Immunology and Biotechnology Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental principles of immunology, including the structure and function of the immune system, immune responses to pathogens, and mechanisms of immune regulation. Additionally, it examines the biotechnological applications of immunology, such as the development of vaccines, monoclonal antibodies, and diagnostic tools. Students will gain insight into current advances in immunotherapy, genetic engineering of immune cells, and techniques such as ELISA and flow cytometry, preparing them for further study or careers in biomedical science and biotechnology industries.
Recommended Textbook
Immunology for Pharmacy 1st Edition by Dennis Flaherty PhD
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26 Chapters
300 Verified Questions
300 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1356
Page 2
Chapter 1: Cells and Organs of the Immune System
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cell type contains granules that are specific for killing parasites?
A) PMNs
B) Eosinophils
C) Macrophages
D) Large granular lymphocytes
Answer: B
Q2) The __________________ serves as a filter to trap infections in the tissues.
A) Spleen
B) Thymus
C) Bone marrow
D) Lymph system
Answer: D
Q3) All T cells express which of the following CD markers?
A) CD3
B) CD4
C) CD8
D) CD16
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following acute phase reactants can reduce levels of nutritional iron available for bacterial uptake?
I. Haptoglobin
II. Ceruloplasmin
III. C-reactive protein (CRP)
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Answer: C
Q2) Binding of a pathogen to Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on phagocytes causes the release of cytokines that activate which type of adaptive immune cell?
A) Mast cell
B) Neutrophil
C) Macrophage
D) Cytotoxic T cell
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Immunogenicity and Antigenicity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Production of a neoantigen would result from:
A) Fungal infection
B) Genetic mutation
C) Presence of endotoxins
D) Processing of parasitic antigens
Answer: B
Q2) Genetic factors that influence immunogenicity include:
I- Decreased functional capacity of the immune system over time
II- Lack of a T cell clone with a TCR that reacts to the antigen
III- Defect in antigen processing and antigen presentation
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Antigen Presenting Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are HLA heterozygotes more resistant to disease than homozygotes?
A) They have more single nucleotide polymorphisms.
B) They have a more diverse range of minor HLA loci.
C) They have more diversity in the antibodies they produce.
D) They have a more varied repertoire of antigen-presenting HLA molecules.
Q2) A set of HLA antigens on the same chromosome is called a:
A) Gene
B) Hapten
C) Haplotype
D) Single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
Q3) CD1 molecules are similar in structure to:
I- HLA class I molecules
III- HLA class II molecules
III- HLA class III molecules
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Antigen Presenting Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _________________ is the vacuole in a B cell where an endocytosed antigen is located.
A) Iccosome
B) Endosome
C) Phagosome
D) Phagolysosome
Q2) The purpose of the invariant chain is to:
A) Aid in receptor-mediated endocytosis in B cells
B) Guide MHC class II molecules to the endosome
C) Release antigen to stimulate memory cell formation
D) Aid in movement of the early endosome to a late endosome
Q3) Primed dendritic cells are a potential treatment for:
I- HIV
II- Psoriasis
III- Cancer
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
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Chapter 6: Surface Interactions Between T Cells and Antigen-Presenting
Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) When individuals have a congenital defect in which they lack the CD40 ligand (CD40L) on activated T cells, the outcome of that defect is:
A) They are not able to make mature T or B cells
B) They are only able to make CD8 cells and no other types of T cells
C) They are only able to make IgM antibody and no other type of antibody
D) They are not able to any antibodies at all even though B and T cells are present
Q2) The interaction between CTLA-4 and B7 leads to:
A) Downregulation of T cell signaling
B) Stabilization of the TCR/APC interaction
C) B cell activation and generation of memory cells
D) Production of proteins that regulate the cellular response to interleukin-2 (IL-2)
Q3) In the function of the TCR, the purpose of the CD3 complex is to:
A) Bind antigen
B) Transduce signals
C) Anchor the TCR in the membrane
D) Stabilize the interaction between the TCR and the APC
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Intracellular Signaling and T Cell Activation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major defect in X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is:
A) Inability to produce IL-2
B) Lack of ZAP-70 protein kinase
C) Inability to produce B or T cells
D) Lack of g-chain in interleukin receptors
Q2) Cyclosporine A binding to cyclophilin blocks T cell activation by:
A) Inhibiting calcineurin and NFAT
B) Inhibiting RAP by binding to FKBP-12
C) Inhibiting IL-2 binding to the IL-2 receptor
D) Inhibiting calcineurin and protein kinase C (PKC)
Q3) The activation of inositol-1,4,5-triphosphate (IP ) signaling results in:
A) Activation of NF-kB signaling
B) Release of intracellular calcium
C) Phosphorylation of downstream targets
D) Formation of the immunological synapse
Q4) Which of the following is an example of autocrine signaling?
A) An NK cell responding to IL-12 produced by a macrophage.
B) A macrophage responding to TNF made by the same macrophage.
C) A T helper cell responding to IL-2 produced by a neighboring T cell.
D) A neutrophil responding to IL-1 produced by vascular endothelial cell.
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Chapter 8: B Cell Activation and Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a type I thymus-independent antigen?
A) Bacterial enzyme
B) Viral protein coat
C) Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
D) Pneumococcal capsular polysaccharide
Q2) X-linked agammaglobulinemia results from a defect in:
A) IL-7 gene
B) BTK gene
C) BLyS gene
D) CD22 gene
Q3) What is the function of the BCR co-receptor complex?
A) Stimulate isotype switching
B) Binding to antigen presenting cells (APCs)
C) Crosslinking of BCRs for signal amplification
D) Recruitment of adaptor proteins to carry signal to nucleus
Q4) Most long-lived plasma cells reside in the:
A) Spleen
B) Thymus
C) Lymph node
D) Bone marrow
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has bone pain, high calcium levels, high immunoglobulin levels, and Bence Jones proteins in their urine. The most likely diagnosis for this patient is:
A) Job syndrome
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
D) Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Q2) Which class of antibody causes the release of histamine-containing granules of basophils and mast cells?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM
Q3) The monomeric form of this antibody inserted into the B cell membrane serves as the B cell receptor (BCR):
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM
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11
Chapter 10: Antibody Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypervariable complementarity-determining regions (CDRs) are primarily coded for by which gene region or regions?
I- Joining (J)
II- Variable (V)
III- Diversity (D)
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q2) What is the purpose of the recognition signal sequences (RSSs) in rearrangement of genes?
A) The RSSs are the coding regions of the DNA.
B) The RSSs are the enzymes that facilitate recombination.
C) The RSSs are spacers that align genes on the same side of DNA.
D) The RSSs are the areas that determine the antigen-binding pocket.
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Chapter 11: Complement
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the alternative pathway, C3b can bind to which of the following?
I. To C3bBb
II. To factor B
III. The microbe cell surface
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q2) Which of the following are methods by which the C3 complement component can be cleaved?
I. Factor D
II. C3 convertase
III. Spontaneous cleavage
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
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Chapter 12: Phagocytosis and Intracellular Killing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with this disease are at greater risk for fungal infections than patients with other phagocytosis-related deficiencies:
A) Gaucher's disease
B) Myeloperoxidase deficiency
C) Chronic granulomatous disease
D) Complement receptor deficiency
Q2) Which is a key component in oxygen-independent phagocytic killing?
A) Lysozyme
B) Myeloperoxidase
C) Hypochlorous acid
D) Superoxide dismutase
Q3) What is the purpose of complement receptor binding to complement fragments during phagocytosis?
A) Reduces production of ATP
B) Causes production of catalase
C) Triggers production of superoxide
D) Facilitates internalization of pathogen
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14
Chapter 13: Antibodies and in Vivo Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bispecific antibodies can react with:
A) Two different antigens
B) Two of the same antigen
C) Antigen and T cell or NK cell
D) Four different antigens on the same cell
Q2) The main pathological target for autoantibodies found in patients with Kawasaki disease is:
A) Skin
B) Kidneys
C) Platelets
D) Vascular endothelial cells
Q3) A monoclonal antibody used as a drug has a name that ends in what suffix?
A) U
B) Ab
C) Mab
D) Imm
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15
Chapter 14: Antibodies and in Vitro Research and Diagnostic Assays
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Sample Questions
Q1) In flow cytometry, side scatter is a measure of:
A) Cell size
B) Protein content
C) Granularity of a cell
D) Expression of CD markers
Q2) To identify different surface markers on a population of cells, flow cytometry requires the use of:
A) Enzymes
B) Colorimetric dyes
C) Radioactive isotopes
D) Fluorescent antibodies
Q3) Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of HIV-positive after initial testing?
A) Flow cytometry
B) Western blotting
C) Immunochromatographic assay
D) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
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Chapter 15: Immediate Allergic Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral allergy syndrome is caused by:
A) Food allergies
B) Overproduction of eosinophils
C) Bacterial infection that stimulates IgE production
D) Cross reaction between shared antigens on food and pollen
Q2) Which of the following is a true allergic reaction?
I. Latex allergy
II. Cockroach allergy
III. Radiocontrast media allergy
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q3) What role does histamine play in allergic reactions?
A) Increases vascular permeability
B) Stimulates eosinophil production
C) Stimulates granule release from mast cells
D) Prevents activation of the coagulation cascade
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Autoimmunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes increased thirst in patients with untreated or uncontrolled diabetes?
A) Glucose in the kidney changes pH, which alters fluid balance.
B) Glucose in the kidney damages cells that control water movement.
C) Glucose in the kidney changes osmolarity, which increases water output.
D) Glucose in the kidney damages the glomerulus and too much water is filtered.
Q2) Epstein-Barr virus is associated with the etiology of which of the following autoimmune diseases?
I. Type 1 diabetes
II. Rheumatoid arthritis
III. Ankylosing spondylitis
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
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18
Chapter 17: Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main immune response in a case of chronic rejection of a transplanted organ is:
A) B cell activation
B) Both B and T cell activation
C) Allospecific T cell activation
D) Attack of organ by pre-existing antibodies
Q2) How is the T cell response during transplant rejection different from the response during an infection?
A) Few T cells are responding during rejection
B) No T cells respond during rejection, only B cells
C) The number of T cells responding is much higher during rejection
D) The same amount of cells respond, but the response is stronger during rejection
Q3) RD was involved in a car accident and had burns on his right forearm. Doctors removed skin from his leg and grafted it onto his arm. What type of transplant is this?
A) Isograft
B) Allograft
C) Autograft
D) Xenograft
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19
Chapter 18: Antigen Presentation for Cell-Mediated Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) As antigen is processed prior to loading onto MHC class I molecules, the antigens are degraded into smaller fragments by the:
A) Proteasome
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Phagolysosome
D) Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to generate a CD8 T cell response?
A) Tapeworm infection
B) Influenza virus infection
C) Fungal infection causing athlete's foot
D) Group A Streptococcus infection (Strep throat)
Q3) What is the purpose of b -microglobulin associated with MHC class I molecules?
A) Stabilization
B) Interacts with T cell
C) Anchors to membrane
D) Scaffolding molecule between TAP and MHC class I molecule
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20
Chapter 19: Delayed Type Hypersensitivity Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between granulomas found in coccidioidomycosis and TB?
A) There are no T cells present in coccidioidomycosis granulomas.
B) There are B cells present only in coccidioidomycosis granulomas.
C) There are no fibroblasts present in coccidioidomycosis granulomas.
D) There are lymphocytes present only in coccidioidomycosis granulomas.
Q2) The main organ target for Coccidioides immitis is:
A) Lung
B) Liver
C) Heart
D) Muscles
Q3) Which of the following is a virulence factor and drug target for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A) Capsule
B) NRAMP1
C) Ergosterol
D) Mycolic acid
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Chapter 20: Cytotoxic T Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a CTL with FasL interacts with a target cell possessing Fas, what happens to the target cell?
A) The target cell dies via apoptotic cell death.
B) Nothing; the target cell is healthy and remains intact.
C) The target cell goes into cell cycle arrest and repairs damage.
D) Nothing, but the interaction with the target cell causes death of the CTL.
Q2) Which of the following cells may contain perforin and granzymes?
I. Tumor cells
II. CD4 T cells
III. CD8 T cells
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q3) Patients have a high risk of losing all of their teeth due which disease?
A) Melanoma
B) Papillion-Lefèvre syndrome
C) Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome type 2
D) Familial erythrophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis type 2
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Chapter 21: Natural Killer Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the main surface molecule on NK cells that is involved in antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)?
A) CD3
B) CD16
C) CD56
D) CD94
Q2) NK cells produce which cytokine that activates macrophages?
A) IL-1
B) IL-13
C) TNF-a
D) Interferon-g
Q3) A host cell that has been infected with the influenza virus and has subsequently downregulated MHC class I molecules is most likely to be recognized by which cell type?
A) T cell
B) B cell
C) NK cell
D) Neutrophil
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Factors That Influence the Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the immune response to high doses of antigen?
A) T cells are inactivated.
B) B cells are inactivated.
C) NK cells are inactivated.
D) Macrophages are inactivated.
Q2) What is the outcome of matrilysin cleaving FasL from an activated T cell?
A) Soluble FasL is degraded and the activated T cell survives.
B) Soluble FasL binds to Fas and triggers the death of the activated T cell.
C) Soluble FasL binds to Fas and triggers the death of the regulatory T cell.
D) Soluble FasL is disseminated and causes widespread cell death in both immune cells and infected host cells.
Q3) Defects in Fas:FasL engagement and signaling may contribute to which disease?
A) Graves' disease
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Type II diabetes mellitus
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
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Chapter 23: Cytokines and Biological Modifiers
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mechanism of action of the sipuleucel-T prostate cancer vaccine?
A) Dendritic cells are incubated with a fusion protein containing prostate specific antigen (PSA) and GM-CSF.
B) A plasmid that codes for an antibody that expresses prostate specific antigen (PSA), and dendritic cells present PSA to T cells.
C) A single B cell clone that is tumor specific is grown in the lab and infused into the patient to produce large amounts of tumor specific antibody.
D) Patient tumor cells are exposed to a viral vector containing a gene for prostate specific antigen (PSA), and then the tumor cells are infused into the patient to stimulate an immune response.
Q2) What is one role that type I interferons play in the eradication of viral infections?
A) Inhibit viral uncoating
B) Inhibit viral protein synthesis
C) Block viral entry into host cells
D) Block release of viral progeny from host cells
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25
Chapter 24: Vaccines in Theory and Practice
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Q1) Which type of vaccine may revert to a virulent form of the organism?
A) Cholera vaccine
B) Pertussis vaccine
C) Salk polio vaccine
D) Influenza vaccine (subcutaneous version)
Q2) What is the difference between Freund's Incomplete Adjuvant (FIA) and Freund's Complete Adjuvant (FCA)?
A) FIA does not contain water.
B) FIA does not contain mineral oil.
C) FIA does not contain killed mycobacteria.
D) FIA does not contain mannide monooleate.
Q3) Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is an example of a(n):
A) Toxoid
B) Exotoxin
C) Endotoxin
D) Enterotoxin
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Chapter 25: Vaccine-Preventable Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following viruses may be retained for years in the nervous system and reactivated later with different disease symptoms?
A) Rubella
B) Varicella
C) Hepatitis A
D) Measles (rubeola)
Q2) Bordetella pertussis uses filamentous hemagglutinin for what purpose?
A) Inactivates synaptobrevin
B) Binds to gangliosides on nerves
C) Facilitates lysis of red blood cells
D) Attaches to cells in the respiratory tract
Q3) What role does hemagglutinin have in the influenza viral lifecycle?
A) Virulence factor that facilitates viral assembly in the host cell
B) Virulence factor responsible for viral binding to mammalian cells
C) Virulence factor that facilitates release of viral progeny from host cells
D) Virulence factor responsible for increasing replication of viral nucleic acids
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Chapter 26: Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
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Q1) The most important enzyme involved in transcription of HIV RNA into DNA is:
A) Integrase
B) RNA polymerase
C) Late phase protease
D) Reverse transcriptase
Q2) While the exact mechanism of CD4 T cell destruction in HIV infection is not completely known, what is the cause of the ultimate depletion of CD4 T cells?
A) Stem cell depletion
B) Virus damaged cells are phagocytosed
C) Drugs used to treat HIV deplete CD4 T cells
D) CD8 T cells and NK cells kill all infected cells
Q3) Proteins from _______________ genes combine with RNase to form the viral reverse transcriptase complex?
A) Tat and rev
B) Pol and vpr
C) Vpu and nef
D) Gag and env
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