Industrial and Organizational Psychology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Industrial and Organizational Psychology explores the application of psychological principles and research methods to workplace environments. This course examines how psychological theories shape practices such as personnel selection, training and development, performance appraisal, motivation, job satisfaction, leadership, and organizational behavior. Students will develop an understanding of how individual, group, and organizational dynamics interact to influence productivity, employee well-being, and overall organizational effectiveness. By analyzing real-world issues and case studies, learners will gain practical insights into improving work environments and managing human capital within various organizational settings.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 10th Edition by Lloyd Byars
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19 Chapters
1137 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Human Resource Management: A Strategic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Working at home by using an electronic linkup with a central office is known as
A)reengineering
B)outsourcing
C)empowerment
D)telecommuting
Answer: D
Q2) Fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in cost,quality,service,and speed is known as outsourcing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The text identifies the primary function of the human resource department as that of:
A)maintaining personnel records and engaging in human resource research.
B)hiring and firing employees.
C)providing support to operating managers on all human resource matters.
D)administering payroll.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Equal Employment Opportunity: The Legal Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA)prohibits discrimination in employment against individuals aged:
A)18 through 60.
B)40 through 69.
C)60 through 75.
D)50 through 80.
Answer: B
Q2) The Pregnancy Discrimination Act (PDA)was passed as an amendment to the ____.
A)Civil Rights Act
B)Immigration Reform and Control Act
C)Americans with Disabilities Act
D)Family and Medical Leave Act
Answer: A
Q3) The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)is an agency within the U.S.Department of Labor.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Implementing Equal Employment Opportunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The EEOC has the power to file a lawsuit against an employer for the violation of one of the laws the EEOC administers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Explain the term business necessity.
Answer: Business necessity comes into play when an employer has a job specification that is neutral but excludes members of one sex at a higher rate than members of the other.The focus in business necessity is on the validity of various stated job specifications and their relationship to the work performed.For example,in using a business necessity defense,an employer would be required to prove that the ability to lift 100 pounds is necessary in performing a warehouse job.
Q3) If the EEOC does not file a lawsuit in a civil rights case,the person bringing the charge has no recourse and cannot prevail in the dispute.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Job Analysis and Job Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)_____ is an aggregation of two or more micromotions; usually thought of as a complete entity.
A)task
B)element
C)responsibility
D)duty
Q2) Job analysis is a first step in determining that employees receive fair compensation for their jobs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A job specification concentrates on the knowledge,skills,abilities,and other characteristics needed to perform the job.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define the terms job description and job specification.
Q5) Functional job analysis collects detailed task statements and then rates them according to function level or function orientation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Human Resource Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scenario analysis involves thoroughly examining internal practices and procedures and measuring them against the ways other successful organizations operate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The use of past staffing levels,instead of workload levels,to project future HR requirements is the essence of which statistical model?
A)Productivity ratios
B)Regression analysis
C)Time-series analysis
D)Personnel ratios
Q3) Which of the following is true about strategy-linked HRP?
A)This concept holds that HRP should be handled solely by human resource personnel.
B)HR managers serve as consultants to line managers concerning the people-management implications of business objectives and strategies.
C)All managers should view human resource planning as one of their most important job responsibilities.
D)The commitment of top management is irrelevant in strategy-linked HRP.
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Chapter 6: Recruiting Employees
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true about how equal employment legislation has influenced recruitment activities?
A)Expressing a preference for a female worker in a newspaper ad is acceptable if gender is a BFOQ for the vacant position.
B)Employee referral recruitment is encouraged by the EEOC.
C)Organizations are discouraged to advertise in media directed toward minorities and women.
D)The EEOC makes no recommendations regarding campus recruitment.
Q2) Realistic Job Previews (RJP)attempt to sell the organization and the job to the prospective employee and aim to achieve a high rate of job offer acceptance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One of the ways in which an organization can involve its employees in the recruiting process is by using ____.
A)Internet recruiting
B)employee referrals
C)temporary help agencies
D)walk-ins
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8
Chapter 7: Selecting Employees
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ tests are used to differentiate experienced and skilled workers from less experienced and less skilled workers.
A)Interest
B)Job knowledge
C)Psychomotor
D)Reasoning
Q2) How accurately a predictor actually predicts the criterion of job success is called:
A)reliability.
B)validity.
C)usability.
D)adaptability.
Q3) To obtain certain information that could otherwise be used to illegally discriminate,employers encourage voluntary submission of:
A)applicant flow records.
B)declassified disclosures.
C)realistic job previews.
D)personnel requisition forms.
Q4) Discuss the various types of aptitude tests.
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Chapter 8: Orientation and Employee Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define orientation.
Q2) Which of the following areas of evaluation assesses how much a trainee liked the training program?
A)Learning
B)Reaction
C)Behavior
D)Results
Q3) Explain the purpose of classroom training.
Q4) It is easier for new employees to absorb all the information in the company orientation program in one long session.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Behavior evaluation is easier than the learning evaluation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The profit margin of the organization is one of the topics covered during a departmental and job orientation program.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Management and Organizational Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the four phases of organizational development.
Q2) Which of the following is one of the methods used to determine management development needs?
A)Task analysis
B)Case study
C)Focus group
D)Skills evaluation
Q3) Case studies ordinarily bring about all of the following trainee requirements EXCEPT:
A)propose solutions.
B)choose among alternatives.
C)think through problems.
D)field test a chosen decision.
Q4) A management inventory includes a brief assessment of past performance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain organizational development.
Q6) A task analysis is subjective and is based on the opinion of an expert.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Career Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A career plateau is defined as the point in a career where the likelihood of additional hierarchical promotion is very low.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dual-earner couples do not see their employment as an integral part of their self-definition.
A)True B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an appropriate managerial broker role concerning career development?
A)Assists in linking employees with appropriate educational or employment opportunities.
B)Teaches specific job-related or technical skills.
C)Follows up on effectiveness of suggested referrals.
D)Represents employee's concern to higher-level management for redress of specific issues.
Q4) Career development and career planning should reinforce each other.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 11: Performance Management Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe potential errors in performance appraisals.
Q2) An understanding of job descriptions is crucial in conducting performance appraisals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The checklist method of performance evaluation is very complicated to administer and is therefore seldom used.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the more promising approaches to overcoming performance appraisal errors is to:
A)improve appraisers' rating skills.
B)focus more on the particular instruments and less on overall performance.
C)raise the tolerance level for errors.
D)use a single,uniform method of appraisal.
Q5) Describe the essay performance appraisal.
Q6) Ability refers to the amount of energy an individual uses in performing a task.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the forced distribution method of performance appraisal.
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Chapter 12: The Organizational Reward System
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Sample Questions
Q1) List some considerations in the selection of rewards.
Q2) _____ is a feeling of being accepted by and belonging to a group of employees through adherence to common goals,confidence in the desirability of those goals,and the desire to progress toward the goals.
A)Job satisfaction
B)Motivation
C)Organizational morale
D)Role perception
Q3) The law which regulates minimum wages and overtime pay is the:
A)Davis-Bacon Act.
B)Walsh-Healey Act.
C)Fair Labor Standards Act.
D)Minimum Wage and Overtime Act.
Q4) In 1992,the NLRB ruled that forbidding employees to discuss their pay constitutes a violation of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the concept of pay equity,internal equity,external equity,individual equity,and organizational equity.
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Chapter 13: Base Wage and Salary Systems
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Q1) The intent of the total rewards approach is to place more emphasis on lower-cost rewards and provide a flexible and broad array of rewards.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a disadvantage of the factor comparison method of job evaluation?
A)It is brief and nonspecific.
B)It requires significant interaction and decision making by the different parties involved in conducting the job evaluations.
C)It is not easily adapted to changes in the jobs being evaluated.
D)Because of its qualitative nature,it is difficult to assign monetary values to jobs.
Q3) Broadbanding:
A)reduces the number of pay grades in a salary system.
B)increases the number of pay grades in a salary system.
C)is the result of job evaluation using the point method.
D)is generally one of the by-products of implementing a skill-based pay structure.
Q4) What is the purpose of wage and salary surveys?
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15
Chapter 14: Incentive Pay Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type of incentive award for managerial employees is the annual cash bonus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Standard hour plans involve paying employees more if they work more hours,increasing their payment once they cross a certain number of hours.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Stock option plans are generally designed to give managers an option to buy company stock at a variable price.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Top management executives constitute the vast majority of private-sector employees who hold stock options.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss group incentive plans.
Q6) Discuss piece rate plans,plans based on time saved and plans based on commissions.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Employee Benefits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about workers' compensation?
A)The laws generally do not provide for replacement of lost income.
B)The employee normally has to sue the employer to get compensation.
C)Workers' compensation coverage is compulsory in all states.
D)In workers' compensation coverage,there is coinsurance in that the workers' loss is usually not fully covered by the insurance program.
Q2) Although it is sometimes extended,unemployment compensation usually expires after:
A)12 months.
B)12 weeks.
C)26 weeks.
D)30 days.
Q3) Describe insurance-related benefits.
Q4) The financial crisis facing social security stems from:
A)unwillingness of employers to help fund the system.
B)demographic changes in our society.
C)unwillingness of employees to contribute funds.
D)lower levels of unemployment.
Q5) Describe unemployment compensation.
Q6) Discuss the concept of flexible benefit plans.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Employee Safety and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true with regard to the common sources and suggested causes of job-related stress?
A)The threat of job loss is due to job demands skills or abilities that the employee does not possess.
B)Conflicting expectations involve situations where the employee is uncertain or unclear about how to perform on the job.
C)The requirements of the job may unnecessarily produce pacing problems,social isolation,and so forth,leading to fear and/or responsibility.
D)Role overload occurs when the employee is incompetent at his/her job.
Q2) OSHA Form 300:
A)requires employers to log each recordable occupational injury and illness within six working days from the time the employer learns of it.
B)was designed to make it easier to post and calculate incident rates.
C)requires much more detail about each injury or illness than any other record-keeping forms.
D)must be retained for three years by the organization and must be available for inspection.
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Chapter 17: Employee Relations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain what is meant by progressive discipline.
Q2) What are the steps in the disciplinary process?
Q3) Consistency in discipline means that factors such as past conduct,length of service,work record,and the like must be ignored in determining the appropriate discipline.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The normal sequence of actions taken by management in disciplining an employee would be:
A)oral warning,arbitration,mediation,release.
B)suspension,written warning,oral warning,discharge.
C)written warning,mediation,arbitration,release.
D)oral warning,written warning,suspension,discharge.
Q5) Describe employment at will.
Q6) Before dispensing discipline or punishment,it is prudent for management to:
A)keep adequate records including past transgressions of the employee.
B)avoid union representation,if possible.
C)take disciplinary action in undue haste.
D)avoid union representation to contain a larger problem from developing.
Q7) Explain what is meant by due process.
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Chapter 18: The Legal Environment and Structure of Labor
Unions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Norris-La Guardia Act established no administrative procedures to ensure implementation of employee rights to bargain with employers on the terms and conditions of employment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the use of injunctions in labor disputes?
A)Injunctions were normally sought by the employer.
B)Violations of an injunction would result in a contempt-of-court citation.
C)Courts placed a narrow interpretation on the term "property."
D)Complying with the injunction in many cases destroyed the effectiveness of the union.
Q3) The largest organizational unit within the union movement emerged with the merger between the:
A)United Mine Workers and American Federation of Labor.
B)Knights of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations.
C)American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations.
D)Knights of Labor and United Mine Workers.
Q4) Describe executive orders as they relate to the legal environment of unions.
Q5) Explain injunctions.
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Chapter 19: Union Organizing Campaigns and Collective Bargaining
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Sample Questions
Q1) Union security clauses deal with the status of employee membership in the union and attempt to ensure that the union has continuous strength.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Under a(n)_____ provision,employees are not required to actually join the union,but they are required to pay a representation fee as a condition of employment.
A)agency shop
B)closed shop
C)hot-cargo
D)union shop
Q3) Good-faith bargaining consists of sincere intentions of both parties,labor and management,to negotiate differences and reach a mutually acceptable agreement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe a bargaining unit.
Q5) Explain the various restrictions placed on soliciting support for the unions.
Q6) Discuss the various reasons for employees opposing unionization.
Q7) Explain the captive-audience doctrine.
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