Imaging Principles and Procedures
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles and procedures used in medical imaging. Students will explore the physical concepts underlying various imaging modalities such as X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and ultrasound. Emphasis is placed on understanding image formation, instrumentation, safety considerations, and quality control. The course also covers standard imaging protocols, patient preparation, and the interpretation of diagnostic images, equipping students with essential knowledge to operate imaging equipment and deliver optimal patient care in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Radiographic Imaging 5th Edition by Richard R. Carlton
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45 Chapters
1738 Verified Questions
1738 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Mathematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) PV = nRT; solve for T. Answer: PV/nR
Q2) V = 1/3\(\pi\)r<sup>2</sup>h; solve for \(\pi\).
Answer: 3V/r<sup>2</sup>h
Q3) P = 2L + 2W; solve for L. Answer: (P - 2W)/2
Q4) Change 23.46 to a percent.
A)0.2346 %
B)23.46 %
C)2,346 %
D) (2,346 %)
Answer: D
Q5) Convert 113°F to °C.
A)20.3°C
B)62.8°C
C)81°C
D)235°C
Answer: B
Q6) I = E/R + r; solve for r.
Answer: E - IR/I
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Chapter 2: Radiation Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electromagnetic radiation with a frequency of 2,000 hertz would have a wavelength of
A)1/2,000 cm.
B)1.5 * 10<sup>-7</sup> cm.
C)1.5 * 10<sup>7</sup> cm.
D)cannot be determined
Answer: C
Q2) the transference of energy to an atom
A)infrared energy
B)gamma rays
C)radio waves
D)ultraviolet energy
E)excitation
F)lambda
G)amplitude
H)velocity
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the total resistance of a circuit with two resistances of 3 and 5 ohms in series and two resistances of 4 ohms each in parallel?
Answer: 10 ohms
Q2) the production of lightning
A)electron
B)neutron
C)proton
D)binding energy
E)kinetic energy
F)atomic mass
G)atomic number
H)isotope
Answer: H
Q3) The current flow from a dry cell battery source would be
A)direct current.
B)alternating current.
C)variable current.
D)oscillating current.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Electromagnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The design of an x-ray tube requires that electron flow through it is in a single direction or phase.If alternating current were supplied to the x-ray tube at high voltage, what would be the result?
Q2) designed to permit electron flow in one direction only
A)semiconductor
B)diode
C)p-type material
D)n-type material
E)thyristor
F)valve tube
G)arsenic
H)gallium
Q3) The material of choice for semiconductors is A)silicon.
B)carbon.
C)gadolinium.
D)ferrous iron.
Q4) List the three ways to induce an electromagnetic field.
Q5) The magnitude of an induced electromagnetic field depends on what four factors?
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Chapter 5: X-Ray Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The time control is found between the
A)incoming line and the exposure switch.
B)autotransformer and the timer circuit.
C)exposure switch and the step-up transformer.
D)incoming line and the step-down transformer.
Q2) When full-wave rectification is applied to three-phase current, a ____ ripple is produced.
A)current
B)star
C)voltage
D)double
Q3) Automatic exposure control (AEC) technology determines A)patient thickness.
B)exposure time.
C)kVp.
D)mA.
Q4) What is the approximate rms voltage of a single-phase sine wave with a kVp of 75?
Q5) What is the approximate rms voltage of a single-phase sine wave with a kVp of 65?
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Chapter 6: The X-Ray Tube
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the filament?
Q2) In order to time the x-ray exposure with rapid inspiration on an infant, A)three phase generators are preferred.
B)the exposure button and prep are pressed simultaneously.
C)exposure may be initiated as fast a 0.10 sec.
D)less expensive single-phase generators are desirable.
Q3) List the three parts of the anode assembly.
Q4) The only portion of the anode assembly placed outside the vacuum of the envelope is the A)stator. B)rotor.
C)rotating disc. D)molybdenum neck.
Q5) To cover a 14 in.x 17 ft field at 40 ft, a ____-degree target angle is required.
A)3
B)5
C)7
D)12
Q6) The use of stress-relief anodes is effective at dealing with what inherent characteristic(s) of x-ray production?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: X-Ray Production
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bremsstrahlung interactions may occur only when the incident electron interacts with
A)an inner-shell electron.
B)an outer-shell electron.
C)the force field around the nucleus.
D)the nuclear force within the nucleus.
Q2) The energy of a bremsstrahlung photon is
A)equal to the kinetic energy of the entering electron.
B)equal to the kinetic energy of the exiting electron.
C)the sum of the entering and exiting kinetic energy of the incident electron.
D)the difference between the entering and exiting kinetic energy of the incoming electron.
Q3) The types of target interaction that occur in the production of x-ray photons in the diagnostic range are dependent upon the
A)incident electron kinetic energy.
B)nuclear binding energy.
C)incident electron potential energy.
D)band gap of the valence electrons.
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9
Chapter 8: Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that influence the effect of exposure to ionizing radiation include
A)the total dose received.
B)the type of radiation.
C)cell sensitivity.
D)all of the above
Q2) Optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeters
A)are not commonly employed with routine use.
B)provide an immediate readout to the user.
C)are precise with low level exposures.
D)use a chip of LiF as the detector material.
Q3) One joule of energy absorbed in each kilogram of absorbing material defines the A)sievert.
B)kerma.
C)becquerel.
D)gray.
Q4) All of the following would be recorded on a radiation dosimetry report EXCEPT A)body mass index (BMI).
B)control badge exposure.
C)lifetime equivalent dose.
D)radiation quality.
10
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Chapter 9: Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and
Personnel
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protective aprons and gloves are usually made of lead-impregnated vinyl within the range of ____ lead equivalency.
A)0.25-1.0 mm
B)0.25-1.0 cm
C)0.1-0.25 mm
D)0.1-0.25 cm
Q2) Proper x-ray beam collimation does all of the following EXCEPT
A)reduce patient dose.
B)improve radiographic image quality.
C)eliminate the need for gonadal shielding.
D)reduce scatter radiation.
Q3) Deterministic effects of ionizing radiation include all of the following EXCEPT A)sterility.
B)cataracts.
C)skin erythema.
D)cancer.
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11
Chapter 10: Filtration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the inherent filtration of a typical x-ray equipment comes from the
A)dielectric oil.
B)window of the glass envelope.
C)Plexiglas collimator shadow plate.
D)collimator mirror.
Q2) unit of overall x-ray beam quality
A)compound filter
B)added
C)Thoraeus filter
D)trough filter
E)beryllium
F)aluminum
G)HVL
H)keV
I)1.5 mm aluminum minimum filtration
J)2.5 mm Al
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12
Chapter 11: The Prime Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increasing the energy of an incident electron will result in the production of an x-ray photon with
A)greater energy.
B)less energy.
C)greater charge.
D)greater velocity.
Q2) A radiograph is produced using 25 mAs at 80 kVp.To cut the exposure in half, how much should the kVp be increased?
Q3) If the mAs of a radiograph is increased from 10 to 20, the resulting radiograph will exhibit
A)decreased radiographic film density.
B)decreased radiographic contrast.
C)increased radiographic film density.
D)increased radiographic contrast.
Q4) An x-ray exposure of 100 mR is recorded at a distance of 40 inches.To reduce the exposure to 25 mR, to what will the distance need to be changed?
Q5) An x-ray exposure of 200 mR is recorded at a distance of 40 inches.If the same technical factors are used, what will the exposure be if the distance is increased to 72 inches?
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Chapter 12: X-Ray Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compton scattering occurs when an incident x-ray photon interacts with a ____ electron.
A)loosely bound inner-shell
B)tightly bound inner-shell
C)loosely bound outer-shell
D)tightly bound outer-shell
Q2) During the photoelectric interaction, as an electron transfers from an outer shell to a vacant inner shell, energy is released in the form of
A)a characteristic photon.
B)a primary radiation.
C)an incident electron.
D)a gamma photon.
Q3) If a photon interacts with matter and scatters, the photon
A)no longer exists.
B)exists with greater energy.
C)exists with less energy.
D)is totally absorbed.
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14
Chapter 13: Minimizing Patient Dose
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Sample Questions
Q1) dose relationship is inverse.
A)60 kVp
B)shaped contact
C)focal spot size
D)distance (SID)
E)44-48 inches
F)AP supine abdomen position
G)oblique projection of the abdomen
H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp
Q2) In an effort to minimize patient dose,
A)the small focal spot should be used.
B)the large focal spot should be used.
C)beam filtration should be minimum.
D)none of the above.
Q3) When comparing ESE and actual dose to an area of interest,
A)actual dose is higher than ESE.
B)ESE and actual are equal.
C)the actual dose and ESE are inverse.
D)actual dose is lower than ESE.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Vision and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scotopic vision is controlled by the A)rods.
B)iris.
C)cones.
D)pupil.
Q2) Photopic vision is controlled by the A)rods.
B)iris.
C)cones.
D)pupil.
Q3) The human body is
A)a three-dimensional object.
B)composed of countless structural lines.
C)composed of anatomy always in motion.
D)all of the above
Q4) All radiographic images are missing the critical diagnostic element of A)depth.
B)length.
C)width.
D)none of the above
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Chapter 15: Beam Restriction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The diameter of the lower rim of a cone is 5 inches.The bottom of the cone is placed at a distance of 15 inches from the focal spot.What will be the size of the projected image at a 40-inch SID?
Q2) A radiographer can best reduce the amount of scatter radiation from reaching the receptor by A)collimating.
B)beam restriction.
C)utilizing a grid.
D)all of the above
Q3) The principal factors that affect the amount of scatter produced are mAs and the type of irradiated material.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As the volume of irradiated tissue ____, the amount of scatter produced ____.
A)increases; increases B)increases; decreases C)decreases; increases D)decreases; decreases
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Chapter 16: The Patient As a Beam Emitter
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Sample Questions
Q1) 6.46
A)Compton scatter
B)photoelectric effect
C)12.31
D)air
E)fat
F)water
G)bone
H)chest
I)subject detail
J)subject density
Q2) Attenuation is greater for elements with more ____ with which the photons may interact.
A)electrons
B)protons
C)neutrons
D)positrons
Q3) The incident beam is significantly altered as it passes through the patient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Pathology Problem
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a small bronchopneumonia has developed a large pneumothorax.The correct selection of exposure factors would require
A)a decrease in exposure technique.
B)an increase in exposure technique.
C)an increase in kVp to penetrate the pneumothorax.
D)no change in exposure technique.
Q2) pus in the thoracic cavity
A)additive conditions
B)Paget's disease
C)gout
D)hyperparathyroidism
E)empyema
F)destructive conditions
G)atrophy
H)pneumonia
Q3) A small 5 mm renal calculi in a patient's KUB image would represent
A)an additive condition and an increase in mAs of 25%.
B)no change in exposure technique.
C)a destructive condition due the associated ascites.
D)a destructive condition and a decrease in kVp.
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Chapter 18: The Grid
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Sample Questions
Q1) As kVp increases,
A)contrast decreases.
B)scatter increases.
C)image receptor exposure increases.
D)all of the above
Q2) Which grid would have the greatest distance between lead strips?
A)15:1
B)12:1
C)8:1
D)6:1
Q3) The greatest source of scatter during a radiographic examination is the A)patient.
B)tube.
C)image receptor.
D)grid.
Q4) As the lead content of a grid increases,
A)the contrast improvement factor (K) decreases.
B)the ability of the grid to remove scatter increases.
C)the contrast decreases.
D)exposure to the image receptor increases.
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Chapter 19: Radiographic Film
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before a brand new box of radiographic film that has been in cold storage is used,
A)the expiration date should be checked.
B)the film should be brought up to room temperature.
C)the box should be opened in a safelight environment.
D)all of the above
Q2) The impurity added to the crystal lattice is
A)gold-silver nitride.
B)gold-silver sulfide.
C)gold-platinum nitride.
D)gold-platinum sulfide.
Q3) The complete construction of diagnostic radiographic film includes A)a polyester base.
B)an adhesive material.
C)an emulsion.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 20: Film Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pass box is used to pass__________ to and from the darkroom.
A)chemicals.
B)contrast media.
C)film cassettes
D)replenisher
Q2) The primary chemical agents in the fixer are called ____ agents.
A)reducing
B)clearing
C)washing
D)replenishment
Q3) Reducing agents ____ positive silver ions.
A)neutralize
B)develop
C)fix
D)activate
Q4) The most common developer solution hardener is A)potassium bromide.
B)sodium sulfite.
C)gluteraldehyde.
D)water.
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Chapter 21: Film Sensitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A penetrometer is also referred to as a A)densitometer.
B)step wedge.
C)sensitometer.
D)gradient wedge.
Q2) Resolution is also known as
A)detail.
B)definition.
C)resolving power.
D)all of the above
Q3) numerically measures radiographic density
A)speed point
B)gamma
C)step wedge
D)densitometer
E)characteristic curve
F)latitude
G)average gradient
H)sensitometer
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Intensifying Screens and Film Screen
Combinations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is not related to resolution?
A)screen speed
B)crystal size
C)layer thickness
D)base material
Q2) What percentage of the latent image is formed by x-ray photons?
A)100 percent
B)99 percent
C)50 percent
D)1 percent
Q3) To increase the speed of an intensifying screen,
A)increase phosphor size.
B)decrease the phosphor layer thickness.
C)decrease phosphor concentration.
D)remove the reflective layer.
Q4) When a phosphor is struck by an x-ray photon, it will emit light
A)parallel to the angle of incidence.
B)perpendicular to the angle of incidence.
C)at a 45-degree angle to the angle of incidence.
D)in all directions.
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Chapter 23: Digital Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The deviation index (DI)
A)compares entrance dose to the detector to a reference industry-standard target dose.
B)compares entrance dose to the patient to a reference industry-standard target dose.
C)compares exit dose to the detector to a reference industry-standard target dose.
D)compares DQE and MTF with a reference value.
Q2) Computed radiography is also referred to as A)PSP technology.
B)flat panel technology.
C)indirect DR.
D)direct DR.
Q3) The purpose of a LUT is to
A)determine the exposure index.
B)create the histogram.
C)apply a predetermined scale of contrast to the digital data set.
D)perform geometric processing in order to reorient the image on display.
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Chapter 24: Picture Archiving and Communication Systems
Pacs
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are advantages to soft-copy display EXCEPT
A)multiple viewing of the same image.
B)images visualized on film.
C)variations in density or contrast.
D)decreased number of lost films.
Q2) image displayed on a flat panel monitor
A)WAN
B)LAN
C)BMI
D)soft copy
E)DICOM
F)hard copy
G)SOP
H)LCD
Q3) For how many years do many institutions store radiographic film images?
A)1 to 2 years
B)1 to 5 years
C)5 to 7 years
D)5 to 10 years
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Chapter 25: The Imaging Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a radiograph of the lumbar spine (AP) is completed, the final image reveals a S# of 758.Your correct image analysis leads you to
A)increase the mAs by 10% and repeat the image.
B)increase the kVp by 4 kVp and repeat the image.
C)decrease the SID to 36" and repeat the image.
D)none of the above
Q2) Which of these activities would be inconsistent with the "scope of practice" of the radiographer?
A)suggesting methods to improve fluoroscopic image quality to a radiologist
B)helping an ER physician identify a pneumonia on a chest radiograph
C)obtaining additional patient information to add to an existing patient history that was taken by a nurse
D)repeating a suboptimal radiograph after determining the S# was too high
Q3) All of the following are related except one.Select the choice not related to the others.
A)image analysis
B)image acquisition
C)image transmission
D)image processing
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Chapter 26: Densityir Exposure
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Q1) What conclusion can you reach regarding an image with an S# of 750 and good radiographic image density on the display monitor?
A)The image is likely to demonstrate noise or quantum mottle.
B)There was not enough exposure to create a good histogram.
C)The noise level will be at a minimum and the image will look good in the magnification mode.
D)The IR received too much exposure.
Q2) The density of the radiographic image in a film-based environment is the A)easiest prime technical factor to evaluate.
B)result of black metallic silver deposited on a film
C)degree of overall blackening of the image.
D)all of the above
Q3) If a satisfactory radiograph is obtained at 72 in.with a patient exposure of 4 R, what will the exposure be if the distance is reduced to 40 in.?
Q4) Which rule is used as a guide to maintain the same density when kVp changes?
A)doubling rule
B)15% rule
C)inverse square rule
D)density maintenance law
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Chapter 27: Contrast
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following factors would affect radiographic contrast EXCEPT
A)field size.
B)SID and OID.
C)receptor characteristics.
D)focal spot selection.
Q2) Which of the choices below does not increase contrast?
A)increasing grid ratio
B)increasing the amount of irradiated tissue
C)decreasing filtration
D)decreasing kVp
Q3) A radiograph that demonstrates minimal differences between density shades is called
A)short scale.
B)low contrast.
C)high contrast.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 28: Recorded Detail
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Sample Questions
Q1) switching from a RS 400 receptor to a RS 200 receptor
A)PSF
B)quantum noise
C)resolution increase
D)MTF
E)MF
F)LSF
G)aliasing
H)loss of visibility of detail
Q2) results from insufficient mAs
A)PSF
B)quantum noise
C)resolution increase
D)MTF
E)MF
F)LSF
G)aliasing
H)loss of visibility of detail
Q3) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 1.0 mm focal spot, at a 40 in.distance and OID of 5 in.
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Chapter 29: Distortion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which examination does not exhibit an inherently large OID?
A)AP lumbar spine
B)lateral cervical spine
C)lateral chest
D)AP facial bones
Q2) MF
A)kidneys
B)SID SOD
C)elongation
D)SOD
E)object size
F)scapula
G)foreshortening
H)patella
Q3) Opening up the intervertebral joints of the cervical spine would best be accomplished with
A)the patient in a PA projection at 72" SID.
B)the patient in an AP projection with a 40" SID.
C)a perpendicular central ray at 72" SID.
D)the patient in a PA projection with a 40" SID.
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Chapter 30: The Art of Image Critique
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Sample Questions
Q1) As medical imaging continues to adopt digital imaging technologies, one of the greatest challenges for technologists regarding image analysis will be
A)clearly identifying the problem as a photographic vs. geometric problem with detail.
B)identifying possible causes that may be electronic in nature.
C)determining if post-processing algorithms are accurate.
D)all of the above
Q2) With film-screen radiography, the largest percentage of image quality problems center around
A)film-screen contact.
B)inconsistent film quality from manufacturers.
C)automatic processing.
D)darkroom errors.
Q3) All of the following are related EXCEPT
A)exposure timer error.
B)technical factor problem.
C)equipment malfunction problem.
D)procedural factor problem.
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32
Chapter 31: Quality Management
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Q1) Installation and acceptance testing of equipment is the responsibility of the A)radiation physicist.
B)radiology supervisor.
C)radiology equipment vendor.
D)staff radiographer.
Q2) used to check high frequency generator timer
A)synchronous motor spinning top
B)2% of SID
C)DQE
D)MQSA
E)12 inches
F)S:N ratio
G)exposure reproducibility
H)15 inches
Q3) The accuracy of single-phase generator time settings can be measured with a A)sensitometer.
B)densitometer.
C)spinning top test.
D)penetrometer.
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Chapter 32: Exposure Systems and Charts
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Q1) When developing a fixed kVp exposure system it is important to remember that
A)tube heat loading increases
B)the optimal kVp selected is the maximum kVp established
C)exposure times may be longer.
D)a single kVp value is acceptable for all body parts and thicknesses.
Q2) All of the following are advantages of the fixed kVp technique system EXCEPT:
A)Patient dose is higher.
B)mAs values are at a minimum based upon thickness.
C)Radiographic contrast is predictable and uniform.
D)A greater exposure latitude is permitted.
Q3) Variable kVp systems
A)produce higher contrast images than other systems do.
B)enhance the visibility of detail.
C)increase the perception of resolution.
D)all of the above
Q4) Anatomically programmed radiography (APR) exposure settings
A)are suggested factors.
B)may be modified by the radiographer.
C)may be reprogrammed by the user.
D)all of the above
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Automatic Exposure Controls
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Q1) In the event that the mAs needed for a small anatomical structure is very small, in order to ensure the AEC terminates the exposure correctly,
A)the kVp should be increased.
B)the mA should be decreased.
C)all three detectors should activated.
D)the large focal spot should be used.
Q2) When an AEC is used for an AP lumbar spine, which ionization chambers are utilized?
A)the center cell
B)the left and right outer cells
C)all three cells
D)the right outer cell only
Q3) When an AEC is used for an AP abdomen, which ionization chambers are utilized?
A)the center cell
B)the left and right outer cells
C)all three cells
D)the left outer cell only
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Chapter 34: Exposure Conversion Problems
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Q1) The relationship between receptor speed and exposure mAs is A)inverse.
B)indirect and linear.
C)direct.
D)direct and linear.
Q2) reduce kVp from 94 to 84 with mAs compensation
A)decreased density
B)focal spot size
C)longer scale of contrast
D)grid ratio
E)receptor speed
F)increased mAs by 2x
G)additive pathology
H)higher amount of contrast
I)destructive pathology
J)density-distance relationship
Q3) A radiograph is produced using 70 kVp and 10 mAs.If mAs is increased to 20, how much kVp is required to maintain exposure?
Q4) A radiograph is produced using 10 mAs at a 40 in.distance.Calculate the new distance if 25 mAs is used.
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Chapter 35: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) During optimal mobile radiography of the chest, the recommended SID is ____ inches.
A)72
B)56
C)40
D)36
Q2) During mobile radiography, it is the radiographer's responsibility to protect
A)the patient.
B)other health professionals.
C)the public.
D)all of the above
Q3) The more advanced, full-power mobile units use ____ energy for a power supply.
A)solar
B)battery
C)thermal
D)alternating current
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Fluoroscopy
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Q1) All of the following are common post-processing features with digital fluoroscopy EXCEPT
A)last image hold (LIH).
B)digital subtraction.
C)window level and width.
D)edge enhancement.
Q2) The most commonly used fluoroscopic viewing system is A)mirrors.
B)real-time video monitors.
C)dry laser images.
D)videotape.
Q3) Electrostatic lenses are used to accelerate and focus
A)light photons.
B)x-ray photons.
C)electrons.
D)scattered photons.
Q4) What is the minification gain for an image intensification tube with an input screen diameter of 5 in.and an output diameter of 1 in.?
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Chapter 37: Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis
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Q1) Phantoms most commonly occur when the tube motion is ____ to the long axis of the structure.
A)parallel
B)perpendicular
C)tangential
D)all of the above
Q2) Nearly all contemporary tomography currently is
A)linear.
B)polytomography.
C)multidirectional.
D)stratotomography.
Q3) All of the following are true of digital tomosynthesis EXCEPT:
A)Multiple views are taken of the anatomy.
B)Flat panel detectors are essential to this technology.
C)The images taken are dynamic and real-time.
D)The software to reconstruct the images is different from the algorithms of CT.
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Chapter 38: Mammography
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Q1) Breast compression is applied at ____ pounds of force.
A)1 to 5
B)5 to 20
C)25 to 45
D)50 to 60
Q2) Dedicated mammography machines use ____ generators.
A)falling-load
B)single-phase, high frequency
C)capacitor discharge
D)three-phase
Q3) The disadvantage to using low kVp in mammography is its ability to produce
A)a very low-energy x-ray beam.
B)high radiographic contrast.
C)a soft x-ray beam.
D)an increased patient dose.
Q4) The port of the x-ray tube in mammography is composed of A)barium.
B)rhodium.
C)molybdenum.
D)beryllium.
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Chapter 39: Bone Densitometry
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Q1) The likelihood of a bone fracture and bone integrity is best measured by A)assessing the bone mineral density (BMD).
B)cortical thickness.
C)the ratio between compact bone and spongy bone.
D)basal metabolic rate (BMR).
Q2) Primary osteoporosis
A)can be classified as Type I and Type II.
B)is often the result of hyperparathyroidism.
C)often results from metastatic bone disease.
D)can occur in persons taking gluticocorticoids.
Q3) A significant loss of bone mass and bone density results in the condition of A)osteopetrosis.
B)osteochondritis dissecans.
C)osteoporosis.
D)osteoid osteoma.
Q4) Eighty percent of human skeletal mass is made up of A)cancellous bone.
B)cortical bone.
C)spongy bone.
D)trabecular bone.
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Chapter 40: Vascular Imaging Equipment
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Q1) What type of image acquisition is used when eliminating bone and soft tissue structures from an image so that only contrast-filled vessels remain?
A)digital angiography
B)digital subtraction angiography
C)digital cineradiography
D)image reversal angiography
Q2) How many heat units are generated by a series of 15 exposures using 75 kVp, 400 mA, 150 ms sec.using a HF generator?
Q3) Quality control programs in the vascular imaging laboratory require
A)a close relationship with the equipment vendor.
B)periodic monitoring of viewing systems such as video monitors.
C)in-house biomedical engineers working at a "first-line " level supported by the vendor.
D)all of the above
Q4) Vascular imaging generators should have the capacity to deliver ____ mA.
A)50
B)100
C)300
D)1,000
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Chapter 41: Computed Tomography
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Q1) If the table is moving at 5 mm/sec., and a pitch of 0.8 is being used, what is the section thickness?
Q2) With MSCT scanners, resolution is primarily determined by A) prepatient collimation.
B) dose.
C) collimation at the detector.
D) gantry rotation speed.
Q3) The gantry of the CT unit contains the A)post-processing workstation.
B)operator's interface.
C)x-ray tube.
D)all of the above
Q4) CT scan pitch uses all of the following technical parameters EXCEPT A)slice thickness.
B)360-degree<sup> </sup>gantry rotation.
C)acquisition mAs .
D)table increment.
Q5) If a pitch of 1.0 is being used with a section thickness of 8 mm, what is the proper table speed?
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Chapter 42: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Q1) The gradient coils determine the A)section thickness.
B)resolution.
C)plane of the image.
D)all of the above
Q2) The MHz frequency magnetic field for MRI is produced by a/an
A)radio transmitter coil.
B)optical cable.
C)digital converter.
D)none of the above
Q3) To produce magnetic field gradients in MRI, electromagnetic coils are oriented in A)one dimension.
B)two dimensions.
C)three dimensions.
D)four dimensions.
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Chapter 43: Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) In terms of the regulation of radionuclides and nuclear medicine facility, if a particular state conducts the inspections and enforces the NRC regulations in place of the NRC, the state is considered a/an
A)compliant state.
B)coop - state.
C)agreement state.
D)NRC dependent state.
Q2) Positron emission tomography (PET) scanning A)requires sophisticated lead collimators.
B)is more sensitive than non-PET imaging for the same radionuclide amount.
C)produces image of less resolution than planar images.
D)relies on the creation of a neutron annihilating an electron to create a pair of x-ray photons from the electron cloud.
Q3) The physical half-life of technetium-99 is approximately A)110 minutes.
B)2 hours.
C)6 hours.
D)73 hours.
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Chapter 44: Radiation Therapy
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Q1) The treatment planning process is typically completed
A)using a linear accelerator.
B)using a Cobalt radiotherapy unit.
C)using a simulator.
D)using an MR simulator.
Q2) Imaging gives the radiation therapist and oncologist
A)a perspective of the shrinkage of the tumor as radiation is being administered.
B)an opportunity to see if the patient's vital structures are being damaged during treatment sessions.
C)the ability to compare the planned treatment field with the anatomy of the patient. D)the flexibility to adjust dosages during treatment sessions.
Q3) The very first successful use of radiation energy to treat and cure a disease process was with a case of A)acne.
B)psoriasis.
C)retinoblastoma.
D)melanoma.
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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Medical Sonography
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Q1) High frequency transducers have
A)better resolution and less penetration.
B)better resolution and better penetration.
C)lower resolution and less penetration.
D)lower resolution and better penetration.
Q2) The intensity of the returning echoes in medical sonography is determined by
A)the difference in Z values between tissue membranes.
B)the window and level of the output image.
C)the concentration of the ultrasound gel (coupler).
D)how hard the sonographer presses the transducer into the patient's flesh.
Q3) Which of the following patient pathologies would NOT be well-suited for sonographic examination?
A)cholelithiasis
B)ovarian cyst
C)ventricular septal defect (VSD)
D)osteomyelitis
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