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Industrial and Organizational Psychology explores the application of psychological principles and research methods to the workplace with the goal of improving productivity, health, and the quality of work life. This course examines employee selection, training and development, performance appraisal, motivation, leadership, job satisfaction, team dynamics, and organizational culture. Students will analyze the interplay between individual behaviors and organizational structures, understanding how psychological theories can be used to solve real-world problems in diverse professional settings.
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ORGB 5th Edition by Debra L. Nelson
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18 Chapters
1128 Verified Questions
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Q1) The manufacturing sector includes transportation, financial services, insurance, and retail sales.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The internal perspective understands human behavior in terms of the:
A)work load of an individual.
B)past experiences of an individual.
C)consequences and environmental forces.
D)organization communication channels.
Answer: B
Q3) Total quality management is an employee-driven philosophy of management.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Global competition is a leading force driving change at work.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Drug testing, free speech, downsizing and layoffs, and due process are but a few of the employee rights issues that managers face.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of cultural relativism?
A)People should not be allowed to pursue what is in their economic self-interest.
B)Local standards guide ethical behavior.
C)Good is the ultimate moral value.
D)Good consequences do not always follow right actions.
Answer: B
Q3) _____ is the degree to which a culture accepts unequal distribution of power.
A)Glass ceiling
B)Uncertainty avoidance
C)Power norms
D)Power distance
Answer: D
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Q1) Identify the basic propositions of interactional psychology. Answer: Answers will vary.There are four basic propositions of interactional psychology: (1)Behavior is a function of a continuous, multidirectional interaction between the person and the situation.(2)The person is active in this process, both changing situations and being changed by them.(3)People vary in many characteristics, including cognitive, affective, motivational, and ability factors.(4)Two aspects of a situation are important: the objective situation and the person's subjective view of the situation.Please see the section "Individual Differences and Organizational Behavior" for more information.
Q2) General mental ability is the psychological approach to understanding human behavior that involves knowing something about the person and about the situation. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Perceivers prefer flexible and spontaneous lives and like to keep options open. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of a behavioral intent?
A)It can be measured by physiological indicators such as blood pressure.
B)It may not actually lead to a particular behavior.
C)It reflects a person's perceptions or beliefs.
D)It is the emotional component of an attitude.
Q2) Sophie, an employee at Dandrill Corp., comes to office about an hour late.Morgan, Sophie's manager, asks her to inform him the next time she would be late.Sophie immediately starts ranting angrily at him.Which of the following will help Sophie avoid such an emotional response?
A)Emotional intelligence
B)Emotional labor
C)Emotional contagion
D)Emotional dissonance
Q3) _____ is made up of several types of abilities: perceiving, understanding, facilitating, and regulating emotion.
A)Emotional dissonance
B)Emotional intelligence
C)Emotional labor
D)Emotional contagion
Q4) What are the advantages of displaying ethical behavior for a firm?
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Q1) Self-actualization may be the most important need for people in cultures with a high need to avoid uncertainty.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the context of Maslow's need hierarchy, the progression hypothesis suggests that:
A)people progress up the hierarchy as they successively gratify each level of need.
B)people with a high need for achievement seek performance excellence.
C)it is more crucial to gratify the needs at the highest level and then the ones below it.
D)the lowest level of needs represents the external incentives of employees.
Q3) _____ organizes human needs into three basic categories: existence, relatedness, and growth.
A)The ERG theory of motivation
B)Expectancy theory
C)The two-Factor theory
D)McClelland's need theory
Q4) Briefly explain McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y.
Q5) What are some of the characteristics of high achievers?
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Q1) _____ is the most effective when used in conjunction with the positive reinforcement of desirable behaviors.
A)Extinction
B)Reinforcement
C)Punishment
D)Contingency
Q2) Briefly distinguish between positive and negative reinforcement with the help of a job-related example.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of specific and challenging goals?
A)They provide opportunities for feedback about goal progress.
B)They focus attention on exactly what will be accomplished and inspire peak performance.
C)They enhance measurability.
D)They use measures like the number of complaints or the frequency of compliments.
Q4) The planning component of goal setting consists of interim reviews conducted by managers and employees and formal performance evaluation.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Role conflict results from:
A)lack of control and poor leadership
B)emotional toxins and role ambiguity.
C)civic and volunteer work overload.
D)inconsistent or incompatible expectations.
Q2) Describe interpersonal demands as a source of stress.
Q3) Why does role negotiation have value as a stress-management method?
A)It lets individuals negotiate for a much higher salary.
B)It allows individuals to modify their work roles.
C)It gives individuals the illusion of control over their roles.
D)It ensures there is no discrimination between men and women.
Q4) Which of the following is the last step of the GP3 method of time management?
A)Prioritizing goals in terms of their relative importance
B)Praising oneself for specific achievements along the way
C)Setting goals that are challenging yet attainable
D)Planning for goal attainment through specific tasks
Q5) Dramatic changes at work and lack of control are some of the major causes of work stress.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Rita has a naturally loud voice.Even when she is happy, her colleagues mistake her to be angry or upset.In this scenario, Rita's colleagues evidently make assumptions about her based on _____ cues.
A)proxemics
B)kinesics
C)paralanguage
D)feedback
Q2) Information overload for employees is most likely caused when supervisors:
A)fail to filter and disseminate information selectively to them.
B)tend to use media of communication that lack information richness.
C)do not support two-way communication.
D)want to withhold details from them.
Q3) In the context of reflective listening, the practice of silence:
A)ensures the accuracy of the communication process.
B)helps the listener to shift the speaker's focus from the main problem.
C)enables the speaker and the listener to build greater empathy and openness in their relationship.
D)gives the listener time to sort his or her own thoughts and feelings from those of the speaker.
Q4) How do communication technologies affect behavior in the work environment?
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of work teams?
A)They emphasize personal accountability.
B)They only work face-to-face.
C)They do not put aside individual interests in favor of unity.
D)They emphasize collective work products.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of group cohesion?
A)It results in feelings of emotional isolation and loneliness.
B)It emphasizes individual leadership, personal accountability, and exclusive work.
C)It includes the purpose of a group and the methods the group employs.
D)It can enhance job satisfaction for members and improve organizational productivity.
Q3) An effective group must have a(n)_____, especially when the group is a cross-functional one, where different perspectives carry the seeds of conflict.
A)integrator
B)communicator
C)challenger
D)collaborator
Q4) Identify the stages of group development in Bruce Tuckman's five-stage model.
Q5) Describe self-managed teams.
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Q1) _____ are new and complex decisions that require considerable judgment.
A)Programmed decisions
B)Routine decisions
C)Simple decisions
D)Nonprogrammed decisions
Q2) Which of the following encourages groupthink?
A)Low cohesiveness
B)Diversity among group members
C)Domination of the group by one forceful member
D)Time constraints
Q3) One social decision scheme is the _____, in which a group supports whatever position is taken by most of its members.
A)majority-wins rule
B)truth-wins rule
C)two-thirds-majority rule
D)first-shift rule
Q4) Over optimism is one of the reasons for escalation of commitment.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the advantages of group decision making.
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Q1) Identify and briefly discuss the factors that can give a group control over a strategic contingency.
Q2) Which of the following is true of people who use referent power?
A)They are most often individualistic and respected by a target.
B)They internalize what they observe.
C)They learn from managers they perceive to be experts.
D)They influence their top management teams in ways that are profitable for their firm.
Q3) According to Jay Conger, which of the following is a guideline on how managers can empower employees in an organization?
A)Managers should set low performance expectations.
B)Managers should exclude employees from decision-making processes.
C)Managers should reinstate bureaucratic constraints in the organization.
D)Managers should set inspirational or meaningful goals.
Q4) In the context of political behavior in organizations, _____ encourages political activity.
A)clear goals
B)definitive lines of authority
C)abundant resources
D)autocratic decision making
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Q1) An employee-oriented leadership style leads to a work environment:
A)that focuses on relationships.
B)that focuses on getting things done.
C)that uses strong, directive actions to control the rules.
D)that is characterized by low task behavior and low relationship behavior.
Q2) A tenet of _____ is that work exists for the person as much as the person exists for work.
A)transactional leadership
B)abusive leadership
C)servant leadership
D)charismatic leadership
Q3) In the context of the Situational Leadership model, which of the following is true of a telling style?
A)It involves providing instructions and closely monitoring performance.
B)It helps leaders determine the appropriate level of employee participation in decision making.
C)It determines the team's effectiveness in work accomplishment.
D)It attempts to balance a concern for people and production without a commitment to either.
Q4) Briefly explain the characteristics of an alienated follower.
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Q1) Managers should work to stimulate functional conflict when they suspect their group is suffering from groupthink.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Competition between groups must be managed carefully so that it does not escalate into a(n):
A)intragroup conflict.
B)dysfunctional conflict.
C)functional conflict.
D)interorganizational conflict.
Q3) The key to conflict management is:
A)to prevent or resolve dysfunctional conflict.
B)to discourage functional conflict.
C)to enhance creativity in an organization.
D)to improve work relationship between two parties.
Q4) _____ is the ability to see life from another person's perspective.
A)Attribution
B)Empathy
C)Displacement
D)Rationalization

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Q1) Katie has just been promoted to the position of senior engineer at Timolin Industries.Knowing that the company needs to be up to date with the latest engineering methods to maximize profits, she decides to conduct training programs for the junior engineers.In this scenario, it is evident that Katie is implementing a(n)_____ to job design.
A)lean production approach
B)anthropocentric approach
C)technocentric approach
D)job rotation approach
Q2) A problem with job enrichment as a strategy for work design is that it:
A)overemphasizes individual differences.
B)is inapplicable to higher levels of management.
C)quickly results in boredom.
D)is based on an oversimplified motivational theory.
Q3) Task significance in the Job Characteristics Model is the degree to which one's job requires completion of a whole task.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the scientific management approach to work design as advocated by Frederick Taylor.
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Q1) Generally, the flatter an organization, the more vertical integration mechanisms are needed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _____ is the appropriate measure of an organization's size when discussing the design of organizational structure.
A)number of units produced
B)total assets
C)sales volume
D)total number of employees
Q3) Which of the following is a form of differentiation?
A)Matrix differentiation
B)Spatial differentiation
C)Circular differentiation
D)Lateral differentiation
Q4) The adhocracy emphasizes the support staff and mutual adjustment among people.
A)True B)False
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Q1) The dean of a university awards scholarships to the honor students of the university at a banquet every year.This is an example of:
A)personal enactment.
B)a ritual.
C)anticipatory socialization.
D)a ceremony.
Q2) Assumptions are at the deepest and most fundamental level of an organization's culture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The use of multiple methods to measure organizational change is known as: A)convergence.
B)the multitrait-multimethod matrix.
C)triangulation.
D)the two-layered study.
Q4) According to Edgar Schein, the three levels of organizational culture are:
A)behavior, rights, and beliefs.
B)artifacts, values, and assumptions.
C)adaptations, consequences, and faith.
D)demands, communications, and informal groups.
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Q1) How are companies helping employees transition to retirement in innovative ways?
Q2) How are career anchors modified?
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of people with high emotional intelligence?
A)They work efficiently with other team members.
B)They tend to provide slow customer services.
C)They depend on their peers to help them with skill development.
D)They have slow promotion rates.
Q4) Briefly describe the four-stage career model and indicate one or more important activities in each stage.
Q5) During the maintenance stage, an:
A)employee's primary concern is related to maintaining a work-life balance.
B)employee is often mentored by a senior colleague.
C)employee transitions to nonsupervisory positions.
D)employee's probability of moving up the hierarchy is low.
Q6) Executives succumb to the temptation of fraud because:
A)they feel pressure to keep up with changes in cultural norms.
B)of the lack of responsibility in the workplace.
C)of the lack of training.
D)they feel the top management places low levels of expectations on them.
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of unplanned change in an organization?
A)Installing a computer-controlled machine tool
B)Responding to an increase in excise tax on gasoline
C)Preparing materials and making arrangements for a workforce diversity-training workshop
D)Scheduling production runs for the peak vacation period of June through August
Q2) The power players in the global market are the organizations that can capitalize on emerging markets throughout the world.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is true of globalization?
A)Global business carries unique risks not found by firms competing within a single nation.
B)Globalization decreases workforce diversity in organizations.
C)Globalization decreases competition among firms.
D)Global business involves a single government and a single legal system.
Q4) Job redesign is one of the group-focused techniques for organization development intervention.
A)True
B)False
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