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Immunology is the study of the immune system, its structure, function, and role in defending the body against infectious diseases and other foreign invaders. This course explores the mechanisms of innate and adaptive immunity, including the development and function of immune cells, the recognition of antigens, and the process of immune responses. Students will examine key topics such as immunoglobulins, the major histocompatibility complex, and cytokine signaling. Additionally, the course covers the principles of immunopathology, vaccination, immunodeficiencies, hypersensitivity reactions, and autoimmunity, providing a comprehensive understanding of how the immune system maintains health and how its dysfunction can lead to disease.
Recommended Textbook
Cellular and Molecular Immunology 8th Edition by Abul K. Abbas
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20 Chapters
214 Verified Questions
214 Flashcards
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Q1) All of the following protein-protein interactions are involved in activation of naive helper T cells by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) EXCEPT binding of:
A) Peptide-MHC complexes on the APC to the TCR on the T cell
B) CD4 on the T cell to nonpolymorphic regions of class II MHC molecules on the APC
C) Integrins on the T cell with adhesion ligands on the APC
D) B7-2 on the APC with CD28 on the T cell
E) CD40L on the T cell with CD40 on the APC
Answer: E
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Q1) A small chemical group recognized by an antibody that is attached to a larger macromolecule
A)Conformational determinant
B)Linear determinant
C)Neoantigenic determinant
D)Hinge region
E)Immunocomplex
F)Fab
G)Fc
H)Tail piece
I)Hapten
Answer: I
Q2) The isotype only found in membrane-bound form on naive B cells
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Answer: B
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Q1) A child who suffers from a persistent viral infection is found to have a deficiency in lymphocyte production and very few T and B cells. Other bone marrow-derived cells are produced in normal numbers, and MHC molecule expression on cells appears normal. Transfusion of mature T cells from an unrelated donor who had recovered from a previous infection by the same virus would not be expected to help the child clear his infection. Which one of the following is a reasonable explanation for why this therapeutic approach would fail?
A) Viral infections are cleared by antibodies, not T cells.
B) The patient's own immune system would destroy the transfused T cells before they could respond to the viral infection.
C) T cells recognize peptides, not viral particles.
D) Donor T cell viral antigen recognition is restricted by MHC molecules not expressed in the patient.
E) In responding to the previous infection, the donor would have used up all his T cells specific for that virus.
Answer: D
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Q1) CD28
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
Q2) Constant Ig domain
Q3) CD2
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
Q4) Variable Ig domain
Q5) CTLA-4
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
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Q1) T cell-independent antigens
A)IgM
B)IgD
C)IgG
D)IgE
E)IgA
Q2) Which one of the following statements about primary and secondary antibody responses is NOT true?
A) Antibodies in primary responses generally have lower affinity for antigen than those produced in secondary responses.
B) Secondary responses reach peak levels more quickly than primary responses.
C) Primary responses require higher concentrations of antigen for initiation than secondary responses.
D) Primary responses occur to all types of antigens, but secondary responses mostly occur only to protein antigens.
E) Primary responses are characterized by IgG antibodies, whereas secondary responses are dominated by IgM antibodies.
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Q1) This product of TH2 cells promotes immunity to helminthic infections.
A)Interferon-
B)Interleukin (IL)-10
C)IL-12
D)CD40L
E)CD40
F)STAT6
G)STAT4
H)IL-5
Q2) This intracellular signaling molecule and transcription factor is required for differentiation of TH2 cells and for responses of other cells to TH2 cells.
A)Interferon-
B)Interleukin (IL)-10
C)IL-12
D)CD40L
E)CD40
F)STAT6
G)STAT4
H)IL-5
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Q1) Toll-like receptors and other receptors are potent activators of various components of the innate immune system. All of the following proteins are expressed in response to signaling by these receptors EXCEPT:
A) Interleukin-12
B) E-selectin
C) Tumor necrosis factor
D) Inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS)
E) CD28
Q2) Superoxide anion, hydroxyl radical, or hydrogen peroxide, produced by activated phagocytes
A)Defensin
B)Opsonin
C)Natural antibody
D)Adjuvant
E)Complement
F)Inflammation
G)C-reactive protein
H)Mannose-binding lectin
I)Reactive oxygen intermediate
J)Inducible nitric oxide synthase
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Sample Questions
Q1) Defect in B cell maturation at the pre-B cell stage caused by mutations in the gene encoding the B cell tyrosine kinase (Btk), resulting in undetectable levels of serum Ig
A)X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B)X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome
C)X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome
D)Bare lymphocyte syndrome
E)Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
F)Leukocyte adhesion deficiency-1 (LAD-1)
G)Leukocyte adhesion deficiency-2 (LAD-2)
Q2) Late gene product; encodes reverse transcriptase, integrase, protease
A)env
B)gag
C)nef
D)pol
E)rev
F)tat
G)vif
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Q1) Expressed on osteoclasts, this receptor is important in remodeling bone.
A)TNF-RI
B)CD40
C)Fas ligand
D)RANK
E)Lymphotoxin
Q2) Stimulates expression of class II MHC on various cell types
A)Interferon-g
B)Interleukin (IL)-4
C)IL-5
D)Transforming growth factor-b
E)Lymphotoxin
Q3) Binds to interleukin-8
A)CXCL8 (IL-8)
B)CXCL10 (IP-10)
C)CCL19 (ELC)
D)CCL11 (Eotaxin)
E)CCR5
F)CXCR1
G)CX3CL1 (Fractalkine)
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Hypersensitivity and Autoimmunity
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Q1) Which of the following statements about immune complex-mediated diseases is NOT true?
A) Immune complexes may contain antibodies bound to either self or foreign antigens.
B) Immune complex-mediated diseases generally show systemic manifestations.
C) Pathologic features of immune complex diseases are determined by the cellular source of the antigen.
D) Small complexes are deposited in vessels more than large complexes, which are usually efficiently phagocytosed.
E) Complexes containing cationic antigens are more likely to produce severe, long-lasting injury by depositing in blood vessels and renal glomeruli.
Q2) Which type of hypersensitivity disease is caused by deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in blood vessel walls?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) Type V
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Q1) Antibodies and T lymphocytes are the respective mediators of which two types of immunity?
A) Innate and adaptive
B) Passive and active
C) Specific and nonspecific
D) Humoral and cell-mediated
E) Adult and neonatal
Q2) Which of the following is a unique property of the adaptive immune system?
A) Highly diverse repertoire of specificities for antigens
B) Self-nonself discrimination
C) Recognition of microbial structures by both cell-associated and soluble receptors
D) Protection against viral infections
E) Responses that have the same kinetics and magnitude on repeated exposure to the same microbe
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Q1) Inbred mouse strain MHC haplotype
A)HLA- 1
, -B7, -Cw4, -DPw5, -DQw10, -DR8
B)H-2
C)HLA-DQ7
D)I-Ad
E)HLA-B5
F)H-2KdI-AdI-EdDdLd
Q2) Mouse class II MHC allele
A)HLA- 1
, -B7, -Cw4, -DPw5, -DQw10, -DR8
B)H-2
C)HLA-DQ7
D)I-Ad
E)HLA-B5
F)H-2KdI-AdI-EdDdLd
Q3) Peptide-binding groove
Q4) Polymorphic region
Q5) 2-Microglobulin
Q6) CD8-binding site

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Q1) This complement fragment is a chemoattractant for neutrophils.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
Q2) Produced by C3 convertases, this opsonin promotes phagocytosis of microbes.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
Q3) Generated by factor I-mediated proteolysis, this complement fragment binds to complement receptor 2 (CR2) on B cells and enhances B cell activation.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
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Q1) Lipoxygenase-pathway product of arachidonic acid metabolism that causes prolonged bronchoconstriction, mucus secretion, and increased vascular permeability
A)Histamine
B)Tryptase
C)Prostaglandin D<sub>2</sub>
D)Leukotriene C<sub>4</sub>
E)Platelet-activating factor
F)Interleukin-5
G)Tumor necrosis factor-a
Q2) Protein constituent of granules that contributes to tissue damage in immediate hypersensitivity reactions
A)Histamine
B)Tryptase
C)Prostaglandin D<sub>2</sub>
D)Leukotriene C<sub>4</sub>
E)Platelet-activating factor
F)Interleukin-5
G)Tumor necrosis factor-a
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Q1) Location of most T lymphocytes in the spleen
A)Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
B)Thymic medulla
C)Thymic cortex
D)Parafollicular cortex of lymph node
E)Hematopoietic bone marrow
F)Afferent lymphatic
G)Efferent lymphatic
H)Marginal zone
I)Red pulp of spleen
J)White pulp of spleen
K)Epidermis
L)Dermis
M)Peyer's patch
Q2) Which of the following is the generative lymphoid organ for T lymphocytes?
A) Bone marrow
B) Spleen
C) Lymph node
D) Thymus
E) Tonsil
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Q1) Mechanism of central tolerance of B cells
A)Immature (IgM<sup>+</sup>IgD<sup>-</sup>)
B)Thymic cortex
C)Bone marrow
D)Antigen recognition without T cell help
E)Receptor editing
F)Activation-induced cell death
G)Regulatory T cell-mediated suppression
H)Antigen recognition with costimulation
I)Double positive (CD4<sup>+</sup>CD8<sup>+</sup>)
J)Anergy
K)Thymic medulla
Q2) Failure of self-tolerance is the cause of which one of the following types of diseases?
A) Allograft rejection
B) Autoimmunity
C) Atopy
D) Anergy
E) Acne
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Q1) Encodes the isotype of antibodies made by naive B cells
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a property of the V(D)J recombinase?
A) Recognizes specific DNA sequences flanking gene segments in the antigen receptor gene loci
B) Introduces double-stranded nicks in the DNA between recombination signal sequences and the adjacent V, D, or J coding sequences
C) Promotes joining V-to-J, D-to-J, and V-to-D
D) Repairs double-stranded DNA breaks
E) Splices out intronic sequences from primary RNA transcripts
Q3) A type of gene segment involved in somatic recombination events in Ig heavy chain and light chain as well as TCR a and b chain gene loci
Q4) Homologous segments of this type of gene segment that encode part of the third complementarity determining region (CDR3) of Ig heavy chains and TCR b chains but not Ig light chains or TCR a chains
Q5) A segment that encodes Ig-like domains that form part of the antigen-binding region of an Ig molecule
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Q1) Composed of antigens purified from microbes or inactivated toxins, such as the tetanus toxoid vaccine
A)Live attenuated or killed bacteria
B)Live attenuated oral virus
C)Synthetic viral subunit vaccines
D)Conjugate vaccines
E)Recombinant viral vectors
F)DNA vaccines
G)Purified subunit vaccines
Q2) Composed of a recombinant nonpathogenic virus carrying genes of a pathogenic virus, such as HIV
A)Live attenuated or killed bacteria
B)Live attenuated oral virus
C)Synthetic viral subunit vaccines
D)Conjugate vaccines
E)Recombinant viral vectors
F)DNA vaccines
G)Purified subunit vaccines
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Q1) Formed by a glycosyltransferase enzyme that adds a terminal galactose residue to the H antigen
A)A
B)B
C)O
D)RhD
E)Lewis
Q2) Blocks calcineurin-dependent activation of NFAT
A)Azathioprine
B)Cyclosporine
C)Mycophenolate mofetil
D)Rapamycin
E)Anti-CD40L antibody
F)Anti-IL-2R antibody
G)CTLA4-Ig
H)OKT3
I)Corticosteroids
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Q1) Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
A)Product of a cellular oncogene
B)Overexpressed unmutated cellular proteins
C)Product of unmutated genes normally silent in most tissues
D)Overexpressed surface glycolipid
E)Oncofetal antigen
F)Tissue differentiation antigen
G)Product of an oncogenic virus
Q2) E6 antigen
A)Product of a cellular oncogene
B)Overexpressed unmutated cellular proteins
C)Product of unmutated genes normally silent in most tissues
D)Overexpressed surface glycolipid
E)Oncofetal antigen
F)Tissue differentiation antigen
G)Product of an oncogenic virus
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