Immunology Exam Materials - 959 Verified Questions

Page 1


Immunology

Exam Materials

Course Introduction

Immunology is the study of the immune system, its structure, functions, and the critical role it plays in defending the body against disease-causing organisms. This course covers the mechanisms underlying immune responses, including innate and adaptive immunity, the development and differentiation of immune cells, and the molecular basis of antigen recognition. Students will explore the ways in which the immune system distinguishes self from non-self, the causes of immune system dysfunction leading to allergies, autoimmunity, and immunodeficiency, as well as modern immunological techniques used in research and clinical settings. The course provides a foundational understanding of how the immune system contributes both to health and disease.

Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Molecular Virology 2nd Edition by Nicholas H. Acheson

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Virology

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Sample Questions

Q1) The common cold can be caused by viruses from three different families, some of which have RNA genomes and some of which have DNA genomes.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Which of the following is a description of a plaque?

A) A viral particle as seen by electron microscopy.

B) A region of dead cells in a monolayer of infected cells.

C) A skin lesion caused by a virus infection in an animal.

D) A button of red blood cells seen in a hemagglutination assay.

E) A region of crystallized virus particles in an infected cell.

Answer: B

Q3) Which of the following is an enzyme that most RNA viruses encode in their genome?

A) DNA-dependent-RNA-polymerase

B) RNA-dependent-RNA-polymerase

C) DNA-dependent-DNA-polymerase

D) RNA-dependent-protein-synthetase

Answer: B

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3

Chapter 2: Virus Structure and Assembly

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Q1) It is possible to get high resolution images of enveloped virus particles using x-ray diffraction.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) The lipid membrane that surrounds the nucleocapsid of some virus particles is called the:

A) matrix

B) tegument

C) capsid

D) envelope

E) glycoprotein

Answer: D

Q3) The nucleocapsid describes the structure that includes the:

A) capsid and the genome

B) capsid and the envelope

C) envelope and the glycoproteins

D) helical capsid and an envelope

E) icosahedral capsid and an envelope

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Virus Classification: The World of Viruses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is the type of disease caused not the best criteria to use when classifying a virus?

Answer: The disease caused by a specific virus is not usually related to the evolutionary history of that virus.Viruses with very different types of genomes, virion structures, and replication pathways can cause the same type of disease.For example, there are at least 5 different viruses that cause a form of hepatitis in humans and these viruses are in 5 different families.Families, which are based on genome and virion structure, represent evolutionary relationships between viruses.

Q2) The name of a virus family in the Latin classification system has which of the following endings?

A) -viridae

B) -virales

C) -virinae

D) -virus

E) -virusdae

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Virus Entry

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Q1) Enveloped viral particles require activation energy in order to penetrate the host cell.Describe the two events that these viruses can use to provide this activation energy.

Q2) A soluble form of the CD4 protein was once investigated as a treatment for HIV infection.How would this protein work to block infection.

A) It would raise the pH of the endosome and prevent activation of the fusion protein.

B) It would bind to the cell membrane and prevent fusion of the HIV virion with the plasma membrane.

C) It would interact with the host cell receptor and prevent binding by the virion glycoproetin.

D) It would interact with the HIV envelope glycoprotein and block its interaction with the host cell receptor.

E) It would inhibit entry of the viral genome into the cell nucleus.

Q3) Describe what a fusion peptide is and how it is involved in mediating membrane fusion between the viral envelope and the cell membrane?

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Chapter 5: Single-Stranded RNA Bacteriophages

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Q1) The discovery of the ssRNA phages was useful to scientists working on which of the following processes:

A) Structure of ribosomal RNA

B) Translation of messenger RNA

C) Structure of proteins

D) Transcription of messenger RNA

E) Replication of DNA

Q2) The translation of the maturation protein from a newly synthesized positive strand genome in the phage MS2 depends on delayed folding of the RNA into its final secondary structure.

A)True

B)False

Q3) During the replication cycle of the ssRNA phage MS2, the lysis gene can not be translated in the absence of translation of the coat protein gene.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The RNA phages do not use a tail assembly to inject their genome through the cell wall of the host cell.How do they get their genome into the host cell?

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7

Chapter 6: Microviruses

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Q1) The bacteriophage X174 has several weak transcriptional terminators which leads to mRNAs with different 5' ends.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Why must the microviruses produce dsDNA before viral genes can be expressed?

A) Only dsDNA can be packaged into virions.

B) DsDNA is more stable than ssDNA.

C) Only dsDNA is a substrate for transcription by the host RNA polymerase.

D) Only dsDNA is a substrate for replication by the host DNA polymerase.

E) The viral regulatory proteins can only bind to double-stranded DNA.

Q3) Because gokushoviruses infect bacteria that can parasitize eukaryotic cells, they may have been the evolutionary source for eukaryotic viruses.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The genome of the X174 phage is very compact and contains several overlapping open reading frames.Explain how this can be both an evolutionary advantage and disadvantage for the phage.

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8

Chapter 7: Bacteriophage

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Q1) The bacteriophage T7 is dependent on the host cell DNA polymerase for replication of the viral DNA.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The removal of the RNA primer leaves a gap in the newly synthesized viral genomic DNA.How does the bacteriophage T7 solve this problem?

A) It produces concatemers of the viral genome.

B) It circularizes the viral genome.

C) It uses a special DNA polymerase to fill in the gaps.

D) It leaves the RNA as part of the packaged viral genome.

E) It uses a protein as a primer instead of RNA.

Q3) How are the genes in the genome of the bacteriophage T7 arranged in the genome?

A) By when they are expressed during the viral replication cycle.

B) By their function during the viral replication cycle.

C) By the amount of GC bases they contain.

D) By their size, shortest to longest.

E) Both a and b are correct.

Q4) The genome of the bacteriophage T7 has circularly permuted ends.

A)True

B)False

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Bacteriophage Lambda

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Q1) Explain the mechanisms by which treatment of a phage lysogen with UV light leads to the induction of the prophage and the production of virus particles.

Q2) Which of the following terms describes a bacterial cell that has a repressed copy of a bacteriophage genome integrated into its chromosome?

A) Lysogenic

B) Temperate

C) Prophage

D) Lytic

E) Lysogen

Q3) What is the function of the cos sites in the phage genome?

A) They function as the origin of DNA replication

B) They bind to the cI repressor

C) They bind to the N antiterminator

D) They circularize the genome

E) They are the sites of integration with the host chromosome

Q4) CRISPR elements are places in the bacterial chromosome where phage genomes integrate during lysogeny.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Viruses of Archaea

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Q1) Viruses that infect archaeal cells have been observed to have all of the following virion shapes EXCEPT:

A) Bottle shaped with a wide and a narrow end

B) Spherical

C) Brick shaped

D) Filamentous

E) Lemon-shaped

Q2) Most archaea viruses resemble bacteriophages with an icosahedral head and a helical tail.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is the function of the large pyramidal structures that are produced during infection with the archaeal virus SIRV-2, which is a member of the Rudivirus family?

A) They are sites of viral gene expression.

B) They lyse the host cell and release virions from the cell.

C) They are part of the virion assembly complex.

D) They are structures involved in viral DNA replication

E) They are involved in inhibiting host cell functions.

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Chapter 10: Cucumber Mosaic Virus

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Sample Questions

Q1) The 5'-terminal 200nts on the cucumber mosaic virus genome function as a promoter for the synthesis of the minus-strand RNA.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following statements about satellite RNAs found in cucumber mosaic virus infections is FALSE?

A) They require a cucumber mosaic virus for replication.

B) They are packaged into cucumber mosaic virus capsids.

C) They are small linear RNA molecules.

D) They encode several functional proteins.

E) They can increase the symptoms produced by cucumber mosaic virus.

Q3) Viruses that infect plants must contend with the thick cell wall, which is impedes movement of macromolecules between cells.Describe the mechanisms that cucumber mosaic virus uses to transverse this cell wall to both initiate an infection as well as spread through the plant.

Q4) Plant viruses, like cucumber mosaic virus, often package separate RNA genome segments into separate virions.What are the evolutionary advantages and disadvantages of this strategy? What ensures that the plants are infected with all of the necessary genome segments to begin an infection?

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Chapter 11: Picornaviruses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a member of the picornavirus family?

A) Common cold

B) Polio

C) Hepatitis A

D) Influenza

E) Foot-and-mouth disease

Q2) Why is it unlikely that there will ever be an effective vaccine against the rhinovirus, the major cause of the common cold?

A) The immune system is not very effective at attacking rhinoviruses.

B) There are over 100 different serotypes of rhinovirus.

C) The immune system does not protect the nose.

D) The common cold is too fast for the immune system to fight off.

E) Antibodies can not bind to the rhinovirus virion very well.

Q3) The 5' end of the poliovirus genomic RNA contains all of the following EXCEPT

A) A 5' cap

B) An unusually long noncoding region

C) A pyrimidine-rich tract

D) A high degree of RNA secondary structure

E) Multiple AUG start codons

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Chapter 12: Flaviviruses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following cellular proteases helps to process the polyprotein of flaviviruses?

A) Chymotrypsin

B) Trypsin

C) Furin

D) Cathepsin D

E) Papain

Q2) Which of the following diseases is caused by a member of the flavivirus family?

A) Yellow Fever

B) Dengue Fever

C) West Nile Encephalitis

D) Hepatitis C

E) All of the above.

Q3) A cloned DNA copy of the yellow fever virus can be used to produce infectious viral RNA.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Describe the final processing steps that the flavivirus virion goes through in order to be converted from an immature virion into a mature infectious virion.

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Chapter 13: Togaviruses

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Sample Questions

Q1) The P123 version of the polymerase protein from togaviruses can autocatalytically cleave itself into the individual nonstructural proteins.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following members of the Togavirus family caused an epidemic in the Indian Ocean region in 2005?

A) Ross River virus

B) Sindbis virus

C) Venezuelan encephalitis virus

D) Chikungunya virus

E) Rubella virus

Q3) How are the structural proteins in togaviruses expressed?

A) They are translated from the negative-sense strands after genome replication.

B) They are translated directly from incoming genomes.

C) They are translated from a subgenomic RNA.

D) They are only translated from newly synthesized full-length genomes.

E) None of the above are correct.

Q4) There are two proposed mechanisms for how togaviruses assemble their virions.Describe the two mechanisms and any available evidence that supports them.

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Chapter 14: Coronaviruses

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Q1) The subgenomic mRNAs in the coronaviruses are synthesized from subgenomic negative-strand templates.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Unlike the other positive-strand RNA viruses that have simpler genomes, coronaviruses produce a nested set of sub-genomic mRNAs, each of which is translated into a single protein.Explain why the virus needs to produce so many subgenomic mRNAs.

Q3) Which of the following coronavirus proteins is responsible for virus entry and is the primary determinant of host range?

A) Spike (S) protein

B) Envelope (E) protein

C) Membrane (M) protein

D) Hemagglutinin-Esterase (HE) protein

E) Nucleocapsid (N) protein

Q4) Describe the two alternative hypotheses for how a bat coronavirus evolved to infect humans and cause the SARS epidemic in 2003.Which one does the evidence appear to support?

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Chapter 15: Paramyxo-Viruses and Rhabdoviruses

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Q1) Which of the following statements about the leader sequence at the 3' end of the paramyxovirus genome, is FALSE?

A) It is translated into a short polypeptide.

B) It is transcribed into a short positive-strand RNA.

C) The transcript produced from the leader contains a packaging signal for the positive-strand antigenome.

D) It contains the binding site for the RNA polymerase to begin transcription.

E) The transcript produced from the leader lacks a 5' cap.

Q2) Which of the following statements about paramyxoviruses is FALSE?

A) The N protein can bind to a variable number of nucleotides in the genome.

B) The RNA-dependent RNA polymerase is a virion protein.

C) Every protein coded for in the genome is packaged into the virion

D) The N protein protects the genome from ribonuclease digestion.

E) Naked genome-length RNA is never found within the cell.

Q3) Rhabdoviruses can infect a wide variety of hosts including insects, plants and vertebrates.

A)True

B)False

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17

Chapter 16: Filovirouses

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Q1) There is a concern that filoviruses could be used as agents of germ warfare.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following viruses has NOT been associated with lethal human disease?

A) Marburg

B) Ebola Sudan

C) Ebola Zaire

D) Ebola Reston

E) None of the above.

Q3) All of these proteins are associated with the nucleocapsids of Ebola virus EXCEPT which of the following?

A) NP - nucleoprotein

B) VP40 - matrix protein

C) L - viral RNA polymerase

D) VP35 - polymerase cofactor

E) VP30 - transcription activator

Q4) Explain the system that has allowed scientists to produce infectious filoviruses using transfection of several plasmids into cells.

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Chapter 17: Bunyaviruses

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Q1) The S genome segment from bunyaviruses encodes which of the following proteins?

A) The RNA polymerase protein.

B) The envelope glycoproteins.

C) The nucleocapsid protein.

D) Both the nucleocapsid protein AND the non-structural protein.

E) Either b or d can be correct, depending on the virus.

Q2) Which of the following is a type of human illness NOT caused by a member of the bunyavirus family?

A) fever

B) encephalitis

C) hemorrhagic fever

D) fatal respiratory syndrome

E) arthritis

Q3) Which of the following describes a similarity between bunyaviruses and flaviviruses?

A) They both have positive-strand RNA virus genomes.

B) They both have negative-strand RNB virus genomes.

C) They both have members that are transmitted by insects.

D) The both have members that only replicate in insects.

E) The both similar virion structures.

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Influenza Viruses

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Q1) While often confused with milder upper-respiratory infections caused by rhinoviruses and coronaviruses, the symptoms of influenza infection are more severe.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Many of the symptoms caused by infection with the influenza virus, including fever, headache and malaise, are actually the result of which of the following?

A) Factors produced by the virus during infection.

B) Direct damage to the cells of the lung.

C) Infection of the liver.

D) Loss of ciliated epithelium.

E) The effect of cytokines induced by the virus.

Q3) Genome segments 7 and 8 from influenza virus can produce two different proteins using which of the following mechanisms?

A) Ambisense coding.

B) RNA editing.

C) Readthrough of a stop codon.

D) Alternative mRNA splicing.

E) Use of alternative start codons.

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Chapter 19: Reoviruses

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Q1) Infectious subvirion particles are intermediates in the assembly of reovirus virions.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a host cell protein that can be used as a receptor by a reovirus?

A) Cathepsin

B) Sialic Acid

C) JAM-A

D) Integrin

E) None of the above.

Q3) All of the following are enzymatic activities found within the virion core of reoviruses EXCEPT .

A) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity.

B) RNA helicase activity

C) Phosphatase to remove 5' end of mRNAs

D) Methyltransferase.

E) Peptidyl transferase.

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Chapter 20: Parvoviruses

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Q1) Which of the following describes the structures found at the ends of the parvovirus genomes?

A) Self-complementary hairpin structures.

B) 5' cap structures and 3' poly(A) tails.

C) 5' triphosphate.

D) Covalently attached proteins.

E) The genome is circular so it has no ends.

Q2) When researchers first isolated the DNA genomes from the virions of the adeno-assocaited virus, a member of the dependovirus group of parvoviruses, they thought they were double-stranded.Explain why and how they were able to determine the correct genome structure.

Q3) Which of the following describes the type of nucleic acid used in the genomes of parvoviruses?

A) Single-stranded DNA.

B) Double-stranded DNA.

C) Positive-sense single-stranded RNA.

D) Negative-sense single-stranded RNA.

E) Double-stranded RNA.

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Chapter 21: Polyomaviruses

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Q1) Under which of the following conditions do polyomaviruses cause tumors in their hosts?

A) Injection of high titers in young animals.

B) Injection of high titers in older animals.

C) Exposure to the virus via an aerosol.

D) Exposure to particularly tumorigenic strains of the virus.

Q2) If the histone proteins are removed from genome of SV40, which of the following will happen?

A) The DNA becomes supercoiled.

B) The DNA becomes nicked.

C) The DNA assumes a relaxed circle form.

D) The DNA becomes denatured.

E) Nothing happens to the DNA.

Q3) The small T antigen of SV40 regulates the cell cycle of the host cell by DIRECTLY doing which of the following?

A) Turning on transcription of cyclin D1.

B) Turning on the activity of the MAP kinase.

C) Inhibiting the activity of the PP2A phosphatase.

D) Phosphorylating the transcription factor AP1.

E) Inactivating the p53 protein.

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Chapter 22: Papillomaviruses

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Q1) Very few cases of cervical cancer are caused by infection with papillomavirus.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The E7 proteins from the oncogenic strains of papillomaviruses bind to pRb more tightly than the E7 proteins from nononcogenic strains of the virus.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The cultured human cell line HeLa expresses the E6 and E7 proteins of human papillomavirus.What would happen to these cells if the expression of these proteins was shut off?

A) They would continue to grow at their usual pace

B) They would continue to grow, just more slowly.

C) They enter the G phase of the cell cycle.

D) They go into apoptosis and die.

E) They become even more tumorigenic.

Q4) In papillomaviruses, plasmid replication produces a large number of viral genomes which will be packaged into new virions.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 23: Adenoviruses

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Q1) When rodent cells are infected with adenovirus, they produce virions and are killed by the virus.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The tripartite leader found on all of the transcripts produced from the major late gene of adenovirus carries out which of the following functions?

A) It makes the mRNA more stable.

B) It binds to the eIF4F translation factor.

C) It shunts the ribosome to the correct AUG on the mRNA.

D) It assists with transport of the mRNA out of the nucleus.

E) It improves the efficiency of mRNA splicing.

Q3) Because adenovirus produces all of the enzymes it needs for DNA replication, it is not dependent on the host cell entering the S phase of the cell cycle.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Adenovirus has a linear double-stranded DNA genome.Describe how adenovirus DNA is replicated so that the "end problem" is solved.

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Chapter 24: Herpesviruses

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Q1) The symptoms of mononucleosis, which include an enlarged spleen and fatigue, are caused by the expansion of infected B lymphocytes soon after primary infection.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Epstein-Barr virus particles produced in B lymphocyes will infect other B lymphocytes with a higher efficiency than they will infect epithelial cells.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The ICP27 protein from herpes simplex inhibits cellular gene expression by inhibiting mRNA splicing.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The EBER RNAs encoded by the Epstein-Barr virus are synthesizes by RNA polymerase III.

A)True B)False

Q5) Explain the three models proposed for how newly assembled herpesvirus nucleocapsids exit the nucleus and acquire the tegument and envelope/

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Chapter 25: Baculoviruses

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Q1) Polyhedrin proteins from different baculoviruses have unique and different amino acid sequences.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The homologous repeat sequencs (hrs)found in the genome of baculoviruses are involved in which of the following viral events?

A) Processing of mRNAs

B) Translation of mRNAs

C) Enhancement of transcription.

D) Initiation of DNA replication.

E) Both transcription and replication.

Q3) Which of the following describes the size and structure of the dsDNA genome of AcMNPV, a member of the baculovirus family?

A) Covalently closed circle of about 50kbp.

B) Covalently closed circle of about 150kbp.

C) Linear molecule of about 50kbp.

D) Linear molecule of about 150kbp.

E) Three linear segments of about 50kbp each.

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Chapter 26: Poxviruses

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Q1) Describe the unique structure of the genome of poxviruses and how this genome is replicated to solve the problem with replicating the ends of linear DNA.

Q2) Smallpox was eliminated from the human population through the use of antiviral drugs.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Because poxviruses replicate exclusively in the cytoplasm of the host cell, they must encode which of the following enzymes?

A) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

B) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.

C) mRNA processing enzymes.

D) Enzymes to produce deoxoynucleotides.

E) All of the above are encoded.

Q4) Describe the observations that Edward Jenner made and the experiment that he carried out to show that the "cowpox" virus could protect people from smallpox.

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Chapter 27: Viruses of Algae and Mimivirus

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Q1) Chloroviruses, like PBCV-1, encode enzymes which can produce hyaluronan and chitin, two different saccharide polymers.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following mechanisms is thought to have caused the mimivirus genome to become so large?

A) Insertion of the genome of another virus into the mimivirus genome.

B) The insertion of a large transposon into the genome.

C) Acquisition of new genes from the genome of its host.

D) Acquisition of large segments of non-coding DNA.

E) Self-duplication of regions of the genome.

Q3) While mimiviruses encode more of the components of the protein synthesis machinery than other viruses, they still do not produce which of the following?

A) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases.

B) Ribosomes

C) tRNA methyltransferases

D) tRNAs

E) Translation initiation factors

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29

Chapter 28: Retroviruses

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Q1) Which of the following determines the level of viral mRNAs produced from the integrated provirus in retrovirus infected cells?

A) The level of mRNA splicing and polyadenylation that occurs.

B) The amount of reverse transcriptase packaged into the virion.

C) The site in the host cell genome where the provirus integrates.

D) Binding of specific transcription factors to the U5 region.

E) Binding of specific transcription factors to the U3 region.

Q2) Retroviruses use which of the following cellular molecules as the primer for genome replication?

A) The TATA-box binding protein.

B) The 5S ribosomal RNA.

C) A specific transfer RNA.

D) A spliceosome snRNA.

E) A specific spliceosome protein.

Q3) The envelope protein is translated from the unspliced mRNAs produced during retrovirus infections.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 29: Human Immunodeficiency

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following cell types facilitates the initial infection with HIV and helps to transmit the virus across mucosal membranes?

A) Dendritic cells

B) CD4-positive T lymphocytes

C) CD8-positive T lymphocytes

D) B lymphocytes

E) Monocytes

Q2) Monkeys infected with a mutant of SIV that lacks the Nef coding sequence have reduced virus titers and less severe disease.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The loss of CD4 positive T cells as a result of infection with HIV eventually causes which of the following to happen in an HIV infected person?

A) Loss of immune competency and an increase in other infections.

B) An increase in the number of T cells leading to leukemia.

C) An over activation of the immune system and autoimmune diseases.

D) An increase in the production of cytokines, leading to a "cytokine storm".

E) B cell lymphomas as a direct result of infection of B cells with HIV.

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Chapter 30: Hepadnaviruses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Like retroviruses, hepatitis B virus (HBV)uses a reverse transcription step.Which of the following distinguishes HBV from the retroviruses?

A) HBV has an enveloped virion.

B) HBV packages a DNA genome in the virion.

C) HBV packages reverse transcriptase enzyme in the virion.

D) HBV fuses its envelope with the cellular plasma membrane.

E) All of the above distinguish HBV from retroviruses.

Q2) The hepatitis B genome as it is found inside the virion has an unusual structure.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the virion genome?

A) It has a gap of single-stranded DNA.

B) It has an inverted repeat at each end of the genome.

C) It has a piece of RNA attached to the 3' end of the genome.

D) The plus strand is shorter than the minus strand.

E) It has a protein covalently attached to the 5' end of the genome.

Q3) The X protein from hepatitis B virus is thought to activate gene transcription because it is found in the nucleus of infected cells.

A)True

B)False

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32

Chapter 31: Viroids and Hepatitis Delta Virus

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Q1) Coinfection with both hepatitis B and delta virus together makes the resulting liver disease less severe.

A)True

B)False

Q2) When studying the replication of viroids and hepatitis delta virus, which of the following allows scientists to distinguish which of the three cellular RNA polymerases is required?

A) The sub-cellular location of each RNA polymerase.

B) Whether the polymerase requires an RNA primer or not.

C) Whether the polymerase can synthesize mRNAs or not.

D) Whether the polymerase will use an RNA molecule as a template.

E) The sensitivity of the RNA polymerase to the toxin a-amanitin.

Q3) The formation of the antigenome template of hepatitis delta virus requires which of the following cellular enzymes?

A) DNA polymerase

B) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

C) RNA polymerase I

D) RNA polymerase II

E) RNA polymerase III

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Page 33

Chapter 32: Prions

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Q1) Describe how the prion hypothesis explains how there can be both an acquired and a genetic form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.

Q2) The prion hypothesis has been deemed too controversial to be eligible for a Nobel Prize.

A)True

B)False

Q3) When it was discovered, what was surprising about the gene that codes for the prion infectious agent?

A) It is easily transmitted as naked nucleic acid.

B) It is coded for by RNA not DNA.

C) It is found in the genome of the host.

D) It has a high degree of secondary structure.

E) There is no gene that codes for the prion protein.

Q4) Mice that lack the gene encoding the normal prion protein have severe neurological defects.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Explain the observations that link new variant CJD with BSE.

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Chapter 33: Intrinsic Cellular Defenses Against Virus

Infection

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a type of antiviral cytokine?

A) Interferon (alpha)

B) Interferon (delta)

C) Interleukin-6

D) Tumor necrosis factor (alpha)

E) NF-\( \kappa \)B

Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of viral gene product used to avoid the antiviral effects of the PKR enzymes?

A) Adenovirus VA I RNAs

B) Vaccinia SK-1 protein

C) Reovirus 3 capsid protein

D) HIV tat transactivator

E) These are all examples of anti-PKR proteins.

Q3) Toll-like receptors (TLRs)2 and 4 are found on the surface of host cells while TLR 3 and 9 are found on the endosomal membranes.

A)True

B)False

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Page 35

Chapter 34: Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses to Virus Infection

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Q1) Which of the following is the receptor that differentiates a cytotoxic T lymphocyte from a helper T lymphocyte?

A) CD8 receptor

B) CD4 receptor

C) MHC class I

D) T cell receptor

E) B cell receptor

Q2) What happens when the T cell receptor on a CD8 positive T cell recognizes the peptide displayed in the MHC-I complex on an infected cell?

A) It attracts natural killer cells, which kill the infected cell.

B) It releases interferon g which stimulates macrophages to engulf the cell.

C) It releases IL-4 to stimulate the B cells to release antibodies.

D) It releases proteins that kill the infected cell.

E) It releases IL-12 which stimulates the production of Th1 cells.

Q3) The complement system is only effective at attacking bacterial infections but has no role in fighting off viral infections.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 35: Antiviral Vaccines

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Sample Questions

Q1) The current vaccines that are marketed for human papillomavirus and hepatitis B are examples of what type of vaccine?

A) Subunit vaccine

B) Chimeric virus

C) Whole inactivated vaccine

D) Live attenuated vaccine

E) Multivalent peptide vaccine

Q2) One advantage of a live virus vaccine, attenuated or wild-type, is that .

A) there is no possibility of it reverting to a pathogenic virus.

B) it only infects the person to whom it was administered.

C) it is easy to produce and store.

D) it can be amplified due to viral replication in the patient.

E) All of the above are advantages.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a currently available vaccine type?

A) Chimeric virus

B) Plasmid DNA

C) Virus-like particles

D) Subunit vaccine

E) Whole inactivated virus

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Chapter 36: Antiviral Chemotherapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Many antiviral drugs, like AZT and acyclovir, belong to which of the following groups of compounds?

A) Nucleotide analogues

B) Nucleoside analogues

C) Nonnucleoside inhibitors

D) Neuraminidase inhibitors

E) Protease inhibitors

Q2) Which of the following viral enzymes encoded by cytomegalovirus is responsible for phosphorylating and activating the antiviral drug ganciclovir?

A) Guanine kinase

B) Cellular nucleotide kinase.

C) UL97, a serine-threonine protein kinase

D) Thymidine kinase

E) Thymidylate kinase

Q3) Like other antiviral drugs that inhibit the HIV1 reverse transcriptase, nevirapine is a nucleoside analogue.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 37: Eukaryotic Virus Vectors

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Sample Questions

Q1) Retrovirus vectors have been used to treat children who have the genetic disease severe combined immunodeficiency, which results from a mutated T cell receptor gene.What is the advantage of using a retrovirus vector over an adenovirus vector in this situation? Some of the children got T leukemia years after their treatment.How did the treatment cause their cancer?

Q2) Which of the following can be used to express a second transgene from a single mRNA?

A) Downstream AUG.

B) IRES

C) Alternative mRNA splicing signals.

D) RNA editing sequences

E) All of the above.

Q3) Zinc finger nucleases could be used to solve one major disadvantage of using retrovirus vectors in gene therapy treatments.Which of the following disadvantages could they solve?

A) The low levels of transgene expression.

B) The stimulation of the immune system by the virus vector.

C) The random integration into the host genome.

D) The ability to only insert small transgenes in the vector.

E) The toxicity of the viral proteins to the transduced cell.

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