historical evolution of labor relations, collective bargaining, dispute resolution mechanisms, labor law, and the role of trade unions. Students will analyze contemporary challenges in industrial relations, such as globalization, technological change, and changing employment patterns, as well as strategies for fostering constructive workplace relationships and ensuring fair labor practices. Real-world case studies and practical exercises will be utilized to build analytical skills and deepen understanding of modern workplace dynamics.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 14th Edition by Robert
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Page 2
L. Mathis
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Q1) Describe the Human Resource Certification Institute (HRCI) certification.
Answer: The most widely known human resource certifications are the Professional in Human Resources (PHR) and the Senior Professional in Human Resources (SPHR), both sponsored by the Human Resource Certification Institute (HRCI). Annually, thousands of individuals take the certification exams. HRCI also sponsors a Global Professional in Human Resources (GPHR) certification.
Certification from HRCI also exists for global HR professionals in the GPHR. Global certification recognizes the growth in HR responsibilities in organizations throughout the world and covers appropriate global HR subject areas noted through SHRM.
Q2) Ramone, a human resource manager, works for TelVille Inc. Initially, he was responsible only for recruitment. After a promotion, he was made responsible exclusively for employee benefits. Which of the following is true of Ramone?
A) Both the roles that Ramone played were generalist roles.
B) Both the roles that Ramone played were specialist roles.
C) Ramone moved from a specialist role to a generalist role.
D) Ramone moved from a generalist role to a specialist role.
Answer: B
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Q1) The internal environment of planning includes economic, political, and competitive forces that will shape the future.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Assigning an international cadre of skilled managers to global subsidiaries regardless of their nationality is known as the polycentric policy of global staffing strategies.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following is an HR activity that should be performed before engaging in mergers and acquisitions?
A) Conducting due diligence
B) Retaining key talent
C) Optimizing workforce
D) Recognizing cultural differences
Answer: A
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Q1) The Rehabilitation Act was initially only applicable to federal contractors.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q2) The Americans with Disabilities Act includes restrictions on obtaining and retaining medically related information on applicants and employees.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) enforces employment laws in both private and public workplaces.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q4) Through cultural awareness training, organizations try to build greater understanding of the differences among people.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Q1) The managerial job analysis questionnaire is a specialized instrument that incorporates checklists, where each job is analyzed on 27 dimensions composed of 187 "elements."
A)True
B)False
Q2) A job description identifies the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The work sampling method of job analysis allows a job analyst to determine the content and pace of a typical workday through statistical sampling of certain actions rather than through continuous observation and timing of all actions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Job rotation is the process of shifting a person from job to job.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the common approaches to job design.
Q6) Define job enrichment. Give examples of job enrichment.
Q7) Define job analysis.
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Q1) Decreased customer service is a hidden cost of turnover.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Developing skills in employees increases the likelihood that the employees would quit an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List the three major factors that influence individual performance in organizations? With suitable examples, explain how a reduction or absence in any of the factors affects performance.
Q4) Describe the main differences between engaged and disengaged employees in an organization.
Q5) A software firm plans to reduce the number of talented designers in its workforce who leave their jobs. In this case, the firm seeks to focus on _____ turnover among the designers.
A) uncontrollable
B) positive
C) functional
D) voluntary
Q6) Why are employee surveys an important part of retention assessment?
Page 7
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Q1) Solange Allure Inc., a cosmetics company, is moving its operations from Bogalusa, Louisiana, to Seattle, Washington. Solange Allure will be changing its occupational labor market.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the advantages and limitations of focusing on internal recruiting sources to fill open positions?
Q3) The best criterion to analyze the effectiveness of an advertisement for applicants is to measure the:
A) cost of the ad per applicant.
B) total number of applicants generated by the ad.
C) number of applicants generated by the ad who were hired.
D) performance level of the hired applicants generated by the ad.
Q4) Résumé mining allows HR staff to use software to extract the most promising résumés from a large database.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the difference between continuous and intensive recruiting?
Q6) How do professional employer organizations differ from employment agencies?
Page 8
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Q1) The _____ interview is more reliable and valid than the others types of interviews.
A) sequential
B) nondirective
C) stress
D) structured
Q2) If employers do not use E-Verify to determine if an applicant is legally permitted to work in the U.S., the employer is considered to be in technical violation of federal law and can be audited by U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ability, intelligence, and conscientiousness are all examples of:
A) elements of job performance.
B) selection criteria.
C) predictors of selection criteria.
D) soft skills.
Q4) Describe the relationship among job performance, selection criteria, and predictors in the employee selection process.
Q5) Define situational judgment tests.
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Q1) On-the-job training is by far the most commonly used form of training, because it can be smoothly integrated into the regular work flow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Like apprenticeships, internships are a type of cooperative training.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In her evaluation sheet, Theresa, a trainer in a company, gets very high ratings in the areas of class enjoyability and trainee willingness to take the program again. This evaluation best exemplifies a _____ measure.
A) reaction-level
B) learning-level
C) behavior-level
D) cognitive-level
Q4) Explain the term adult learning. Discuss some of the principles for designing training for adults.
Q5) Discuss benchmarking as a measure of training evaluation.
Q6) How can job or task analysis help assess training needs?
Q7) Discuss the usefulness of cooperative training?
Page 10
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Q1) _____ are tools to help people identify their interests, what they do well, what they like, and their strengths and weaknesses.
A) SWOT analyses
B) Neuropsychological tests
C) Career goal settings
D) Self-assessment tests
Q2) How does development differ from training?
Q3) In order to reward talented technical people who do not want to move into management, many companies have established:
A) corporate universities for technical development.
B) portable career paths.
C) dual career ladders.
D) job rotation programs.
Q4) Most global firms find it is better to have expatriates rather than local staff at the management positions of their foreign operations because expatriates require less training and development than do the locals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How do talent pools help in talent management?
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Q1) In the _____ method, the manager keeps a written record of both highly favorable and unfavorable actions performed by an employee during the entire rating period.
A) forced distribution
B) ranking
C) essay
D) critical incident
Q2) The use of _____ can cause rater error because the form might not accurately reflect the relative importance of certain job characteristics, and some factors might need to be added to the ratings for one employee, while others might need to be dropped.
A) graphic rating scales
B) category scaling methods
C) comparative methods
D) narrative methods
Q3) The contrast error occurs when a rater scores an employee high on all job criteria because of performance in one area.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the features required in an effective performance management system.
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Q1) _____ are used to group individual jobs having approximately the same job worth.
A) Pay scales
B) Pay grades
C) Pay compressions
D) Pay expansions
Q2) Discuss compensation fairness and equity.
Q3) Describe the different methods of job evaluation.
Q4) Which of the following is true of the classification method of job evaluation?
A) In this method, descriptions of each group of jobs are written and then each job is put into a grade according to the group it best matches.
B) It is a complex quantitative method that combines the ranking and point factor methods.
C) It looks at compensable factors in a group of similar jobs and assigns weights, or points, to them.
D) It is a simple system that places jobs in order, from highest to lowest, by their value to the organization.
Q5) An employer using the first-quartile strategy chooses to "lag the market."
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Entitlement culture is the idea that _____.
A) basic salaries are extra pay for sales performance rather than deferred bonuses
B) basic salaries are deferred bonuses rather than extra pay for extra sales performance
C) bonuses are extra pay for sales performance rather than deferred salary
D) bonuses are deferred salary rather than extra pay for extra sales performance
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of a discretionary system of determining bonuses?
A) The federal and state governments decide the bonuses.
B) All the shareholders of the company decide the bonuses.
C) The labor unions and employees decide the bonuses.
D) The CEO and the board of directors decide the bonuses.
Q3) Perquisites (Perks) are special benefits, usually noncash items, for executives.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain employee stock plans.
Q5) Describe the two primary ways of distributing group/team incentives.
Q6) Describe the challenges faced by group/team incentives.
Q7) Explain perquisites.
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Q1) A company that has been providing generous defined benefit pension plans to all its retirees for the past 50 years is now facing bankruptcy and is unable to pay the pension amount. Which of the following statements is true of the given scenario?
A) The PBGC will pay the retiree benefits from the solvency fund.
B) The company must decrease the amount of pension payments based on the available amount of money in the pension fund.
C) The employees will have to forfeit their pension benefits.
D) The company can suspend pension payments until the pension fund has been fully recovered.
Q2) Meredith, the general manager of an IT firm, is planning to introduce certain new strategies to control and reduce the health care benefit costs to her company. Which of the following is most likely to be included in her list of strategies?
A) Decreasing copayments
B) Eliminating high-deductible plans
C) Switching to consumer-driven health plans
D) Avoiding managed care
Q3) What are the different conditions under which employers grant "leaves of absence" to their employees?
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Q1) An employer may be in violation of the National Labor Relations Act if:
A) the company has joint management/employee safety committees.
B) employees are involved in whistle-blowing activities.
C) managers compose a majority on the committee.
D) the company is not located in a state mandating safety committees.
Q2) Recovering substance abusers are not considered disabled under the ADA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Under workers' compensation laws, employers transfer a portion of employees' basic compensation to an insurance fund that would compensate employees for injuries received while on a job.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which organizations are covered under the OSHA? Describe the OSHA enforcement standards that were established to implement OSHA regulations in companies.
Q5) Describe the three components of disaster planning?
Q6) What are the standards developed by the OSHA regarding the use of personal protective equipment by employees?
Q7) How can organizations monitor and evaluate their safety efforts?
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Q1) The CEO of a drug manufacturing company suspects that one of the senior scientists in the company has been selling confidential information to a competitor. When asked to take a polygraph test by the CEO, the scientist becomes visibly upset and refuses to take the test. Which of the following is true of the given scenario?
A) The CEO can fire the scientist for refusing to take the polygraph test.
B) The scientist can face legal charges for refusing to take the polygraph test.
C) The scientist cannot be fired for refusing to take the polygraph test.
D) The scientist can sue the firm for illegally attempting to conduct the polygraph test.
Q2) Describe an employee handbook. What are the best practices that companies should consider while developing employee handbooks?
Q3) Which of the following rights does the EAW provide employers with?
A) The right to confidentiality
B) The right to demote
C) The right to establish new rules and regulations
D) The right to discriminate against minorities
Q4) Describe three alternative dispute resolution (ADR) processes that are commonly used.
Q5) How does procedural justice differ from distributive justice?
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Q1) The process whereby representatives of management and workers negotiate over wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment is called:
A) joint decision-making.
B) collective bargaining.
C) contract arbitration.
D) bipartite negotiation.
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of union representation in organizations?
A) High productivity due to increasing compensation
B) Consistent increase in profitability of organizations
C) Efficient allocation of organizational resources
D) Opportunity to provide feedback to employers
Q3) A union steward is a full-time union official who operates the union office and assists union members.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe two union security provisions that organizations commonly provide.
Q5) It is common for wages and benefits to be higher in unionized firms.
A)True
B)False
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