Course Introduction
Imaging in Dentistry Pre-Test
Questions
Imaging in Dentistry is a comprehensive course that explores the principles, techniques, and applications of various imaging modalities used in dental practice. Students will learn about the fundamentals of radiographic physics, intraoral and extraoral imaging methods, digital radiography, and advanced modalities such as cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). The course emphasizes radiation safety, image interpretation, and diagnostic accuracy, as well as the integration of imaging findings into clinical decision-making. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and practical exercises, students will gain the knowledge and skills necessary to effectively utilize imaging in diagnosis, treatment planning, and follow-up care in dentistry.
Recommended Textbook
Radiology for the Dental Professional 9th Edition by Herbert H. Frommer
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Ionizing Radiation and Basic Principles of X-Ray Generation
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Q1) Collimator cutoff (cone cutting)is caused by:
A)improper horizontal angulation
B)over filtration
C)improper beam film alignment
D)improper vertical angulation
Answer: C
Q2) The quality of the x-ray photons is determined by the __________.
Answer: kilovoltage
Q3) The difference in the electromagnetic spectrum between x-rays and visible light lies in the:
A)wavelength
B)frequency
C)energy
D)subatomic particles
Answer: A
Q4) The amount of heat produced in the x-ray tube is ________ than the amount of radiation produced.
Answer: greater
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Q5) The quantity of x-ray photons produced is determined by the _________ setting. Answer: milliamperage
Chapter 3: Image Formation
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Q1) Identify the source-to-film distance (FFD)which produces the most amount of image magnification:
A)6 inches
B)10 inches
C)12 inches
D)16 inches
Answer: A
Q2) In order to increase the contrast on a radiograph one should ________ the kVp.
Answer: decrease
Q3) Penumbra can be described as:
A)definition
B)detail
C)blurring
D)sharpness
Answer: C
Q4) When using the bisecting method the object-film distance is kept to a ______________.
Answer: minimum
Q5) The most common cause of poor definition in a radiograph is ___________.
Answer: movement
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Chapter 4: Image Receptors
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Q1) Film-screen imaging systems produce ___________ definition than intraoral film.
Q2) When the x-ray photons strike the phosphors of the intensifying screen ________ photons are produced.
Q3) A film that has been fogged will have decreased _____________.
Q4) The advantage of double-emulsion intraoral films over the old single emulsion films is:
A)more flexibility
B)faster developing time
C)less radiation exposure for the patient
D)increased darkroom illumination
Q5) The plot of film density versus exposure time is called a (an)___________.
Q6) The main advantage of intensifying screens is:
A)quicker developing
B)less radiation to the patient
C)easier to prepare the cassette
D)better image definition
Q7) Film cassettes can be either _______ or _______.
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Chapter 5: Biologic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) Describe the event when x-ray photons directly hit critical areas with the cells and cause damage to the DNA of the cells:
A)indirect effect
B)ionization
C)direct effect
D)formation of toxins
Q2) Identify this type of interaction with matter: an x-ray photon has its path altered by the atom, but no change to the atom occurs;a photon of scatter radiation is produced.
A)no interaction
B)Thompson scatter
C)photoelectric effect
D)Compton effect
Q3) Identify the largest source of artificial radiation to which the population is exposed:
A)medical and dental radiation
B)consumer products
C)nuclear accidents
D)solar radiation
Q4) The quality factor in measuring x-radiation is ___________.
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Chapter 6: Patient Protection
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Q1) The removal of the long wavelength, low energy x-ray photons from the beam is the job of the:
A)collimator
B)filters
C)insulating oil
D)open-ended cone
Q2) To get the diagnostic benefits from radiographs, optimum film viewing requirements include:
A)use of an illuminating device
B)use of a film mount
C)a darkened room
D)all of the above
Q3) An x-ray machine that has tube-head drift may produce dental images that are:
A)distorted
B)blurred
C)cone-cut
D)all of the above
Q4) Presently the maximum permissible dose (MPD)for dental workers with ionizing radiation is _______________.
Q5) Mechanical timers are usually inaccurate by at least a _________ second.
Page 7
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Chapter 7: Operator Protection
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Q1) When using rectangular collimation with the paralleling technique one must use a:
A)localizing film-holding device
B)bite tab
C)8-inch FFD
D)none of the above
Q2) The collimator limits the size and shape of the x-ray beam to no more than:
A)one inch at the skin
B)2 3/4 inches at the skin
C)3 1/2 inches at the skin
D)5 inches at the skin
Q3) Operators of dental radiographic equipment should be able to stand how far from the x-ray tube head during exposure:
A)3 feet
B)6 feet
C)12 feet
D)20 feet
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Chapter 8: Film Processing: the Darkroom
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Q1) The washing step between the developer and fixer solution usually lasts approximately 20 seconds. It is safe to open the darkroom door during this time period.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q2) The minimum size for a darkroom should be:
A)2 × 2 feet
B)4 × 4 feet
C)6 × 6 feet
D)none of the above
Q3) Panoramic films are __________ sensitive to darkroom light than intraoral film.
Q4) Cell phones should not be used in the darkroom because:
A)the illumination from the phone could cause film fog or expose the film
B)talking on the phone while processing radiographs is confusing
C)the phone could be dropped into the processing solutions
D)the operator may inadvertently open the darkroom door while processing
Q5) A clear film can be caused by ______ or _______.
Q6) Defective film hangers should be disposed of because they can cause
Page 9
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Chapter 9: Infection Control in Dental Practice
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Q1) Barrier pack films:
A)need higher kVp
B)need more mAs
C)should only be used for the bisecting method
D)none of the above
Q2) Identify the most common transmission route of HIV, HBV, and HCV:
A)saliva
B)blood
C)body fluids
D)aerosols
Q3) Although it does not get much publicity, _________ is the greatest health risk for dental health care workers.
Q4) The steps of infection control are taken to benefit and protect:
A)ourselves
B)our fellow workers
C)our patients
D)all of the above
Q5) Anything one touches after working in the patient's mouth is considered to be
Q6) Infection control procedures should be followed for __________ patients.
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Chapter 10: Intraoral Technique: the Paralleling Method
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Q1) Improper horizontal beam alignment results in:
A)overlapping
B)collimator cut-off
C)film placement
D)elongation
Q2) Identify the film necessary to diagnose pathologic conditions of the tooth root:
A)bitewing
B)periapical
C)occlusal
D)skull
Q3) Using the paralleling technique to evaluate periodontal bone height is essential because the paralleling technique prevents excessive ______________.
Q4) Identify the most common error seen with the paralleling technique:
A)overlapping
B)collimator cut-off
C)film placement
D)elongation
Q5) When the PID is not positioned so that it almost touches the patient's face, a ________ film will result.
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Chapter 11: Accessory Radiographic Techniques: Bisecting
Technique and Occlusal Projections
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Q1) Occlusal films can be processed in the darkroom, with similar technique to standard intraoral films. The exposure times of occlusal films is usually greater than intraoral periapical films.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q2) Identify the major disadvantage of the bisecting technique:
A)images produced are often distorted
B)it is difficult for the patient
C)the long cone required is bulky and hard to manage
D)film holding devices may be confusing
Q3) In the bisecting technique the tooth-film distance is:
A)maximal
B)minimal
C)not important
D)none of the above
Q4) A -5 degree vertical angulation for the lower incisors will produce a (an)________ image.
Page 12
Q5) If the vertical angulation of the PID is insufficient, _______ will result.
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Chapter 12: Panoramic Radiography
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Q1) The facial exposure from a panoramic radiograph is roughly equivalent to
Q2) Identify the area of the mouth in which most overlapped images are seen during panoramic radiography:
A)incisors
B)canines
C)premolars
D)molars
Q3) Panoramic films are processed:
A)in the same manner as intraoral films
B)only with automatic processors
C)by sight development
D)with a safelight of less intensity
Q4) Identify the error seen if a panoramic radiograph is exposed to the light from a cell phone during processing:
A)film will be darker
B)film will be lighter
C)film will be fogged
D)no change will be seen in the processed radiograph
Q5) All of the patient's __________ must be removed before taking a pantomogram.
13
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Chapter 13: Extraoral Techniques
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Q1) Extraoral projections should use:
A)100 kVp
B)65 kVp
C)45 kVp
D)none of the above
Q2) Extraoral films are processed:
A)in the same manner as intraoral films
B)only with automatic processors
C)by sight development
D)with a safelight of less intensity
Q3) For patients with bilateral mandibular impactions, the right and left lateral oblique techniques have been replaced by:
A)occlusal films
B)posterior anterior projections
C)panoramic films
D)all of the above
Q4) Cassettes with intensifying screens are used in extraoral radiography to ________.
Q5) The extraoral projection used in cephalometric analysis is the _________ projection.
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Chapter 14: Radiography of the Temporomandibular Joint
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Q1) The ________ projection can be used to view the TMJ from the axial plane.
Q2) On the average, the exposure time at 65 kVp and 10 mA for a transcranial projection is:
A)7 to 10 impulses
B)7 to 10 seconds
C)7 to 15 impulses
D)7 to 15 seconds
Q3) Identify the most common extraoral view used to examine the temporomandibular joint after the panoramic examination:
A)transcranial projection
B)submentovertex projection
C)skull projection
D)MRI
Q4) _________ enables viewing of an area in three planes.
Q5) For the transcranial technique, the central ray is aimed _____ inches above and _____ inch in front of the external auditory meatus.
Q6) In TMJ radiography it is preferable to take films in the __________ positions.
Q7) The major cause of TMJ disorders is the __________.
Page 15
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Chapter 15: Digital Imaging
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Q1) Compared to D-speed film, the reduction of radiation dose to the patient when using digital imaging is approximately:
A)10%
B)25%
C)50%
D)90%
Q2) One advantage of the storage phosphor technique is that the sensor:
A)is larger
B)is thicker
C)is slightly more flexible
D)is more sensitive to radiation
Q3) The computer used for digital imaging:
A)cannot be used for other office functions
B)can be used for other functions
C)is the most expensive component of the system
D)is nonessential hardware
Q4) The cost of a digital imaging unit is approximately __________.
Q5) One of the advantages of digital radiography over film is _________.
Q6) Digital radiography is now another link to the ________ dental office.
Q7) In the optical scanning method one starts with the __________.
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Chapter 16: Advanced Imaging Systems
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Q1) CBVT (CBCT)imaging may be utilized in dentistry for all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
A)evaluation of interproximal caries
B)implant treatment planning
C)oral pathologies
D)evaluation of impacted teeth
Q2) The energy source for CT scans is:
A)gamma radiation
B)radio waves
C)ultrasound
D)x-radiation
Q3) With the film-screen system, __________ exposures are made to obtain the diagnostic information contained in one CT scan.
Q4) The CT number for air is:
A)-1000
B)1000
C)0
D)500
Q5) CT images can be sent by _________ to specialists for consultation.
Q6) ___________ sources of energy are used for CT scanning than for MRI.
Page 17
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Chapter 17: Quality Assurance
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Q1) QA programs for digital imaging include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)sensor cables should be carefully uncoiled each day
B)phosphor plates should be submerged in cold sterilizing solutions after each patient
C)the sensor and cable should not be clamped by a hemostat
D)the cable should be placed so that the operator chair does not roll over it
Q2) Guidelines for storage of unprocessed and unexposed films include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)storage in a warm, humid location
B)stored at temperatures between 50° F and 70° F
C)stored in a ventilated area
D)used before the expiration date on the package
Q3) To maintain high levels of chairside competence, a successful QA program will employ:
A)self-evaluation programs
B)continuing education courses
C)peer review with other professionals in the office
D)all of the above
Q4) Processing solutions should be changed _________, depending on the workload.
Q5) The powder capable of contaminating intraoral film is approximately ___% lead.
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Chapter 18: Patient Management and Special Problems
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Q1) Identify a suitable extraoral substitute for the child who is unable to tolerate intraoral film placement:
A)skull
B)cephalometric
C)Waters' view
D)lateral oblique
Q2) The reverse bitewing technique is really a(n):
A)lateral oblique projection
B)occlusal projection
C)bisecting projection
D)posterior anterior projection
Q3) Identify an option(s)for radiographing a patient with trismus:
A)extraoral radiographs
B)intraoral placement with a hemostat
C)panoramic radiographs
D)all of the above
Q4) It is __________ for a caregiver or parent to be in the operatory (with careful safety precautions taken)when radiographs are taken of a patient with a disability.
Q5) A film that is dragged across the patient's palate may cause ___________.
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Chapter 19: Film Mounting and Radiographic Anatomy
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Q1) Occlusal projections are taken in the:
A)sagittal plane
B)coronal plane
C)axial plane
D)frontal plane
Q2) The broad radiolucent band seen just below the internal oblique ridge is the
Q3) Identify the commonly-seen radiolucent landmark in the apical area of the mandibular premolars:
A)mental ridge
B)lateral fossa
C)mental foramen
D)incisive foramen
Q4) Mandibular landmarks visible on panoramic radiographs include:
A)mandibular condyle
B)condylar neck
C)sigmoid notch
D)all of the above
Q5) Temporary acrylic crowns appear ___________ on radiographs.
Q6) In order to improve viewing of radiographs, mounts should be made of
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Chapter 20: Principles of Radiographic Interpretation
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Q1) The final diagnostic role rests with the _________.
Q2) Rapidly growing lesions without distinct borders are usually:
A)cysts
B)benign
C)malignant
D)not cause for concern
Q3) Most lesions appear ________ on processed radiographs.
Q4) Cysts and benign lesions usually grow:
A)rapidly
B)at no specific rate
C)slowly
D)at various rates
Q5) ___________________ are located in specific areas of the oral cavity and are well within normal limits.
Q6) If all the borders of a lesion are not seen, the dental professional should:
A)recommend further imaging
B)retake the periapical
C)retake the bitewing
D)not take or recommend further radiographs
Q7) _________ is an "explanation" of the structures seen radiographically.
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Chapter 21: Caries and Periodontal Disease
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Q1) All of the following periodontal changes do not appear on radiographs EXCEPT:
A)moderate bone loss
B)inflammation
C)hypertrophy
D)recession
Q2) Caries that has penetrated halfway through the enamel surface is termed:
A)incipient
B)advanced
C)moderate
D)severe
Q3) Furcation involvement of periodontal disease could be found in which of the following teeth?
A)teeth #4, 5, 6
B)teeth #30, 31, 32
C)teeth #10, 11, 12
D)teeth #8, 9, 10
Q4) Radiographically when caries reaches the dentinoenamel junction it
Q5) The height of alveolar bone is best evaluated on periapical films taken by the
Q6) Cement bases under restorations appear __________ on a radiograph.
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Chapter 22: Pulpal and Periapical Lesions
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Q1) Identify the radiographic sign of pulpitis in the pulp chamber:
A)the presence of additional pulp denticles
B)widened lamina dura
C)no radiographic changes are seen
D)changes in alveolar bone
Q2) To make the diagnosis of periapical pathology, the tooth involved must test
Q3) The first detectable radiographic sign of periapical pathology is:
A)hypercementosis
B)loss of the lamina dura
C)disruption of the lamina dura
D)thickening of the periodontal ligament
Q4) Identify a possible cause(s)for the formation of secondary dentin:
A)pulp capping
B)attrition
C)deep dental caries
D)all of the above
Q5) Periapical cemental osseous dysplasia is a three-stage lesion that is _________ and self-limiting, and for which no treatment is indicated.
Page 23
Q6) Fistulous tracts are almost ________ seen on periapical radiographs.
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Chapter 23: Developmental Disturbances of Teeth and Bone
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Q1) The teeth in the area of fissural cysts usually test __________.
Q2) In amelogenesis imperfecta, the tooth tissue(s)that are affected include:
A)enamel
B)dentin
C)pulp
D)all of the above are affected
Q3) Cleft palate can occur in either the hard or soft palate, or both. Radiographically, a cleft palate will appear as a radiopaque area.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q4) When teeth chip easily and radiographs reveal short roots and early pulp calcification, __________ is present.
Q5) Dens "invaginatus" is:
A)an invagination of the enamel organ
B)usually at the point of the cingulum
C)not a "tooth within a tooth"
D)all of the above
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Chapter 24: Bone and Other Lesions
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Q1) Slow-growing lesions, such as cysts, will usually __________ teeth.
Q2) An osteoma, demonstrating an increase in the density of the bone, would appear:
A)radiolucent
B)radiopaque
C)mixed lesion
D)none of the above
Q3) The radiographic appearance of the skull in Paget's disease will show:
A)a decrease in size
B)an increase in size
C)a cotton wool bony appearance
D)none of the above
Q4) Extraction sockets may be radiographically evident:
A)in the bone
B)up to 6 months after surgery
C)initially as radiolucent areas
D)all of the above
Q5) A malignant tumor of bone will appear _________ on radiographs.
Q6) A slowly growing periapical cyst will have as its borders a ___________.
Q7) A malignant lesion will usually have an ____________ border.
Q8) Implants will appear _____________ on radiographs.
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Chapter 25: Legal Considerations
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Q1) Dental radiographs of adult patients should be kept in the office for:
A)2 years
B)4 years
C)6 months
D)7 years
Q2) The third party payers should not request _________ from the dentist.
Q3) A litigious society is one whose members are likely to _____ the dentist.
Q4) Treating a patient without proper radiographs is a breach of the:
A)law of ALARA
B)Inverse Square Law
C)MPD
D)standard of care
Q5) Dental radiographs, as other radiographs, are ______________.
Q6) Radiographs belong to the ___________.
Q7) If a patient refuses a recommended radiographic examination:
A)dental procedures should go on as planned
B)the patient should sign a release form
C)it should be entered into the patient record and treatment should not be performed
D)the patient should be asked to leave the practice
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