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Immunohematology is the study of the genetic, serological, and molecular aspects of blood group systems and their clinical significance in transfusion medicine and transplantation. This course explores the principles and techniques for the identification of blood group antigens and antibodies, compatibility testing, and the management of transfusion reactions. Students will gain an understanding of antibody screening, crossmatching procedures, hemolytic disease of the newborn, and policies related to blood safety. Emphasis is placed on laboratory methods, quality assurance, and the interpretation of complex serological findings in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Basic and Applied Concepts of Immunohematology 2nd Edition by Kathy D. Blaney
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16 Chapters
393 Verified Questions
393 Flashcards
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Q1) Which of the following red cell antigens do proteolytic enzymes destroy?
A) Rh system antigens
B) Antigens Fy<sup>a</sup> and Fy<sup>b</sup> in the Duffy system
C) Antigens in the Kidd system
D) Lewis system antigens
Answer: B
Q2) What immunoglobulin class is capable of crossing the placenta?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG
Answer: D
Q3) What cells are also known as antigen-presenting cells?
A) Neutrophils
B) Macrophages
C) Lymphocytes
D) Platelets
Answer: B
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Q1) Select the method that uses a dextran-acrylamide matrix.
A) Solid-phase red cell adherence
B) Microplate
C) Gel technology
D) Tube techniques
Answer: C
Q2) Polyspecific antihuman globulin contains:
A) anti-IgG.
B) anti-C3b and anti-C3d.
C) anti-IgG, and anti-C3d.
D) anti-IgG, and anti-IgM.
Answer: C
Q3) Reagent used to determine the ABO antigenic composition of a patient's red cells
A)Panel cells
B)Screening cells
C)A<sub>1</sub> and B cells
D)ABO antisera
E)Rh antisera
F)Lectins
Answer: D
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Q1) Parents who are both phenotyped as group A cannot have a group O child.
A) True
B) False Answer: B
Q2) Having two or more alleles at a given gene locus
A)Haplotypes
B)Recessive
C)Amorphic genes
D)Codominant genes
E)Polymorphic Answer: E
Q3) The binding of two complementary pairs of DNA
A)Restriction fragment-length polymorphism
B)Polymerase chain reaction
C)Hybridization
D)Probe
E)Amplicon
Answer: C
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Q1) Approximately what is the percentage of individuals who demonstrate H in their saliva?
A) 15%
B) 50%
C) 80%
D) 98%
Q2) To distinguish between an A<sub>1</sub> and A<sub>2 </sub>blood type, which reagent is used?
A) Ulex europeaus lectin
B) Anti-A,B
C) Monoclonal anti-A
D) Dolichos biflorus lectin
Q3) Bombay
A)D-galactose
B)L-fucose
C)N-acetylgalactosamine
D)None of the above
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Q1) Most Rh system antibodies are of which immunoglobulin class?
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) IgE
Q2) The LW antigen expression is typically stronger on __________ cells.
A) D-positive red
B) D-negative red
C) Rh null
D) D-variant
Q3) An anti-E was identified in a patient who recently received a transfusion. What other Rh system antibody should be investigated?
A) Anti-G
B) Anti-f
C) Anti-D
D) Anti-c
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Q1) Red cells that phenotype as S-s- are also:
A) M-negative.
B) N-negative.
C) Tj<sup>a</sup>-negative.
D) U-negative.
Q2) System associated with glycophorin A and B
A)Cartwright
B)MNSs
C)Kidd
D)Bg
E)Xg<sup>a</sup>
F)Sd<sup>a</sup> antigen
G)Chido
H)Knops
I)Duffy
J)Vel
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Q1) Proteolytic enzymes should not be used to screen for antibodies because:
A) the reagent is too expensive for routine use.
B) clinically insignificant antibodies are enhanced.
C) red cells must be treated with enzymes first, which makes this technique impractical.
D) some antigens are destroyed by enzymes, which would cause the antibodies to be missed.
Q2) Which of the following situations can be found in a classic case of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A) Positive direct antiglobulin test
B) False-positive Fy<sup>a </sup>phenotyping
C) Crossmatch incompatibility at antihuman globulin
D) All of the above
Q3) Both screening cells 2+ at antihuman globulin phase, DAT positive, IgG 2+
A)Alloantibody, IgG
B)Alloantibody, IgM
C)Autoantibody, IgM
D)Autoantibody or transfusion reaction, IgG
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Q1) What are the two components of the major crossmatch?
A) Recipient red cells and donor serum
B) Donor red cells and recipient serum
C) Reverse ABO cells and recipient serum
D) Screening cells and donor serum
Q2) In which phase of reactivity would rouleaux typically be detected in the screen?
A) 4<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
B) 15<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C
C) 37<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C
D) Antihuman globulin
Q3) When group O blood is not available for transfusion, what is the next alternative?
A) Group A red blood cells
B) Group AB red blood cells
C) Washed group B red blood cells
D) None
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Q1) A 58-year-old woman revealed that she had experimented with intravenous drugs as a teenager. What would be the acceptable deferral period, if any, for this potential donor?
A) She is an acceptable donor because testing will pick up evidence of hepatitis.
B) She will need to be deferred for 12 months.
C) She is an acceptable donor if she has had the hepatitis B vaccine.
D) She is deferred.
Q2) Which type of autologous donation procedure is the most common for most types of surgery?
A) Preoperative hemodilution
B) Postoperative salvage
C) Intraoperative blood salvage
D) Preoperative donation
Q3) Which of the following is not a cause for temporary deferment of a whole blood donor?
A) Aspirin ingestion 12 hours previously
B) Hepatitis B immunoglobulin taken 4 weeks previously
C) Oral polio vaccine taken 1 week previously
D) Rubella injection 1 week previously
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Q1) Some donor centers have implemented the practice of diverting the first few milliliters of blood collected into a pouch attached to the collection bag. The purpose of this procedure is to:
A) reduce leukocyte contamination.
B) prepare pedipacks for neonates.
C) avoid bacterial contamination.
D) collect blood for viral testing.
Q2) The most sensitive test for HIV is:
A) enzyme-linked assays.
B) chemiluminescence.
C) Western blot.
D) nucleic acid.
Q3) What is the true statement regarding West Nile virus testing?
A) Testing for West Nile virus is required only in New York and California.
B) Testing for West Nile virus is necessary only in the warmer months of the year.
C) West Nile virus testing is performed using nucleic acid testing on all donor units.
D) West Nile virus testing is optional.
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Q1) Once the cryoprecipitate has been removed from fresh frozen plasma, the remaining plasma can be refrozen and stored at -18°<sup> </sup>C for 1 year from collection. This product is useful for which of the following conditions?
A) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
B) Hemophilia
C) Warfarin overdose
D) Volume replacement following surgery
Q2) Leukoreduced (AS-3)
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)10 years
E)28 days
F)24 hours
G)48 hours
H)72 hours
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Q1) Posttransfusion purpura is caused by:
A) red cell antibodies.
B) white cell antibodies.
C) platelet antibodies.
D) bacterial contamination.
Q2) Delayed hemolytic
A)Prevented by leukoreduced components
B)Prevented by irradiation of components
C)Symptoms include hives and itching
D)Associated with ABO incompatibilities
E)Caused by donor white cell antibodies
F)Alloantibodies to red cell antigens
G)Can be prevented by transfusion slowly
Q3) Which of the following is necessary to prevent an anaphylactic reaction due to a known IgA antibody in a patient?
A) All red blood cell units should be irradiated.
B) Red blood cell units should be washed.
C) All blood components should be leukoreduced.
D) Patient should be given antihistamine before transfusion.
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Q1) Which of the following is true regarding the rosette test?
A) It is a staining procedure that differentiates fetal and adult cells.
B) The test is valid only if the mother is D-negative and the infant is D-positive.
C) Indicator cells bind to the D-positive maternal cells forming a rosette.
D) The test is a quantitative test to determine how many vials of Rh immune globulin to administer.
Q2) An acid elution stain was made using a 1-hour postdelivery maternal blood sample. Results: 10 fetal cells/1000 cells counted
It is the policy to add 1 vial of Rh immune globulin to the calculated dose when the estimated volume of the hemorrhage exceeds 20 mL of whole blood. Calculate the number of vials of Rh immune globulin that would be indicated under these circumstances.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
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Q1) Intravascular volume expansion
A)Cryoprecipitated AHF
B)Fresh frozen plasma
C)Red blood cells
D)Platelets
E)Leukoreduced blood components
F)Washed red blood cells
G)Albumin/plasma protein fraction
H)Factor concentrates
I)Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced
J)Irradiated blood products
Q2) Which of the following contributes to the high blood use in a liver transplant surgery?
A) The liver is a very large organ.
B) It is difficult to find close human leukocyte antigen matches for liver transplants.
C) Platelets are stored in the liver.
D) The liver produces the vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors.
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Q1) Employee training takes place:
A) after hiring and following implementation of new procedures.
B) following competency assessment.
C) only for new inexperienced employees.
D) as procedures are validated.
Q2) Competency assessment
A)The CAP survey is an example
B)Systematic evaluations to determine whether procedures are being followed
C)Testing to determine the accuracy and precision of reagents and equipment
D)Process of standardizing an instrument against a known value
E)Removal of products from the market that might compromise the safety of the recipient
F)Degree to which a measurement represents the true value
G)Establishing that a specific process produces an expected result
H)Evaluation of an employee's ability to perform a specific skill
I)Investigation and identification of the factors that contributed to an error
J)Maximizes the duration of equipment and increases the reliability of the equipment
K)System to plan and implement changes to prevent problems
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Q1) CAP
A)Ensures safe and healthful working conditions
B)Government agency that determines whether a health facility meets standards for reimbursement for Medicare
C)Assessment of medical wastes
D)Ensures the safety and efficacy of biologics, drugs, and devices
E)Voluntary accrediting agency for hospitals
F)Writes fire safety standards
G)Provides peer-reviewed accreditation for hospital laboratories
H)Professional organization that accredits blood banks and transfusion services
I)Makes recommendations to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration regarding the prevention of disease transmission
J)Governs all transportation except by mail
Q2) Blood irradiators require all of the following safety procedures except:
A) proper training.
B) that the user have a degree in radiology.
C) equipment leak detection.
D) personal protective equipment.
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