Imaging Science Fundamentals
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Imaging Science Fundamentals explores the core principles and techniques underlying the creation, processing, and interpretation of images across various scientific domains. The course introduces foundational topics such as the physics of image formation, signal and noise characteristics, image acquisition methods, and the mathematics of image representation. Students will learn about different types of imaging systems including optical, digital, and medical modalities and the algorithms used for image enhancement, analysis, and visualization. Practical examples and case studies are used to illustrate applications in areas such as medicine, remote sensing, and materials science, providing a comprehensive understanding of how imaging science impacts technology and research.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Radiologic and Imaging Sciences and Patient Care 6th Edition by
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Page 2
Arlene M. Adler
Chapter 1: Introduction to Imaging and Radiologic Sciences
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Sample Questions
Q1) Particular care must be taken when using radiation for medical imaging.This is the result of radiation's ability to create __________ in human tissue and possible biochemical changes.
A)ionizations
B)radio waves
C)sound waves
D)thermal changes
Answer: A
Q2) Throughout the history of medicine,remarkable achievements have been recorded.These events have led to our current understanding of the human organism and disease.As this research continues,much of it will most likely focus on
A)proper sanitation and public health.
B)immunology and the development of vaccines.
C)germ theory and infection.
D)human genes and genetic engineering.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Professional Organizations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process whereby an organization seeks recognition from its peer groups through demonstrated compliance with developed standards is termed A)licensure.
B)registration.
C)accreditation.
D)self-analysis.
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following are true of the American Healthcare Radiology Administrators (AHRA)organization EXCEPT it
A)certifies radiographers.
B)publishes the journal Radiology Management.
C)offers a certification examination for radiology administrators.
D)plays a key role with the manpower needs of the medical imaging profession.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Educational Survival Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a stress buffer is
A)taking antacids the day of a big examination.
B)cramming for an examination with friends the night before a test.
C)agreeing to work more hours a few days before a big test to ease your money problems.
D)exercising with friends for 45 minutes the day before a big test.
Answer: D
Q2) As you prepare to take a final examination for a course you have enjoyed,you discover that your laptop computer battery is very low,causing concern.You wanted to review your notes one last time before going into the examination.This event would be classified as a(n)
A)hassle.
B)uplift.
C)fight-or-flight event.
D)life-altering event.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Critical-Thinking and Problem-Solving Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following situations would require critical analysis thinking skills?
1)A patient asking for directions to the restroom
2)A physician asking you to call his office to speak to his nurse
3)Improvising the angulation of the x-ray tube to compensate for a patient condition
4)Your supervisor asking you to develop a new quality control plan
5)Repositioning a patient after assessing the patient's previous images
6)Providing a gown to a patient with instructions on putting it on correctly
7)Modifying exposure factors after reviewing the patient's history
A)2,3,5,6,and 7 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)3,4,5,and 7 only
D)1,2,and 6 only
Q2) When you write a lengthy essay on your feelings about radiation protection,you are analyzing your
A)values that are learned or instilled as a part of your affective education.
B)knowledge of allowable dose limits.
C)skills with patient restraint that were developed in the laboratory setting.
D)comprehension of the cardinal rules of radiation protection.
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Clinical Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of a radiologic technology program director EXCEPT
A)he or she must possess a master's degree.
B)he or she must be a full-time employee and dedicated to program operation.
C)the program director must be registered in radiologic technology by the Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology (JRCERT).
D)the program director should be competent in curricular design,evaluation and assessment,instruction,and academic advising.
Q2) As a radiography student,you will be expected to demonstrate clinical competency in various procedures as part of your clinical rotations.The required number of mandatory competencies is currently
A)37
B)48
C)72
D)98
Q3) A high-quality radiologic science program should provide
A)published policies and procedures that involve clinical sites.
B)a competency-based clinical experience.
C)access to current imaging technology.
D)all of the above.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Radiology Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The federal agency that regulates the use of ionizing radiation including medical and nuclear applications is the
A)Joint Commission (TJC).
B)Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC).
C)Occupational Health and Safety Administration (OSHA).
D)Radiation Safety Committee.
Q2) It is not uncommon for a technologist to be disciplined for
A)ignoring a patient's request for information.
B)equipment abuse and damage.
C)gossiping and secretive employee behaviors.
D)all of the above.
Q3) In providing radiology care to a patient,you observe a colleague accidentally exposing the wrong body part.It appears that he is unaware of the mistake.This action would be considered a(n)
A)insignificant patient care event.
B)medical error.
C)true accident and not worthy of documentation.
D)medical event that would be billed as a separate procedure.
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Chapter 7: Radiographic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) An effective measure of actual exposure compared to a target exposure value is the use of a(n)
A)S number.
B)deviation index (DI).
C)exposure index (EI).
D)half-value layer.
Q2) All of the following are related EXCEPT
A)source of electrons.
B)means for setting electrons in high-speed motion.
C)a target to stop or suddenly decelerate the electron travel.
D)a lead barrier to stop the production of heat formation.
Q3) Inadequate mAs exposures in CR imaging technology will yield an image that is A)grainy and demonstrates quantum mottle.
B)magnified and distorted.
C)minified and distorted.
D)overexposed and too dark to interpret.
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Chapter 8: Radiographic and Fluoroscopic Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is an x-ray tube glass envelope made of Pyrex glass?
A)To prevent breakage if dropped
B)To better withstand the heat produced
C)To improve the visibility of the anode for service engineers
D)For a clearer passage of the x-rays
Q2) Which of the following occur during x-ray tube preparation or "boost?"
1)The collimator light goes out to save energy.
2)The anode comes up to rotational speed.
3)The preselected milliamperage increases in the cathode filament.
4)A high voltage is applied across both diodes of the x-ray tube,enabling electrons to travel across to the anode.
5)The grid in the table begins to oscillate.
A)1,2,4 and 5 only
B)2,3 and 4 only
C)2 and 3 only
D)2,4 and 5 only
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Chapter 9: Basic Radiation Protection and Radiobiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protective devices such as lead aprons are intended to protect the user from _____ radiation.
1)scattered and secondary
2)primary
3)remnant
4)latent
A)1 only
B)1,2,and 4 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1,3,and 4 only
Q2) With regard to the annual whole-body effective dose limit for occupational personnel
A)the annual limit in 50 mSv (5 rem).
B)the allowable cumulative whole-body dose limit is much lower than that permitted in the 1970s.
C)the maximum accumulated whole-body effective dose is calculated using 1 rem multiplied by the person's age (1 rem ´ age in years).
D)all of the above are true.
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Chapter 10: Human Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would not reflect a human diversity characteristic?
A)Disability
B)Gender
C)Occupation
D)Race
Q2) For a medical imaging department manager,reasonable efforts to improve human diversity in the department would include all of the following EXCEPT
A)multilingual signage throughout the department.
B)requiring staff to attend diversity in-services.
C)participating in an effective resource pool of interpreters.
D)requiring all department employees to speak a second language.
Q3) A social organization that seeks to understand and accept peoples from diverse backgrounds through policies and procedures,communication media,activities,and so on in an effort to achieve a positive cross-cultural environment is seeking to achieve A)socialism.
B)cultural competency.
C)social autonomy.
D)segregation.
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Chapter 11: Patient Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are nonverbal communication characteristics EXCEPT
A)volume of voice.
B)body language.
C)amount of eye contact.
D)professional appearance.
Q2) When working with an elderly patient,
A)speak slowly and clearly and ask for understanding and feedback.
B)write down your instructions first for the patient to read.
C)give the patient breathing instructions while you're positioning him or her in order to hasten the procedure.
D)assume the patient can see and hear you clearly and move quickly and deliberately in order to get done.
Q3) A dying patient who wants to stay alive long enough to see his son graduate from college would be in what stage of the dying process?
A)Denial
B)Depression
C)Anger
D)Bargaining
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13
Chapter 12: History Taking
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Sample Questions
Q1) An imaging sciences professional
A)relates his or her personal experiences to the patient's when taking a history.
B)uses "pet names" such as "dear," "cutie," and "honey" to encourage the patient to provide more intimate information about his or her condition.
C)relies exclusively on objective patient data so as not to bias the patient history.
D)does none of the above.
Q2) Good history taking involves the collection of objective and subjective data.All of the following are examples of subjective data EXCEPT the patient's A)emotions.
B)respiratory rate.
C)speech pattern.
D)ability to follow your instructions.
Q3) When questioning patients to obtain an accurate patient history,
A)keep your questions general in nature so as not to offend the patient.
B)start with open-ended questions and then follow up with more direct inquiries.
C)do not let the patient talk too much in order to keep the examination moving.
D)use medical "jargon" to impress the patient with your expertise.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Safe Patient Movement and Handling Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) When lifting patients,it is important to
A)lift with your back and save your leg strength.
B)twist at the waist to improve your center of gravity.
C)avoid using a transfer belt to prevent abdominal cramping.
D)keep your back stationary and lift with your legs.
Q2) As you enter a patient's room to perform a portable examination,you notice the patient sleeping on her side with one leg over the other with the knees bent.This patient is in the _____ position.
A)Fowler
B)supine
C)Sims
D)None of the above are correct.
Q3) When performing a two-person lift of a patient from a wheelchair,it is important to
A)ask the patient to put his or her arms up over his or her head.
B)lift the patient with his or her knees bent.
C)bend over from the back and lift the patient's legs with your partner.
D)lift the patient as a unit,with his or her arms crossed and legs straight.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Immobilization Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) The technique of wrapping a patient in a sheet
A)is known as mummification.
B)is appropriate for young adults and teenagers.
C)is appropriate for a child who can cooperate and understand your instructions.
D)should be used only with parental approval.
Q2) The ideal patient immobilization device would be
A)made of radiopaque materials.
B)elaborate in design and disposable.
C)expensive and flexible in application for positioning.
D)radiolucent,durable,and easy to use for the radiographer.
Q3) When tape is used as an immobilization tool with an infant,
A)use liberal amounts of tape to hold the infant tightly.
B)place the tape with the adhesive side in touch with the infant's skin to hold better.
C)wrap the tape around the patient tightly to create an awareness of the importance of radiation protection.
D)twist the tape so the nonadhesive side is against the infant's skin.
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Chapter 15: Vital Signs, Oxygen, Chest Tubes, and Lines
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Sample Questions
Q1) The collection of vital signs data is quick and noninvasive.The usual vital signs measured include
A)electrolytes,blood gases,urinalysis values,and fecal occult blood test findings.
B)temperature,pulse,respiration,and blood pressure.
C)temperature,blood pressure,blood gases,and bowel sounds.
D)respiration,pulse,cardiac output,and urinalysis values.
Q2) In a patient with hypoxia,
A)heart rate decreases owing to low oxygen saturation values.
B)respiratory rate remains unchanged.
C)respiratory depth remains unchanged owing to increased cardiac output.
D)blood pressure increases.
Q3) To relieve a large tension pneumothorax,what kind of tube(s)is (are)inserted into the patient?
A)Nasogastric
B)Chest
C)Thoracostomy
D)Both b and c
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Chapter 16: Basic Cardiac Monitoring: The
Electrocardiogram
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Sample Questions
Q1) An effective method for treating select cardiac arrhythmias is the use of high-frequency alternating current to destroy strategic cardiac tissue and reroute the cardiac impulses generated.These procedures are known as
A)selective coronary angioplastic repairs.
B)cardiac ablation treatments.
C)left ventriculograms.
D)cardiac valvular replacements.
Q2) Heart rates above 100 beats/min in an adult is termed A)bradycardia.
B)tachycardia.
C)cardiac ectopia.
D)fibrillation.
Q3) The QRS complex on a typical ECG represents A)depolarization of atrial muscle.
B)depolarization of ventricular muscle.
C)repolarization of ventricular muscle.
D)ventricular diastole.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Infection Control
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Q1) Which of the following is the most effective method for achieving medical asepsis?
A)Frequent hand washing
B)Having most employees in perfect health
C)Changing linen after every patient
D)Cleaning the radiographic table weekly
Q2) Lyme disease is a condition caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks.The tick bite may cause fever,fatigue,and other associated symptoms.This is an example of transmission of an infection by A)droplet contact.
B)a vehicle.
C)the airborne route.
D)a vector.
Q3) Two bloodborne pathogens of particular importance to hospital personnel are A)pneumonia and tuberculosis.
B)hepatitis B virus (HBV)and HIV.
C)papillomavirus and rhinovirus.
D)Clostridium and Bacillus.
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Chapter 18: Aseptic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) When putting on a pair of sterile gloves using the self-gloving,open technique,
A)jewelry may remain on during gloving.
B)the glove package is open and positioned so the wearer crosses his or her arm over the left glove to reach for the right glove.
C)the first glove is picked up by the inside cuff with one hand,being careful not the touch the outside of the glove.
D)the remaining glove is grabbed by the outside and placed on the unsterile hand,making it sterile.
Q2) All of the following situations would require aseptic techniques EXCEPT
A)barium enema examination.
B)insertion of central venous line.
C)insertion of an indwelling Foley catheter.
D)insertion of an angiographic catheter.
Q3) If the sterility of an object is unknown,which of the following should be done?
A)Ask the physician if it is alright to use the object.
B)Use the object as long as it has not been dropped on the floor.
C)Consider the object unsterile and do not use it.
D)Clean the object with a disinfectant or antimicrobial before using it.
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Chapter 19: Nonaseptic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common misunderstanding of patients regarding barium enemas is that
A)the actual barium enema examination is "just another cleansing enema."
B)the barium enema is all that is needed as a cleansing enema.
C)they will be asked to drink a chalky "milkshake" for the examination.
D)they will be expected to defecate during the examination for filming.
Q2) Giving cleansing enemas "until clear" involves
A)giving two or three enemas until the bowel contents are free of fecal material.
B)administering enemas until the patient's state of hydration is at risk.
C)giving the patient cleansing enemas until his or her sinuses have drained.
D)asking the patient to hold the enema contents until the fluoroscopy schedule is open for the examination.
Q3) Nasogastric (NG)tubes are inserted with the patient in the _____ position.
A)Sims'
B)high Fowler
C)Trendelenburg
D)recumbent,prone
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Chapter 20: Medical Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of shock is caused by a failure of the heart to pump enough blood to the vital organs?
A)Cardiogenic
B)Septic
C)Anaphylactic
D)Neurogenic
Q2) When comparing hyperglycemia with hypoglycemia,hyperglycemia
A)indicates a low blood glucose level.
B)is typically of rapid onset.
C)portrays clinical symptoms of excessive thirst and urination as well as dry mouth.
D)requires the patient receive a quick form of glucose.
Q3) When working with burn patients,it is critically important to
A)increase the air circulation in the room to encourage healing.
B)position the patient with positioning aids such as clamps,sandbags,and tape.
C)spray the burn dressing with lidocaine to relieve the pain.
D)use an extraordinary level of aseptic technique.
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Chapter 21: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some drugs are intended to have slow,uniform absorption over several hours and are said to be _____-release drugs.
A)sustained
B)extended
C)controlled
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Reaction to a drug that results in respiratory or circulatory collapse is A)urticaria.
B)anaphylaxis.
C)epistaxis.
D)dyspnea.
Q3) Patients with congestive heart failure and lymphedema are typically prescribed A)a diuretic.
B)furosemide.
C)Lasix.
D)all of the above.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Principles of Drug Administration
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Q1) When venipuncture is performed for contrast medium administration,
A)the veins of the arms are preferred injection sites.
B)a 25-gauge needle is preferred to lessen extravasation.
C)delayed reaction to the intravenous injection can be expected.
D)all of the above.
Q2) An injection that is given to a patient relies on a(n)_____ route of administration.
A)enteral
B)parenteral
C)topical
D)portal
Q3) When performing a venipuncture for intravenous drug administration,
A)the needle bevel is facing down as it pierces the skin surface and then turned 90 degrees.
B)disposable sterile gloves are unnecessary because it is a venous entry.
C)it is important to remember that older patients' veins tend to roll and are more fragile.
D)it is acceptable to reinsert the needle into the vein if it has exited both the vein and skin.
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24
Chapter 23: Contrast Media and Introduction to Radiopharmaceuticals
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Q1) Generally speaking,radiographic images are the result of x-ray photons being absorbed to varying degrees based on tissue density and thickness.There are five radiographic densities seen on radiographs: air or gas,water,fat,mineral,and metal.The lowest subject contrast between these five densities is between A)bone and air.
B)water and mineral.
C)water and fat.
D)metal and air.
Q2) Nonionic iodine contrast agents differ from ionic agents in that nonionics
A)do not break down into a cation and an anion.
B)have a low pH.
C)have a small chemical structure and high osmolality.
D)are not triiodinated.
Q3) The radioisotope used most often in nuclear studies is
A)technetium (99mTc).
B)thorium.
C)barium iodinate. D)iodine.
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Chapter 24: Professional Ethics
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Q1) The term veracity refers to
A)preventing evil and harm.
B)doing no harm but also doing good.
C)telling the truth.
D)protecting the patient from radiation.
Q2) After a stressful CT scan on a patient,you are confronted by the patient's family regarding the results of the examination.The patient was in a motor vehicle accident and has a severe head injury.The images you took are being sent to a "Nighthawk" reading service and will not be available for several minutes.The family insists they have a "right" to know the results immediately so they can make a decision about organ donation.How would you rationalize this situation to yourself as an imaging professional?
A)Your duty as a professional is to complete the CT examination quickly and with high quality,not to interpret the images,and to do no harm to the patient.
B)You tell the family what you saw on the images as an act of beneficence.
C)You tell the emergency department nurse about the images as an act of nonmaleficence.
D)You call the organ donor program director to tell him of the patient's condition as an act of veracity.
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26
Chapter 25: Health Records and Health Information Management
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Q1) You have been asked to participate on the radiology department's quality assurance committee.The purpose of this committee would most likely be to A)determine the qualifications of radiographers used in the department. B)assess the amount of linen used for specific x-ray examinations. C)evaluate various radiology services to seek improvement. D)calculate the cost of x-ray equipment service among companies.
Q2) It is important for the professional imaging technologist to thoroughly understand his or her responsibilities with regard to health information confidentiality.Particularly important considerations include
A)a testimonial statement must be signed,indicating your awareness and responsibility in maintaining the privacy of patient records.
B)all examination results are released to patients by physicians only.
C)all health care personnel have the same responsibilities for maintaining confidentiality,including students. D)all of the above.
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27
Chapter 26: Medical Law
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Q1) Which of the following is not a legal right of a patient in the radiology department?
A)To know the technologist's name
B)To refuse the radiographic examination
C)To be informed of the possible risks
D)To ask for and receive extra studies
Q2) Restraining a patient without reason may constitute
A)defamation of character.
B)false imprisonment.
C)invasion of privacy.
D)criminal law.
Q3) All of the following are necessary for a legitimate case of malpractice EXCEPT
A)a clear definition of duty.
B)proof of damages.
C)a clear illustration of one's breach of duty.
D)third-party testimonial as to the inappropriate acts of the defendant.
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