Industrial and Organizational Management Review Questions - 1254 Verified Questions

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Industrial and Organizational Management Review

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Course Introduction

Industrial and Organizational Management is a course focused on the principles and practices involved in effectively managing people and processes within industrial and organizational settings. It covers key topics such as organizational structure, leadership, motivation, team dynamics, decision-making, and human resource management. Students will explore strategies for enhancing productivity, quality, and employee well-being in both manufacturing and service organizations. The course also emphasizes the integration of management theories with real-world applications, preparing students to address challenges related to workforce management, change management, and organizational development in todays dynamic global business environment.

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Concepts in Strategic Management and Business Policy 14th Edition by Thomas

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L. Wheelen

Chapter 1: Basic Concepts in Strategic Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the four triggering events listed in the text that are the stimulus for a strategic change?

A) intervention by the organization's bank

B) annual strategic planning conference

C) threat of a takeover

D) new CEO

E) awareness by management of decreased profitability

Answer: B

Q2) In a survey of 50 corporations, which of the following was rated as a benefit of strategic management?

A) clearer sense of vision for the firm

B) higher levels of employee motivation

C) higher levels of job satisfaction

D) improved productivity

E) lower employee turnover

Answer: A

Q3) Corporate strategy occurs at the business unit or product level.

A)True

B)False Answer: False

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Chapter 2: Corporate Governance

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Q1) In implementing the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the SEC required in 2003 that a company disclose

A) the number of insiders on their PR committee.

B) if it has adopted a code of ethics that applied to the CEO and the CFO.

C) the CEO's pay.

D) the CFO's pay.

E) all of the above

Answer: B

Q2) A benefit of the increased disclosure requirements of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act has been more reliable corporate financial statements.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Succession planning for the board and top management team is one of the five responsibilities of the board of directors.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: Ethics and Social Responsibility in Strategic Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) The concept that proposes private corporations have responsibilities to society that extend beyond making a profit is known as

A) flexible responsibility.

B) social responsibility.

C) social flexibility.

D) managerial responsibility.

E) profit maximization.

Answer: B

Q2) Friedman's position on social responsibility

A) proposes that a lack of social responsibility results in increased government regulations.

B) appears to be losing traction with business executives.

C) suggests that a lack of social responsibility reduces a firm's efficiency.

D) explains why firms are using their socially responsible actions for competitive advantage.

E) mirrors Carroll's position.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Environmental Scanning and Industry Analysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The combination of the degree of complexity and the degree of change existing in an organization's external environment is/are called

A) strategic factors.

B) strategic issues.

C) environmental uncertainty.

D) strategic fit.

E) scenarios.

Q2) According to Porter's model, a low force can enable the company to earn greater profits and can be regarded as a(n)

A) benefit.

B) opportunity.

C) advantage.

D) threat.

E) risk.

Q3) What are the two factors that tend to determine whether an industry will be primarily multidomestic or primarily global?

Q4) McDonald's and Olive Garden are in the same strategic group.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Internal Scanning and Organizational Analysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The term that describes putting once isolated specialists together to work and compare notes in a collective product design effort is called

A) simultaneous strategy.

B) participatory planning.

C) jointly designed objectives.

D) concurrent engineering.

E) cooperative design.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a support activity of the value chain?

A) procurement

B) technology development

C) human resource management

D) marketing and sales

E) strategic planning

Q3) What are the two distinct attributes of corporate culture?

A) differentiation and integration

B) durability and imitability

C) concern for people and concern for task

D) intensity and integration

E) amount of complexity and tolerance of change

Q4) Define a value chain and the significance of the center of gravity.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Strategy Formulation: Situation Analysis and Business Strategy

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Q1) In manufacturing toilet paper for grocery store chains (and avoiding competing directly against Charmin), Potlach has followed which of Porter's generic competitive strategies?

A) differentiation

B) cost leadership

C) differentiation focus

D) competitive advantage

E) cost focus

Q2) Incentives based on meeting strict quantitative targets is a common organizational requirement for which of Porter's generic competitive strategies?

A) cost leadership

B) differentiation

C) cost leadership focus

D) differentiation focus

E) collusion

Q3) Rollups are not synonymous with traditional mergers and acquisitions.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is the impact of hypercompetition on competitive advantage?

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Chapter 7: Strategy Formulation: Corporate Strategy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which kind of corporate strategy deals with the manner in which the firm coordinates activities and builds corporate synergies through resource sharing and development?

A) portfolio strategy

B) directional strategy

C) parenting strategy

D) cooperative strategy

E) functional strategy

Q2) Which external growth strategy was demonstrated when Procter & Gamble completely absorbed Gillette?

A) mergers

B) strategic alliances

C) diversification

D) concentration

E) acquisitions

Q3) Discuss the more popular stability strategies.

Q4) A limitation of the BCG Growth Share Matrix is the questionable link between market share and profitability.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Strategy Formulation: Functional Strategy and Strategic Choice

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Sample Questions

Q1) Once the best strategic alternative is selected, the broad guidelines for its implementation are then defined by

A) trade-offs.

B) policies.

C) procedures.

D) resource allocation.

E) strategic options.

Q2) A product development strategy deals with pricing, selling, and distributing a product.

A)True

B)False

Q3) As it relates to operations, AMT stands for

A) Automated Manufacturing Technology.

B) Advanced Manufacturing Technology.

C) Asymptotic Manufacturing Technology.

D) Advanced Monotone Technology.

E) Automated Manufacturing Technician.

Q4) Outsourcing is the alternative to vertical integration.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Strategy Implementation: Organizing for Action

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of structure was used by Nestle to tailor products to regional differences and to achieve regional coordination?

A) geographic-area structure

B) network structure

C) product-group structure

D) international structure

E) functional structure

Q2) Stage V in the organizational life cycle is the A) birth stage.

B) growth stage.

C) maturity stage.

D) decline stage.

E) death stage.

Q3) Stage III in the organizational life cycle is the A) birth stage.

B) growth stage.

C) maturity stage.

D) decline stage.

E) death stage.

Q4) What are the four stages of corporate development?

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Chapter 10: Strategy Implementation: Staffing and Directing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of chief executive officer who is highly knowledgeable in other industries and can manage diverse product lines would be appropriate for a corporation following a diversification strategy?

A) professional liquidator

B) dynamic industry expert

C) turnaround specialist

D) analytical portfolio manager

E) cautious profit planner

Q2) Which one of the following is NOT one of the activities and techniques typically used in an assessment center to evaluate a person's suitability for advancement?

A) leaderless group discussions

B) management games

C) in-basket exercises

D) IQ tests

E) case analyses

Q3) A good retrenchment strategy can be implemented well in terms of organizing, but poorly in terms of staffing.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Evaluation and Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) One advantage of using ROI is that it is a single comprehensive figure that includes all revenues, costs, and expenses.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Unlike ROI, managers cannot manipulate the numbers of EVA.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Return on investment (ROI) is the most widely used measure of performance in what responsibility center?

A) revenue center

B) expense center

C) investment center

D) profit center

E) standard cost center

Q4) The use of timely, quantifiable standards guarantees good performance.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Discuss the benchmarking process.

Q6) What is the balanced scorecard? What are the four areas to be addressed?

Q7) Discuss the guidelines for proper control.

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Chapter 12: Suggestions for Case Analysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the main purpose of conducting outside research into the environmental setting of the case?

A) It allows students to identify how the company addressed the problem.

B) It provides a learning experience on library usage which is helpful in all courses.

C) It gives a realistic background of the industry during a specified period.

D) It gives you clues as to what the organization should be doing in the future.

E) It furnishes large amounts of data - both pertinent and extraneous.

Q2) Which financial ratio measures the extent to which the company's capital is in cash or cash equivalents?

A) quick ratio

B) current ratio

C) cash ratio

D) strategic ratio

E) inventory ratio

Q3) Cases present actual business situations and enable you to examine ONLY successful corporations.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is the Z-value?

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