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This course provides a comprehensive overview of diagnostic imaging procedures and the essential aspects of patient care within a clinical radiological setting. Students will learn the fundamental principles and protocols for performing various imaging techniques, such as X-rays, CT scans, and MRI, with a strong emphasis on patient safety, comfort, and ethical considerations. The curriculum covers proper positioning, equipment operation, infection control, and radiation protection, alongside effective communication skills to ensure high-quality patient interaction. Students will also explore the preparation, monitoring, and aftercare required for patients undergoing imaging, preparing them to deliver compassionate and effective care throughout the diagnostic process.
Recommended Textbook
Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 7th Edition by Mary Alice
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Q1) If a patient asks a radiographer a question about the potential risk of radiation exposure associated with a specific x-ray procedure,the radiographer should:
A)use his or her intelligence and knowledge to answer the question honestly and provide a suitable example that compares the amount of radiation received from the procedure in question with natural background radiation received over a given period of time.
B)avoid the patient's question by changing the subject.
C)tell the patient that it is unethical to discuss such concerns.
D)refuse to answer the question and recommend that he or she speak with the referring physician.
Answer: A
Q2) X-rays are a form of which of the following kinds of radiation?
A)Environmental
B)Ionizing
C)Internal
D)Nonionizing
Answer: B
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Q1) In the electromagnetic spectrum,higher frequencies are associated with:
A)longer wavelengths and lower energies.
B)longer wavelengths and higher energies.
C)shorter wavelengths and lower energies.
D)shorter wavelengths and higher energies.
Answer: D
Q2) What was the total average annual effective dose from natural background and human-made radiations combined as of 2006?
A)2.0 mSv
B)3.2 mSv
C)6.3 mSv
D)9.6 mSv
Answer: C
Q3) Acute melting of the uranium dioxide fuel of a nuclear reactor core requires how great a temperature?
A)Less than 500° F
B)At least 1000° F
C)2000° F
D)Greater than 5000° F
Answer: D
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Q1) Radiographic density is:
A)caused by photodisintegration.
B)defined as the degree of overall blackening on a completed radiograph.
C)not affected by milliampere-seconds (mAs).
D)not relevant in the production of a diagnostic radiograph.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following interactions between photons and matter involves a matter-antimatter annihilation reaction?
A)Compton scattering
B)Coherent scattering
C)Pair production
D)Photoelectric absorption
Answer: C
Q3) Compton scattering is synonymous with:
A)coherent scattering.
B)incoherent scattering.
C)photoelectric absorption.
D)photodisintegration.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following rem values equals 4000 mSv?
A)4 rem
B)40 rem
C)400 rem
D)4000 rem
Q2) 1 gray equals:
A)10 J/kg.
B)100 J/kg.
C)100 cGy.
D)1000 cGy.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A)100 rem = 1 centisievert
B)10 rem = 1 centisievert
C)1 rem = 1 centisievert
D)0.1 rem = 1 centisievert
Q4) Who discovered x-rays on November 8,1895?
A)Thomas A.Edison
B)Clarence Madison Dally
C)Louis Harold Gray
D)Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen

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Q1) Which of the following is a disadvantage of the optically stimulated dosimeter?
A)Exposure not determinable on the day of occurrence
B)Mechanical shock can cause false high reading
C)No permanent,legal record of exposure
D)Not cost-effective for large numbers of personnel
Q2) Of the following,which are disadvantages of using pocket ionization chambers as personnel dosimeters?
1)Mechanical shock causes pocket chambers to discharge.
2)A permanent legal record of personnel exposure cannot be obtained with a pocket dosimeter.
3)False high readings may be obtained if the pocket dosimeter is not read each day.
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)1,2,and 3
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Q1) During mitosis,which phase of the cellular life cycle is the actual DNA synthesis period?
A)G1
B)G2
C)M
D)S
Q2) What should the constant temperature of the human body be?
A)28° C
B)37° C
C)43° C
D)57° C
Q3) Which of the following are compounds called purines?
1)Adenine and cytosine
2)Adenine and guanine
3)Adenine and thymine
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)1,2,and 3
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Q1) Which of the following groups of cells is least radiosensitive?
A)Adult nerve cells
B)Nerve cells in an embryo or fetus
C)Lymphocytes
D)Immature spermatogonia
Q2) OH* + OH* = __________.
A)H O
B)HOH+
C)HOH-
D)H O
Q3) As LET increases,the ability of ionizing radiation to cause biologic effects:
A)also generally increases until it reaches a maximal value.
B)decreases considerably.
C)decreases slightly.
D)remains constant,not increasing or decreasing.
Q4) The term apoptosis is synonymous with:
A)programmed cell death.
B)meiosis.
C)mitosis.
D)point mutation.

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Q1) For persons with hematopoietic syndrome,survival time shortens as the radiation dose:
A)decreases.
B)increases.
C)remains the same.
D)there is no survival time for persons with the hematopoietic syndrome.
Q2) In 1898,after sustaining severe burns attributed to radiation exposure,this Boston dentist began investigating the hazards of radiation exposure and became the first known advocate of radiation protection:
A)Marie Curie
B)Clarence Madison Dally
C)Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen
D)William Herbert Rollins
Q3) A term that is synonymous with epilation is:
A)alopecia.
B)atrophy.
C)desquamation.
D)radiodermatitis.
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Q1) Existing data on radiation-induced genetic effects in humans :
A)prove conclusively that radiation causes major genetic effects.
B)prove conclusively that radiation causes only minor genetic effects.
C)are still inconclusive.
D)prove conclusively that radiation does not cause genetic effects.
Q2) What is the mean value of the radiation doubling equivalent dose for humans,as determined from the children of the atomic bomb survivors of Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
A)1.00 Sv
B)1.56 Sv
C)3.00 Sv
D)5.67 Sv
Q3) Radiation-induced abnormalities are caused by unrepaired damage to:
A)all stem cells in the body.
B)DNA within ova or sperm.
C)epithelial cells.
D)somatic cells.
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Q1) In general,deterministic effects typically occur:
A)after all diagnostic imaging procedures.
B)only after some diagnostic imaging procedures.
C)only after routine fluoroscopic procedures.
D)only after large doses of radiation are received.
Q2) Effective dose (EfD) limits may be expressed for:
1)whole-body exposure.
2)partial-body exposure.
3)exposure of individual organs.
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)1,2,and 3
Q3) The ALARA concept presents an extremely conservative model with respect to the relationship between:
A)health care education and radiation research.
B)ionizing and nonionizing radiation.
C)ionizing radiation and potential risk.
D)radiation dose and biologic response.
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Q1) What is the purpose of radiographic beam filtration?
A)To decrease beam hardness,thereby reducing patient skin dose and the dose to superficial tissues
B)To increase beam hardness,thereby reducing patient skin dose and the dose to superficial tissues
C)To eliminate short wavelength radiation to reduce the radiation received by the patient's skin and superficial tissues
D)To increase beam hardness,thereby increasing patient skin dose with only a slight increase to superficial tissues
Q2) In standard image intensification fluoroscopy,an x-ray beam half-value-layer (HVL) of 3 to 4.5 mm aluminum is considered acceptable when peak kilovoltage ranges from:
A)50 to 60.
B)60 to 70.
C)70 to 80.
D)80 to 100.
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Q1) The goal of the Alliance for Radiation Safety in Pediatric Imaging is to:
A)increase awareness of the need to reduce patient dose for pediatric patients.
B)completely eliminate the use of CT imaging for all pediatric patients.
C)completely eliminate the use of CT imaging for pediatric patients younger than 1 year of age.
D)completely eliminate the use of CT imaging for pediatric patients between the ages of 3 and 4 years old.
Q2) The radiation dose absorbed by an organ such as bone marrow:
A)can be accurately measured by a direct method.
B)cannot be measured by a direct method;it can only be estimated.
C)is negligible for all diagnostic radiography examinations.
D)can only be measured to a small degree by a direct method.
Q3) Which of the following is frequently a problem in diagnostic pediatric radiography?
A)Lack of availability of appropriate pediatric immobilization devices
B)Lack of cooperation of parents or guardian
C)Lack of appropriate individuals to assist in holding a pediatric patient during an exposure
D)Patient motion
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Q1) For C-arm devices with similar fields of view,the dose rate to personnel located within a meter of the patient is:
A)comparable to that of routine fluoroscopy.
B)far greater than the dose rate of routine fluoroscopy.
C)significantly less than the dose rate of routine fluoroscopy.
D)comparable to that of high-level-control fluoroscopy.
Q2) Which of the following adjustments in technical exposure factors decreases the production of scattered radiation?
A)Decrease kVp and increase mAs in compensation
B)Decrease kVp and decrease mAs
C)Increase kVp and decrease mAs in compensation
D)Increase kVp and increase mAs
Q3) Which of the following is another term for use factor (U)?
A)Workload factor
B)Occupancy factor in controlled and uncontrolled areas
C)Beam direction factor
D)Protective barrier thickness consideration factor
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Q1) Each Fluorine-18 (¹ F) nuclear transformation by positron decay yields two highly penetrating _________ photons.
A)250-keV
B)472-keV
C)511-kev
D)777-keV
Q2) The actual long-term health effects of a "dirty bomb" are likely to be:
A)catastrophic.
B)maximal.
C)minimal.
D)nonexistent.
Q3) In __________,a neutron transforms itself into a combination of a proton and an energetic electron.
A)alpha decay
B)beta decay
C)gamma decay
D)x-ray absorption
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