Immunohematology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Immunohematology is the study of the immunologic and genetic aspects of blood, with a particular focus on the principles and techniques involved in blood typing, blood group systems, compatibility testing, and the identification of antibodies and antigens related to red blood cells. This course covers the foundations of transfusion medicine, emphasizing the safe selection, processing, and administration of blood products, as well as the management and prevention of transfusion reactions. Topics include immunologic mechanisms underlying blood group incompatibilities, hemolytic disease of the newborn, and autoimmune hemolytic anemias. Practical laboratory skills are developed in serological testing, crossmatching, and resolving complex transfusion problems, preparing students for careers in clinical laboratories and blood banks.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Hematology and Fundamentals of Hemostasis 5th Edition by Denise M. Harmening
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36 Chapters
1596 Verified Questions
1596 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Morphology of Human Blood and Marrow Cells:
Hematopoiesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stage in granulocyte maturation where the nucleus appears kidney shaped is evident in what cell?
A) Promyelocyte
B) Band neutrophil
C) Metamyelocyte
D) Myelocyte
E) None of the above
Answer: C
Q2) Reactive lymphocytes are present in the evaluation of certain diseases such as:
A) Infectious mononucleosis
B) Cancer
C) Bacterial infections
D) Tumors
E) Anemias
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bone Marrow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under appropriate stimulation the mature lymphocytes of the peripheral lymphoid organs undergo
A) Antigen-dependent effect on cell proliferation
B) Kinin or antibody production
C) Antibody production only
D) A and B
E) All of the above
Answer: C
Q2) What is the main function of the bone marrow?
A) To provide oxygenated cells to the tissues
B) Self-renewal of stromal cells
C) To maintain a steady supply of mature hematopoietic cells to circulation
D) To regulate iron storage and transfer
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: The Red Blood Cell: Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of hemoglobin is (are) found in adult RBCs?
A) 95-97% HbA
B) 2-3% HbA<sub>2</sub>
C) 2% or less HbF
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Q2) A shift to the right of the hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve can occur as a result of _____________________.
A) Hypoxia
B) Alkalosis
C) Increase quantity of methemoglobin
D) Increase quantity of hemoglobin F
E) None of the above
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Anemia: Diagnosis and Clinical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calculate the MCV, given the following parameters: hematocrit = 36%, RBC count = 4.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>12</sup>/L
A) 70 fL
B) 80 fL
C) 85 fL
D) 90 fL
E) None of the above
Q2) Heinz bodies may be seen in what hematologic disease?
A) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
B) Alpha thalassemia
C) Unstable hemoglobinopathies
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) A patient's hemoglobin is 12 g/dL. What would you expect the hematocrit to be?
A) 36%
B) 33%
C) 42%
D) 39%
E) None of the above
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Chapter 5: Evaluation of Red Blood Cell Morphology and
Introduction to Platelet and White Blood Cell Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the size of a normal platelet?
A) 6-7 \(\mu\)m
B) 4-6 \(\mu\)m
C) 7-8 \(\mu\)m
D) 2-4 \(\mu\)m
E) 0.5-1 \(\mu\)m
Q2) What is the average diameter of a mature erythrocyte?
A) 8-10 µm
B) 3-5 µm
C) 7-8 µm
D) 4-6 µm
E) None of the above
Q3) The grading of "slight" anisocytosis and poikilocytosis would indicate what percentage of RBCs would differ from normal red cells?
A) 5-10%
B) 25-50%
C) 50-75%
D) >75%
E) 10-25%
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Chapter 6: Iron Metabolism and Hypochromic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what percent of ingested iron is absorbed?
A) 1%
B) 5-10%
C) 25-50%
D) 90%
E) None of the above
Q2) How many milligrams of iron are needed to produce 1 mL of red blood cells (RBCs)?
A) 1 mg
B) 10 mg
C) 20 mg
D) 3 mg
E) 0.5 mg
Q3) Which of the following is stored in macrophages and can be visualized in bone marrow aspirates by staining with Prussian blue?
A) Hemosiderin
B) Transferrin
C) Hemopexin
D) Haptoglobin
E) None of the above
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Megaloblastic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reversed myeloid-erythroid ratio in the bone marrow of a person with megaloblastic anemia is defined as:
A) Myeloid hyperplasia
B) Erythroid hypoplasia
C) Erythroid hyperplasia
D) Hypocellularity
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the leading cause of anemia in an alcoholic?
A) Vitamin B<sub>12 </sub>deficiency
B) Iron deficiency
C) Folate deficiency
D) Uridine triphosphate deficiency
E) None of the above
Q3) What percentage of megaloblastic anemia is due to vitamin B<sub>12 </sub>or folic acid deficiency?
A) 50%
B) 90%
C) 40%
D) 60%
E) 20%
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Chapter 8: Aplastic Anemia Including Pure Red Cell Aplasia and
Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia and Paroxysmal
Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which immunophenotype is associated with a diagnosis of PNH?
A) CD10, 12, 14 positive
B) CD1, 2, 3, 5 positive
C) CD14, CD16, CD24, CD48 positive
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which laboratory findings are associated with chronic hemolysis of PNH?
A) Leukopenia
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Thrombocytosis
D) A and B
E) A and C
Q3) The defect in PNH affects which cell type?
A) Leukocytes
B) Platelets
C) Erythrocytes
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemias:
Intracorpuscular Defects: I Hereditary Defects of the Red
Cell Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the osmotic fragility test measure?
A) Surface-to-volume ratio of the RBC
B) Structural and metabolic integrity of RBC membrane
C) Amount of RBC membrane spectrin
D) RBC metabolic pathways
E) None of the above
Q2) The morphologic hallmark of HS hereditary spherocytosis on the peripheral blood smear is:
A) Polychromasia
B) Ovalocytes
C) Spherocytes
D) Poikilocytes
E) Sickle cells
Q3) Which of the following laboratory results is not characteristic of HPP?
A) Low MCV
B) Increase in osmotic fragility
C) Increase in autohemolysis test
D) RBC thermal instability at 45°C leading to fragmentation
E) Normal MCV
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Chapter 10: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: II
Hereditary Enzyme Deficiencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of Heinz bodies is related to which enzyme deficiency?
A) Gd A-
B) Gd Med
C) Pyruvate kinase
D) Two of the above
E) All of the above
Q2) Hemolysis induced by infection is a clinical feature commonly seen in which G6PD deficiency?
A) Gd A-
B) Gd Med
C) Both
D) Neither
Q3) Favism is a clinical feature that occasionally occurs in which G6PD deficiency?
A) Gd A-
B) Gd Med
C) Both
D) Neither
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: III
the Hemoglobinopathies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should patients be promptly treated with for acquired methemoglobinemia?
A) Intravenous methylene blue (a strong reducing substance)
B) Oxygen administration
C) Exchange transfusion
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following represents the only significant finding on the peripheral smear in hemoglobin C trait?
A) Targeting
B) Hemoglobin C crystals
C) Nucleated red cells
D) 4+ anisocytosis and poikilocytosis
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following hemoglobin(s) is/are present in hemoglobin SC disease?
A) HbS
B) HbA
C) HbC
D) A and C
E) All of the above
13
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Chapter 12: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects:
Thalassemia
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What hemoglobin structures make up hemoglobin A<sub>2</sub>?
A) Zeta 2 epsilon 2
B) Alpha 2 beta 2
C) Alpha 2 gamma 2
D) Alpha 2 delta 2
E) None of the above
Q2) Which clinical expression of thalassemia is associated with a healthy silent carrier showing no clinical symptoms and minimal to no hematologic abnormalities?
A) Thalassemia major
B) Thalassemia minor
C) Thalassemia intermedia
D) Bart's hydrops fetalis
E) None of the above
Q3) What is another name for thalassemia major?
A) Cooley's anemia
B) Fanconi's anemia
C) Alpha thalassemia
D) Schilling's syndrome
E) None of the above
14
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Anemias: Extracorpuscular Defects
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug mechanism that results in a positive DAT with IgG specificity and a reactive eluate that usually mimics anti-e specificity is:
A) Immune complex
B) Drug absorption
C) Membrane modification
D) Methyldopa-induced
E) Autoimmune
Q2) The peripheral blood smear of a patient with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia will show:
A) Marked polychromasia
B) Reticulocytosis
C) Spherocytosis
D) Red cell fragmentation
E) All of the above
Q3) Which IgG subclass cannot activate complement in immune hemolysis?
A) IgG1
B) IgG2
C) IgG3
D) IgG4
E) IgG1 and IgG2
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Chapter 14: Hypoproliferative Anemia: Anemia Associated With Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of anemia of inflammation?
A) Decreased red blood cell life span
B) Impaired iron metabolism
C) Decreased erythropoiesis levels
D) Suppression of erythropoiesis
E) All of the above
Q2) What are the typical hematologic findings associated with anemia from endocrine dysfunction?
A) Mild normocytic, normochromic anemia
B) Anemia, abnormal platelets, and coagulopathy
C) Target cells, macrocytes, and acanthocytes
D) Marked anisocytosis and poikilocytosis, and dysfunctional leukocytes
Q3) In the anemia of alcoholism, treatment of the underlying __________ disease is essential to the reversal of anemia.
A) Kidney
B) Liver
C) Thyroid
D) Renal
E) Lymph node
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Cell Biology, Disorders of Neutrophils, Infectious
Mononucleosis, and Reactive Lymphocytosis
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44 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is a frequent cause of acquired neutropenia in children younger than 6 years old.
A) Bacterial infection
B) Viral infection
C) Parasitic infection
D) Hypersensitivity reaction
E) None of the above
Q2) Which sequence reflects the correct order for phagocytosis?
A) Release of cytoplasmic granules; binding of particle; ingestion; fusion of phagolysosome
B) Ingestion; binding of particles; fusion of phagolysosome; release of cytoplasmic granules
C) Binding of particle; ingestion; fusion of phagolysosome; release of cytoplasmic granules
D) Fusion of phagolysosome; binding of particle; release of cytoplasmic granules; ingestion
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Leukemia and the Acute Leukemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which host factor(s) is/are associated with an increased risk of developing leukemia?
A) Chromosomal abnormalities
B) Immunodeficiency states
C) Chronic marrow dysfunction syndromes
D) Inherited predisposition
E) All of the above
Q2) Which type of ALL occurs primarily in adults?
A) L1
B) L2
C) L3
D) L4
E) None of the above
Q3) In immunologic surface marker studies, __________ are used to detect markers associated with cell lineage and maturation stage.
A) Enzymes
B) Antigens
C) Antibodies
D) Haptens
E) None of the above
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders I: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Philadelphia chromosome is present in __________ percent of patients with typical leukemia cells.
A) 90-95%
B) 40-50%
C) 40-60%
D) 30-40%
E) 65-75%
Q2) What is the etiology of chronic myelogenous leukemia?
A) Increased maturation in the granulocytic series
B) Neoplastic transformation of the hematopoietic pluripotent stem cell
C) Virus mediated
D) Suppression of myelopoiesis by cytokine
E) None of the above
Q3) The only curative treatment for CML is __________.
A) Steroids
B) Immunosuppressive drugs
C) Radiation therapy
D) Hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT)
E) Tyrosine kinase
19
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Vera, Essential Thrombocythemia, and
Idiopathic Myelofibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In secondary erythrocytosis, the underlying mechanism is release of __________ as part of a compensatory effect to minimize impending tissue hypoxia.
A) Erythropoietin
B) Thrombopoietin
C) Interleukin-1
D) Colony-stimulating factors
E) None of the above
Q2) Which clinical manifestations in polycythemia vera are consistent with those of other myeloproliferative syndromes?
A) Splenomegaly
B) Myeloid metaplasia
C) Myelofibrosis
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following morphologies are characteristic of dyserythropoiesis in MDS:
A) Basophilic stippling
B) Normochromic, normocytic red cells
C) Multinuclearity
D) A and C
E) A, B, and C
Q2) The myeloid-to-erythroid ratio in MDS:
A) Is increased
B) Is decreased
C) Represents normal hematopoiesis
D) Represents decreased erythropoiesis
E) None of the above
Q3) What characterizes the cytogenetic analysis of patients with MDS?
A) Translocations
B) Inversions
C) Deletions
D) Reciprocal translocations
E) All of the above
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21
Chapter 20: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia and Related
Lymphoproliferative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What age group does CLL primarily affect?
A) 4-20 years
B) 20-40 years
C) >50 years
D) 1-5 years
E) None of the above
Q2) The leukemia phase of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, mycosis fungoides, is called
A) Hunter's syndrome
B) Hairy cell leukemia
C) Sézary syndrome
D) Idiopathic myelofibrosis
E) None of the above
Q3) What is characteristic morphology for Sézary cells?
A) Dark-staining hyperchromatic nuclear chromatin with numerous folds
B) Light-staining hyperchromatic nuclear chromatin with numerous folds
C) Dark-staining hypochromatic nuclear chromatin with many clumps
D) Light-staining hypochromatic nuclear chromatin with numerous grooves
E) None of the above
Page 22
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Chapter 21: The Lymphomas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are morphological characteristics of the Reed-Sternberg cell?
A) Up to 45 µm in diameter
B) Multinucleated nucleus
C) Distinct halo around macronucleoli
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
Q2) Small lymphocytic lymphoma is characterized by all of the following except:
A) Indolent but incurable
B) Usually CD19+, CD5+, CD23+, CD10-
C) Growth centers
D) t(14;18)
E) Trisomy 12
Q3) Which name is given to the Reed-Sternberg variant cell seen in nodular sclerosing (NS) Hodgkin's lymphoma?
A) Lacunar cell
B) Mott cells
C) Warthin-Finkeldey cell
D) L and H cell
E) Monocytoid B cell
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Chapter 22: Multiple Myeloma and Related Plasma Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which test is the most useful predictor of tumor load and disease activity, and in predicting the prognosis of multiple myeloma patients?
A) Albumin
B) LDH
C) BUN
D) Calcium
E) Beta-2-microglobulin
Q2) The clone of cells produced in Waldenström's macroglobulinemia is an intermediate stage of development between the mature lymphocytes and the early plasma cells. These cells are commonly referred to as:
A) Plasmacytoid lymphocytes
B) Prolymphocytes
C) Reed-Sternberg cells
D) A and B
E) A and C
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Chapter 23: Lipid Lysosomal Storage Diseases and Histiocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of __________ may be seen with Niemann-Pick cells in the bone marrow of some adult patients.
A) Sea-blue histiocytes
B) Mast cells
C) Macrophages
D) Osteoclasts
E) None of the above
Q2) All of the following are morphological characteristics of the histiocytes found in Niemann-Pick disease except:
A) 20-90 µm in diameter
B) Inconspicuous nucleus
C) Light blue cytoplasm with Wright's stain
D) Myeloperoxidase positive
E) Sudan Black B positive
Q3) One factor that distinguishes true Gaucher cells from pseudo-Gaucher cells is:
A) Cell size
B) Morphological characteristic
C) -Glucocerebrosidase deficiency
D) Acid phosphatase level
E) None of the above
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Q1) The interrelationship of the coagulation, complement, and fibrinolytic systems is clinically demonstrated in what condition?
A) Thromboembolism
B) Hereditary thrombophilia
C) Hemophilia
D) DIC
E) Christmas disease
Q2) What is the end product of coagulation?
A) Thrombin
B) Fibrinogen
C) Prothrombin
D) Fibrin
E) None of the above
Q3) Platelet factor 4 (PF4) neutralizes which anticoagulant?
A) Protein C
B) Heparin
C) Warfarin
D) Coumarin
E) None of the above
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis: Quantitative and
Qualitative Platelet Disorders and Vascular Disorders
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Q1) Prolonged __________ is associated with the use of aspirin, which is generally dose dependent.
A) Thrombin time
B) Platelet Function Analyzer (PFA)
C) Prothrombin time
D) APTT
E) None of the above
Q2) What are the clinical manifestations of isoimmune-neonatal thrombocytopenia?
A) Scattered petechiae
B) Platelet count below 30 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) Purpuric hemorrhages
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Decreased platelet production may be associated with congenital or acquired disorders that affect the bone marrow, resulting in __________.
A) Megakaryocytic hypoplasia
B) Megakaryocytic hyperplasia
C) Myeloblast hypoplasia
D) Erythroid hypoplasia
E) None of the above
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Disorders of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ acts as the stabilizer of the fibrin gel.
A) Factor X
B) Factor XIII
C) Factor I
D) Factor VI
E) Factor VII
Q2) In variant vWD, identification is essential for proper treatment. This can be accomplished by:
A) Ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation studies
B) Multimeric analysis
C) Factor VIII:C, factor VIII:R Co, vWF:Ag
D) A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) Which rare inherited disorder results in a failure to synthesize adequate amounts of circulating fibrinogen?
A) Afibrinogenemia
B) Dysfibrinogenemia
C) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D) von Willebrand's disease
E) None of the above
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Chapter 27:
Interaction of
Fibrinolytic, Coagulation,
Kinin Systems; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation; and Related Pathology
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Q1) Venous occlusion and strenuous exercise release which of the following from the endothelium?
A) Activated protein C
B) Protein S
C) TPA
D) Thrombomodulin
E) All of the above
Q2) Which laboratory test differentiates decompensated DIC from compensated DIC?
A) PT
B) APTT
C) Fibrinogen
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following procedures or disease states is/are associated with mechanisms of primary fibrinolysis?
A) Urologic procedures
B) Metastatic prostatic carcinoma
C) Cirrhosis
D) Cardiopulmonary bypass surgery
E) All of the above Page 29
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Page 30
Chapter 28: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Q1) Which type of protein C deficiency is associated with normal antigenic levels of protein C but low functional activity of protein C?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) None of the above
Q2) The INR value for plasma depends on the international sensitivity index (ISI) of the __________ used.
A) Controls
B) Thromboplastin reagents
C) Calibrators
D) Thromboplastin reagent and instrument combination
E) Instruments
Q3) Thrombin binds to platelets at low concentration to initiate:
A) Shape change
B) Secretion
C) Aggregation
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Page 31
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Chapter 29: Quality Control in the Hematology Laboratory
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Q1) Which Westgard rule refers to two consecutive data points exceeding the ±2 SD limit?
A) 1<sub>2s</sub>
B) 1<sub>3s</sub>
C) 2<sub>2s</sub>
D) 4<sub>1s</sub>
Q2) Which Westgard rule refers to four consecutive control measurements exceeding the +1 SD or -1 SD limit on the same side of the graph?
A) 1<sub>2s</sub>
B) 1<sub>3s</sub>
C) 2<sub>2s</sub>
D) 4<sub>1s</sub>
Q3) Which quality approach requires performance to be measured against another world-class company?
A) Root cause analysis
B) Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
C) Benchmarking
D) Lean
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Chapter
30:
the Qualitative, Quantitative, and Morphologic Analysis of Serous, Cerebrospinal, and Synovial Fluids
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Q1) Neutrophils are not typically seen in which type of body fluid?
A) Pleural
B) Pericardial
C) Peritoneal
D) Synovial
E) Cerebrospinal
Q2) Why is paracentesis performed?
A) To check the function of the liver
B) To check the function of the heart
C) To check the function of the lungs
D) To rule out bacterial infection and malignancy of the abdominal cavity
Q3) Which type of crystal appears as small, bipyramidal or pleomorphic shapes?
A) Monosodium urate
B) Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate
C) Calcium oxalate
D) Basic calcium phosphate
E) Cholesterol
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Chapter 31: Hematology Methods
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114 Verified Questions
114 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing a slide-to-slide blood smear:
A) The spreader slide is held at a 30-degree angle
B) A small drop of blood is placed near the frosted end
C) A thin film of blood is made in the shape of a bullet with a feathered edge
D) Blood is allowed to air dry before staining
E) All of the above
Q2) Manual cell counts are frequently performed on patients with extreme cases of:
A) Thrombocytosis
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Leukocytosis
D) Leukopenia
E) All of the above
Q3) Red blood cells with an MCV of greater than 100 fL are said to be _______.
A) Microcytic
B) Macrocytic
C) Normocytic
D) Hypochromic
E) None of the above
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Chapter 32: Principles of Automated Differential Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The platelet distribution width (PDW) measures uniformity of platelet size and is equivalent to the __________ for red cells.
A) MCV
B) RDW
C) MCHC
D) MCH
E) None of the above
Q2) The Coulter S Plus IV automated differential generates three histograms representing __________ volume distributions.
A) White blood cell (WBC)
B) RBC
C) Platelet
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 33: Coagulation Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clot-based procedures in coagulation are mostly performed at what temperature?
A) 22°C ± 5°
B) 4°C ± 1°
C) 37°C ± 1°
D) 56°C ± 1°
E) None of the above
Q2) All of the following interfere with the functional protein S assay performed with mechanical clot detection except:
A) 2 IU/mL unfractionated heparin
B) Activated protein C resistance
C) Lipemia
D) Oral anticoagulants
E) None of the above
Q3) The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is a screening test to measure the __________ pathway of coagulation.
A) Intrinsic
B) Extrinsic
C) Common
D) A and C
E) All of the above
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Chapter 34: Applications of Flow Cytometry to Hematology and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______________ occurs when a chemical absorbs light, causing its electrons to be excited briefly to a higher, less-stable energy state.
A) Electronegativity
B) Light scatter
C) Fluorescence
D) Refraction
Q2) SSC is related to what characteristic of the blood cell?
A) Size of the cell
B) Immunophenotype of the cell
C) Nuclear size of the cell
D) Granularity of the cell
Q3) Malignant cells tend to have abnormal amounts of DNA. This is termed
A) Aneuploidy
B) Ploidy
C) Paresis
D) Karyorrhexis
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Page 37
Chapter 35: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques in Hematopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following specimen criteria is best for DNA analysis by the Southern blot method?
A) A tissue fixed in ethanol within 2 hours of collection
B) A tissue that is frozen within 48 hours of collection
C) A blood sample that is 5 days old
D) A tissue fixed in formaldehyde within 1 hour of collection
E) None of the above
Q2) Which structures serve as templates for RNA transcription and protein translation?
A) Lipids
B) Amino acids
C) Genes
D) Ribonucleotides
Q3) Intact DNA is usually well preserved in tissues that are frozen within what time after collection?
A) 1 hour
B) 6 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 24 hours
E) 48 hours
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Chapter 36: Special Stainscytochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) From what population is the control specimens obtained for LAP staining?
A) Patients with chronic myelogenous leukemia
B) Patients with liver disease
C) Patients in their third trimester of pregnancy
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the specimen of choice for the peroxidase staining procedure?
A) EDTA-anticoagulated blood
B) Fresh capillary blood
C) Oxalated blood
D) Sodium citrate anticoagulated blood
E) None of the above
Q3) __________ percent of patients with acute undifferentiated leukemia will have positive TdT activity.
A) 50
B) 30
C) 20
D) 5
E) None of the above
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