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Industrial and Organizational Psychology explores the scientific study of human behavior in workplace settings, focusing on how individuals, groups, and organizations interact to influence productivity, job satisfaction, and overall organizational effectiveness. This course introduces students to key concepts such as personnel selection, training and development, performance appraisal, motivation, leadership, teamwork, occupational health, and work-life balance. By combining psychological theories with practical applications, students learn how to analyze and improve workplace dynamics, foster positive organizational cultures, and implement evidence-based strategies for enhancing employee well-being and organizational success.
Recommended Textbook
Canadian Organizational Behaviour 10th Canadian Edition by Steven Mcshane
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165 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Emerging evidence is that companies with a positive CSR reputation tend to have better financial performance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following is an example of knowledge acquisition?
A)Encouraging employees to share their knowledge with coworkers.
B)Developing a training program for employees to learn the latest software for their jobs.
C)Attempting to reduce the extent of the informal communication network known as the grapevine.
D)Surveying employees about their attitudes towards recent corporate changes.
E)Hiring people who bring valuable knowledge that is not available from current employees.
Answer: E
Q3) Intellectual capital includes relationship capital
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Personality traits are more evident in situations where social norms and reward systems constrain behaviour.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Conscientiousness is one dimension of
A)the MARS model.
B)Myers-Briggs Type Indicator.
C)Schwartz's values model.
D)All of the answers are correct.
E)None of the answers apply.
Answer: E
Q3) Presenteeism occurs when people attend work even though their capacity to work is significantly diminished by illness, fatigue, personal problems, or other factors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are steps in the self-fulfilling prophecy process, EXCEPT
A)Employee's behaviour becomes consistent with supervisor's expectations.
B)Supervisor forms expectations about employee.
C)Supervisor's behaviour affects employee's abilities and self-confidence.
D)Supervisor forms an impression based on the most recent information about the employee.
E)Expectations affect supervisor's behaviour toward employee.
Answer: D
Q2) Self-serving bias is associated with which perceptual process?
A)Attribution theory
B)Stereotyping
C)Social identity theory
D)Self-fulfilling prophecy
E)Halo effect
Answer: A
Q3) The combination of social identity and self-enhancement occurs through categorization and attribution activities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

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Q1) Which of these is considered a work/life balance initiative to minimize stress?
A)Teleworking
B)Job sharing
C)Flexible work time
D)Child care facilities
E)All of these statements describe a family-friendly or work/life initiative to minimize stress
Q2) Employees are more likely to experience stress when they lack control over their work activities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Resistance is the final stage of the stress experience (i.e. the general adaptation syndrome).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Emotions are brief events or "episodes" that subside or occur in waves.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how an employee's attitudes might be affected by cognitive dissonance.
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Q6) How can cognitive dissonance be reduced?
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Q1) According to the A-B-C model of behaviour modification, antecedents
A)represent an older perspective of behaviour modification that is no longer relevant.
B)cause people to act more randomly.
C)inform employees that certain behaviours will have particular consequences.
D)cause people to act more randomly and inform employees that certain behaviours will have particular consequences.
E)have no effect on behaviour.
Q2) Your organization wants to hire and develop a group of people for executive positions in a fast-growing high-technology firm. The company's selection tests are able to identify each
Q3) The optimal level of goal
A)is the point at which the employee does not yet think the goal will 'stretch' them at all.
B)is the most challenging goal that the company can possibly imagine.
C)occurs where the goal is challenging but not impossible.
D)occurs only when employees set their own goal.
E)occurs where the goal is challenging but not impossible and when employees set their own goal.
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Q1) Job status-based rewards discourage employees from hoarding resources.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Competency-based rewards pay employees based on their performance results.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following tend to increase the quality of work performed, EXCEPT
A)job rotation.
B)job specialization and job rotation.
C)natural grouping of tasks into one job.
D)job enrichment.
E)job specialization.
Q4) Employees in jobs with high task variability have
A)high task significance
B)routine work patterns
C)nonroutine work patterns
D)low task significance
E)None of the answers apply
Q5) How might job specialization adversely affect employee attitudes and motivation?
Q6) Discuss the benefits of job rotation in a manufacturing plant.
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Q1) The view that since decision makers have limited information, limited information processing capabilities, and tend toward satisficing rather than maximization of outcomes when making decisions accords with:
A)mini-maxing outcome.
B)implicit rationality.
C)clustering reality.
D)limited processing paradigm.
E)bounded rationality.
Q2) People tend to be more creative when
A)they lack personal freedom to try things out.
B)they have a reasonable level of job security.
C)they risk losing their job if their ideas fail.
D)they are secluded from colleagues in other areas of the organization.
E)they have all of these conditions.
Q3) Employees are more likely to be committed to implementing a solution when they are involved in making the decision.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the four stages of the creative process.
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Q1) Team cohesiveness tends to be higher
A)in smaller teams.
B)when entry into the team becomes extremely difficult and humiliating.
C)when members have limited interaction.
D)when the team has distinct fault lines.
E)in diverse teams.
Q2) A team that achieves its organizational goals, satisfies member needs, and survives in its environment:
A)has a strong communication system but inappropriate reward system.
B)is called a task force.
C)has too many members for the required task.
D)has not yet reached its highest level of team development.
E)is an effective team.
Q3) Production blocking occurs when employees are unable to complete their tasks because they spend too much time in meetings.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The only way to alter team norms is to disband the group.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Nonverbal communication is less rule-bound than is verbal communication.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Information overload occurs when a person's information-processing capacity exceeds the job's information load.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the communication process model, what happens immediately after the receiver receives the encoded message?
A)The receiver confirms with the sender that the message sent was intended to be a message.
B)The sender receives confirmation that the message has been understood.
C)The receiver decodes the received message.
D)The sender encodes the message.
E)The receiver forms feedback in response to the received message.
Q4) Management by walking around potentially minimizes the problem of filtering in the communication process.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Three general strategies for coping with uncertainty include
A)prevention, forecasting, absorption.
B)forecasting, pretending, and imitating.
C)visibility, immediacy, pervasiveness.
D)discretion, immediacy, prevention.
E)visibility, discretion, prevention.
Q2) A clothing manufacturer has been very successful in the marketplace because one of its designers has a keen ability to determine what styles young people will want to wear over the next year or two. The designer's ability to understand the fashion preferences of young customers is highly valuable because clothing tastes change quickly and manufacturing too much unwanted product can put the company out of business. In terms of power, this designer has organizational power mainly because she: A)leverages power through an all-channel information flow rather than the wheel formation.
B)has plenty of coercive power.
C)copes with uncertainty through absorption.
D)has plenty of referent power.
E)copes with uncertainty through forecasting.
Q3) Which types of people are more likely to engage in organizational politics?
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Q1) Employees at a specialty steel company are divided into the 'hot end' and the 'cold end' of the production process. The hot end forms the steel rods that make their way down the line to the cold end, where they are packed for shipment to clients. Employees at the cold end are primarily responsible for quality control because they are the last ones to see the product before it leaves the plant. Their performance is measured by an index of customer complaints and returns, so they are motivated to reject any rods that don't meet quality standards. But employees at the hot end of the production line earn bonuses based on their output and rejection rate. The fewer rods rejected by employees at the cold end, the fatter the bonuses of employees at the hot end. This creates conflict between the hot-end and cold-end employees. Hot-end employees complain that their cold-end colleagues are too fussy about product quality. Cold-end employees don't like the hot-end employees questioning their quality control decisions. Discuss the source(s) of conflict in this situation and recommend a solution to this conflict.
Q2) Claiming value during negotiations involves trying to obtain the best possible outcome for yourself and your constituents.
A)True B)False
Q3) Briefly describe the five interpersonal conflict handling styles.
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Q1) Leadership prototypes refer to
A)a theoretical construct that encompasses all the qualities of leadership.
B)an amalgam of the least effective leadership characteristics we should avoid.
C)factors that substitute for ideal leadership.
D)leadership stereotypes.
E)preconceived beliefs about the features and behaviours of effective leaders.
Q2) A major review in the late 1940s concluded that a consistent list of traits could not be distilled to identify effective leaders.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The path-goal leadership theory is a(n)
A)transformational leadership theory.
B)contingency approach to managerial leadership.
C)leadership competencies type of theory.
D)behavioural leadership theory.
E)implicit leadership theory.
Q4) Several research studies have concluded that charismatic leaders can produce negative consequences.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A matrix structure found mainly in large global firms combines which two forms of departmentalization?
A)Network structure and cluster structure
B)Geographic divisional structure and product divisional structure
C)Simple structure and hybrid structure
D)Divisional structure and simple structure
E)Functional structure and network structure
Q2) One problem with the team-based organizational structure is that employees may experience more stress due to ambiguity of their roles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which form of departmentalization forms unique partnership teams that provide customized products or services, usually to specific clients, for a limited time?
A)Team-based structure
B)Functional structure
C)Matrix structure
D)Network structure
E)Divisionalized structure
Q4) Summarize the benefits of job specialization.
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Q1) Employees at SuperTech Services seek out opportunities rather than wait for them to arrive. They also have a strong sense of responsibility for the organization's performance. SuperTech likely has:
A)a weak organizational culture.
B)a strong counterculture.
C)a culture that is misaligned with its external environment.
D)relatively few artifacts representing the organization's culture.
E)an adaptive culture.
Q2) Some recently-graduated engineering students mentioned that they are disillusioned with their first full-time jobs following graduation. These students claim that this disillusionment mainly occurs because organizations aren't honest with job applicants. Use your knowledge of the pre-employment stages of organizational socialization to explain whether or not their allegations are true.
Q3) Organizational culture consists of the values and assumptions shared within an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify four (4) conditions or events that potentially weaken an organization's dominant culture.
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Q1) The parallel learning approach model, built on the idea of collecting information from organizational members, raises concerns about the risk of violating individual privacy rights.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Action research is the process of determining whether the change process is ethical or not.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Future search conferences are large group sessions, usually lasting a few days, in which participants identify the environmental trends and establish strategic solutions for those conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Outline the organizational change process based on the action research approach.
Q5) Organizational change is more successful if the change agent prevents its diffusion from one part of the organization to other parts.
A)True
B)False
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