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Imaging Procedures Exam Answer Key - 370 Verified Questions

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Imaging Procedures

Exam Answer Key

Course Introduction

Imaging Procedures is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles and techniques involved in medical imaging. The course covers the theoretical and practical aspects of various imaging modalities, including X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine. Topics include patient positioning, image acquisition protocols, image quality control, radiation safety, and the interpretation of clinical images. Emphasis is placed on the role of imaging in the diagnostic process, the ethical and legal considerations in imaging practices, and the integration of new technologies in modern clinical settings. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students gain essential skills for effectively performing and understanding imaging procedures in healthcare environments.

Recommended Textbook

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition by Mary Alice

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15 Chapters

370 Verified Questions

370 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Radiation Protection

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31856

Sample Questions

Q1) What unit is used to measure radiation exposure in the metric International System of Units?

A)Coulomb per kilogram

B)Milligray

C)Millisievert

D)Sievert

Answer: A

Q2) The millisievert (mSv)is equal to

A)1/10 of a sievert.

B)1/100 of a sievert.

C)1/1000 of a sievert.

D)1/10,000 of a sievert.

Answer: C

Q3) X-rays are a form of which of the following kinds of radiation?

A)Environmental

B)Ionizing

C)Internal

D)Nonionizing

Answer: B

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Radiation: Types, sources, and Doses Received

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cosmic radiation occurs in which two forms?

A)Solar and manmade

B)Artificial and galactic

C)Natural background and artificial

D)Solar and galactic

Answer: D

Q2) Which of the following radiation quantities use the same unit of measure?

1)Effective dose and equivalent dose

2)Exposure and effective dose

3)Absorbed dose and equivalent dose

A)1 only

B)2 only

C)3 only

D)1,2,and 3

Answer: A

Q3) Of the two sources of ionizing radiation listed below,which source remains fairly constant from year to year?

A)Manmade

B)Natural

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Interaction of X-Radiation With Matter

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Sample Questions

Q1) X-rays are carriers of A)disease.

B)electrons.

C)fluorescent properties that make them visible.

D)manmade electromagnetic energy.

Answer: D

Q2) The x-ray photon energy required to initiate pair production is

A)0.511 keV.

B)1.022 keV.

C)0.511 MeV.

D)1.022 MeV.

Answer: D

Q3) What is the effective atomic number of compact bone?

A)5.9

B)7.4

C)7.6

D)13.8

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Radiation Quantities and Units

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Sample Questions

Q1) 1 gray equals

A)10 J/kg.

B)100 J/kg.

C)100 cGy.

D)1000 cGy.

Q2) 0.2 Gy equals

A)2 mGy

B)20 mGy

C)200 mGy

D)2000 mGy

Q3) The whole-body TEDE regulatory limit for exposed personnel is _____________ and ______________ for the general public.

A)0.05 Sv;0.001 Sv

B)0.15 Sv;0.015 Sv

C)0.25 Sv;0.025 Sv

D)0.5 Sv;0.1 Sv

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Chapter 5: Radiation Monitoring

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Sample Questions

Q1) The optically stimulated luminescence (OSL)dosimeter is "read out" by using a (an) A)densitometer.

B)ionization chamber.

C)thermoluminescent analyzer.

D)laser light at selected frequencies.

Q2) Of the following,which are disadvantages of using pocket ionization chambers as personnel dosimeters?

1)They can discharge if they are subjected to mechanical shock.

2)Because these devices provide no permanent legal record of exposure,health care facilities that use this method to record personnel exposure must delegate someone to keep such a record.

3)If not read each day,the dosimeter may give an inaccurate reading because the electric charge tends to escape.

A)1 only

B)2 only

C)3 only

D)1,2,and 3

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Chapter 6: Overview of Cell Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) What do the highly organized enzymes in the inner membranes of the mitochondria break down?

1)Carbohydrates

2)Fats

3)Proteins

A)1 only

B)2 only

C)3 only

D)1,2,and 3

Q2) Which of the following serves as a prototype for messenger RNA (mRNA)?

A)Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

B)Nitric acid (HNO )

C)Potassium (K)and sodium (Na)

D)Transfer RNA (tRNA)

Q3) What is any chemical reaction in which atoms lose electrons called?

A)Synthesis

B)Oxidation

C)Osmosis

D)Metabolism

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Chapter 7: Molecular and Cellular Radiation Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Because the master molecule is unique in any given cell,no similar molecules in the cell are available to replace it;if a critical location on the master molecule is a target receiving multiple hits from ionizing radiation,the master molecule may be inactivated.If this occurs,what is the consequence for the affected cell?

A)Loss of all intracellular fluid

B)Increased pressure on the cell membrane leading to immediate rupture

C)Disruption of cell chemistry only

D)Normal cell function will cease,and the cell will die.

Q2) One micron (mm)= __________.

A)10- m

B)10+ m

C)10-³ m

D)10+³m

Q3) Which of the following groups of cells is least radiosensitive?

A)Adult nerve cells

B)Nerve cells in an embryo-fetus

C)Lymphocytes

D)Immature spermatogonia

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Chapter 8: Early Tissue Reactions and Their Effects on Organ Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Moist and dry desquamation can be caused by A)high radiation doses.

B)low radiation doses.

C)radiation doses received during routine diagnostic imaging procedures.

D)radiation dose received during annual testing of diagnostic imaging equipment.

Q2) A term that is synonymous with epilation is A)alopecia.

B)atrophy.

C)desquamation.

D)radiodermatitis.

Q3) The prodromal stage of acute radiation syndrome is actually the A)initial stage.

B)latent period.

C)manifest illness period.

D)recovery period.

Q4) Atrophy refers to

A)aging of the skin from radiation exposure.

B)shrinkage of organs and tissues after a high radiation dose is received.

C)necrosis of the hypodermis from radiation exposure.

D)wrinkling of the skin from radiation exposure.

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Chapter 9: Stochastic Effects and Late Tissue Reactions of Radiation in Organ Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mutations in genes and DNA that occur at random as natural phenomena are called

A)carcinogenic mutations.

B)sporadic mutations.

C)spontaneous mutations.

D)stochastic mutations.

Q2) In which of the following human populations is the risk for causing a radiation-induced cancer not directly measurable?

1)All patients in diagnostic radiology subjected to a radiation dose below 0.1 Sv

2)Chernobyl radiation accident victims living in contaminated villages

3)Atomic bomb survivors

A)1 only

B)2 only

C)3 only

D)2 and 3 only

Q3) Existing data on radiation-induced genetic effects in humans

A)prove conclusively that radiation causes major genetic effects.

B)prove conclusively that radiation causes only minor genetic effects.

C)are both contradictory and inconclusive.

D)prove conclusively that radiation does not cause genetic effects.

Page 11

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Chapter 10: Dose Limits for Exposure to Ionizing Radiation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Effective dose (EfD)limits may be specified for 1)whole-body exposure.

2)partial-body exposure.

3)exposure of individual organs.

A)1 only

B)2 only

C)3 only

D)1,2,and 3

Q2) Working in conjunction with their partners in other agencies,the FDA intends to take action to

1)promote safe use of medical imaging devices.

2)support informed clinical decision.

3)increase patient awareness.

A)1 and 2 only

B)1 and 3 only

C)2 and 3 only

D)1,2,and 3

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Chapter 11: Equipment Design for Radiation Protection

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Sample Questions

Q1) Current federal standards limit entrance skin exposure rates of general-purpose intensified fluoroscopic units with maximum technique factors engaged to a maximum of ________________,as measured at tabletop,with the image intensifier entrance surface at a prescribed 30 cm above the tabletop.

A)100 mGya/min

B)300 mGya/min

C)500 mGya/min

D)600 mGya/min

Q2) Digital radiography systems offer several advantages over computed radiography.Some of these include 1)lower dose.

2)ease of use.

3)immediate imaging results.

4)manipulation of the image.

A)1,2,and 3 only

B)1,2,and 4 only

C)2,3,and 4 only

D)1,2,3,and 4

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Chapter 12: Management of Patient Radiation Dose During Diagnostic X-Ray Procedures

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25 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) ________________________ are the sensing devices most often used to measure skin dose directly.

A)Thermoluminescent dosimeters

B)A sequence of aluminum equivalent filters of varying thicknesses

C)Lead-impregnated filters

D)Molybdenum and rhodium filters

Q2) Of the following radiologic procedures,which is (are)considered nonessential?

1)A chest x-ray examination automatically scheduled on admission to the hospital

2)Lumbar spine x-ray examination as part of a preemployment physical

3)Whole-body computed tomography (CT)screening

A)1 and 2 only

B)1 and 3 only

C)2 and 3 only

D)1,2,and 3

Q3) During a radiographic examination,which of the following combinations of technical exposure factors reduce patient radiation dose?

A)Lower kVp,higher mAs

B)Higher kVp,lower mAs

C)Higher kVp,higher mAs

D)Lower kVp,lower mAs

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Special Considerations on Safety in Computed

Tomography and Mammography

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25 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Digital mammography units with the ability to enhance contrast with image gray-level manipulation offer

A)substantial improvement for patients with small breasts.

B)substantial improvement for patients with microcalcifications in small breasts.

C)substantial improvement for patients with dense breasts.

D)poor quality images for patients with dense breasts and microcalcifications.

Q2) In computed tomography the dose at the edge of a beam does not decrease to _________ immediately.

A)15 cGy

B)10 cGy

C)5 cGy

D)0 (zero)

Q3) For routine head and body computed tomography examinations,effective doses fall into which of the following effective dose ranges?

A)1 to 10 mSv

B)20 to 30 mSv

C)40 to 50 mSv

D)60 to 70 mSv

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Chapter 14: Management of Imaging Personnel Radiation

Dose During X-Ray Procedures

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) To ensure that the lifetime risk of occupationally exposed persons remains acceptable,an additional recommendation is that the lifetime effective dose in mSv should not exceed

A)the occupationally exposed person's age in years.

B)5 times the occupationally exposed person's age in years.

C)10 times the occupationally exposed person's age in years.

D)20 times the occupationally exposed person's age in years.

Q2) Which of the following adjustments in technical exposure factors decreases the production of scattered radiation during routine radiographic procedures?

A)Decrease kVp and increase mAs in compensation

B)Decrease kVp and decrease mAs

C)Increase kVp and decrease mAs in compensation

D)Increase kVp and increase mAs

Q3) If the peak energy of the x-ray beam is 100 kVp,a protective lead apron must be the equivalent to at least which of the following measures?

A)0.25-mm thickness of lead

B)0.5-mm thickness of lead

C)1.0-mm thickness of lead

D)1.5-mm thickness of lead

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Radioisotopes and Radiation Protection

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31870

Sample Questions

Q1) At the conclusion of a brachytherapy or diagnostic radionuclide procedure,any residual isotope

A)is to be returned to its shielded container.

B)is to be returned to its unshielded container.

C)thrown directly into a regular trash can for disposal.

D)dumped into any regular sink and washed down the drain.

Q2) Considering the design of the medical imaging suites listed below,which suite requires shielding for the highest energy photons?

A)CT suite

B)PET imaging suite

C)Digital mammography suite

D)Digital fluoroscopy suite

Q3) While a patient receiving Iodine-131 (¹³¹I)therapy is hospitalized,a large,_________,rolling lead shield can be positioned between the patient and any attending personnel for protection.

A)up to 25-mm or 1-inch-thick

B)up to 50-mm or 2-inch-thick

C)up to 75-mm or 3-inch-thick

D)up to 150-mm or 6-inch-thick

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