Imaging Anatomy and Positioning
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Imaging Anatomy and Positioning provides students with foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary for the accurate acquisition of diagnostic images. The course emphasizes understanding the anatomical structures visualized in common imaging modalities, such as radiography, computed tomography (CT), and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Students will learn proper patient positioning techniques, imaging protocols, and the significance of anatomical landmarks to ensure high-quality images for diagnostic purposes. The curriculum integrates theoretical concepts of anatomy with hands-on exercises, fostering competency in producing diagnostic images safely, efficiently, and ethically.
Recommended Textbook
merrills atlas of radiographic positioning and procedures 13th edition 3 volume set by bruce long
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Chapter 1: Preliminary Steps in Radiography
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Q1) The ability to visualize very small structures on a medical image is termed:
A) contrast.
B) density.
C) distortion.
D) spatial resolution.
Answer: D
Q2) Which organizations jointly revised and adopted the Code of Ethics for Radiologic Technologists in the United States?
A) American College of Radiology and the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists
B) American Society of Radiologic Technologists and the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists
C) American College of Radiology and The Joint Commission
D) American Registry of Radiologic Technologists and The Joint Commission
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Compensating Filters
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Q1) A commonly performed projection that is significantly improved with the use of a compensating filter is the AP:
A) hand.
B) skull.
C) leg.
D) thoracic spine.
Answer: D
Q2) The simplest and most common shape of compensating filter is the: A) wedge.
B) trough.
C) double-wedge.
D) Boomerang.
Answer: A
Q3) The major advantage of using collimator-mounted compensating filters is: A) ease of use.
B) can be used for different body areas.
C) provide increased contrast and detail.
D) reduction in radiation exposure to the patient.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning
Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The jugular notch is located at the level of:
A) T2-T3.
B) T4-T5.
C) L2-L3.
D) L4-L5.
Answer: A
Q2) L4 and L5 are located at the level of the:
A) costal margin.
B) superior iliac spine.
C) umbilicus.
D) superior aspect of the iliac crests.
Answer: D
Q3) All of the following are located in the thoracic cavity except: A) trachea.
B) spleen.
C) lungs.
D) esophagus.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only saddle joint in the human body is the _____ joint.
A) radioulnar
B) radiocarpal
C) first digit, carpometacarpal
D) fifth digit, carpometacarpal
Q2) Which of the following would not be needed for radiographic examinations of the upper limb?
A) Lead apron
B) Sandbags
C) Compression band
D) Foam wedges
Q3) Which of the following tangential projections is used to demonstrate the carpal canal?
1)Axial
2)Inferosuperior
3)Superoinferior
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 5: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiration phase for an AP projection of the scapula is:
A) inspiration.
B) expiration.
C) suspended respiration.
D) shallow breathing.
Q2) Which of the following are clearly demonstrated on the inferosuperior axial projection of the shoulder joint?
1)Proximal humerus
2)Scapulohumeral joint
3)Acromioclavicular articulation
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The large, rounded, elevated process prominently located on the lateral surface of the proximal humerus is the:
A) greater tubercle.
B) lesser tubercle.
C) medial epicondyle.
D) lateral epicondyle.
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Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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Q1) The superior surface of the foot is termed the _____ surface.
A) dorsal
B) plantar
C) anterior
D) superior
Q2) The inferior aspect of the foot is termed the _____ surface.
A) posterior
B) caudal
C) dorsal
D) plantar
Q3) How far should the knee be flexed for the tangential projection (Settegast method) of the patella when done in the prone position?
1)50 to 60 degrees from the table
2)As much as possible
3)Until the patella is perpendicular
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Pelvis and Upper Femora
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the recommended collimated field size for an AP hip?
A) 6 * 6 inches (15 * 15 cm)
B) 8 * 10 inches (18 * 24 cm)
C) 10 * 12 inches (24 * 30 cm)
D) 14 * 17 inches (35 * 43 cm)
Q2) Which of the following methods will demonstrate the femoral necks in the AP oblique projection?
A) Original Cleaves
B) Modified Cleaves
C) Danelius-Miller
D) Lauenstein, Hickey
Q3) The respiration phase for the axiolateral projection of the hip (Danelius-Miller) is:
A) inspiration.
B) expiration.
C) suspended respiration.
D) shallow breathing.
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Chapter 8: Vertebral Column
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Q1) The vertebral column articulates with the hip bone at the:
A) sacroiliac joint.
B) pubic symphysis.
C) acetabulum.
D) lumbar-5, sacral-1 joint.
Q2) What is the central-ray angle for the AP axial oblique projection of the cervical intervertebral foramina?
A) 15 degrees cephalad
B) 15 to 20 degrees cephalad
C) 15 to 20 degrees caudad
D) Perpendicular
Q3) The short, thick processes that project posteriorly on each side of a vertebral body are called the:
A) pedicles.
B) laminae.
C) transverse processes.
D) spinous processes.
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Chapter 9: Bony Thorax
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Q1) Which of the following is the recommended breathing technique that should be used when examining the ribs that lie at the level of the diaphragm?
A) One deep inspiration (or expiration) and hold
B) Two deep expirations (or inspirations) and hold
C) Suspended respiration
D) Slow, shallow breathing
Q2) Which joints articulate with a vertebra?
1)Costovertebral
2)Costotransverse
3)Costochondral
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) For which type of body habitus will the diaphragm be at the highest level in the body?
A) Sthenic
B) Asthenic
C) Hyposthenic
D) Hypersthenic
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Chapter 10: Thoracic Viscera
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Q1) The space between the two pleural walls is called the:
A) lingula.
B) mediastinum.
C) pleural cavity.
D) parenchyma.
Q2) Which of the following must be clearly demonstrated on x-ray projections done using a decubitus position?
1)Entire lung fields
2)Patient's arms not visible in the image
3)Identification to indicate which decubitus
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Which side of the patient's chest is placed against the vertical IR for a ventral or dorsal decubitus lateral projection?
A) Affected side
B) Unaffected side
C) Either side
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Long Bone Measurement
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Q1) What projection is used for long bone measurement radiographs?
A) PA
B) AP
C) Lateral
D) Variable depending on body habitus
Q2) Which anatomic landmark is used to localize the knee joint for lower limb long bone measurement?
A) 1 inch inferior to the tibial tuberosity
B) 1 inch superior to the tibial tuberosity
C) Just below the patellar apex
D) Just above the patellar apex
Q3) Which long bone measurement technique requires three separate image receptors?
A) Scanogram
B) Orthoroentgenography
C) Teleoroentgenography
D) Direct digital radiography
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Chapter 12: Contrast Arthrography
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Q1) Which of the following is administered during arthrography before the injection of contrast?
A) Conscious sedation
B) Sterile saline
C) Local anesthetic
D) General anesthetic
Q2) Which of the following joints are most commonly examined by contrast arthrography?
1)Knee
2)Hip
3)Shoulder
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Trauma Radiography
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Q1) Which of the following procedures are appropriate for trauma patients?
1)Remove immobilization devices that may cause imaging artifacts.
2)Move tube and IR, instead of injured part, when possible.
3)Perform all AP projections, then all lateral projections.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Extreme eversion of the foot is a sign of traumatic injury to the:
A) tibia and fibula.
B) knee joint.
C) pelvis.
D) hip.
Q3) Which projection is necessary if the top of T1 and the C7-T1 interspace is not clearly demonstrated on the lateral projection, dorsal decubitus position of the cervical spine?
A) AP projection, open-mouth position
B) Lateral projection, swimmer's technique
C) Lateral projection of the thoracic spine
D) AP axial C-spine
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Chapter 14: Mouth and Salivary Glands
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Q1) The salivary glands produce how much saliva each day?
A) 0.25 L
B) 0.50 L
C) 1 L
D) 1.5 L
Q2) Which salivary gland is located on the floor of the mouth?
A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular and sublingual
Q3) The hard palate is formed by the:
A) ethmoid and vomer.
B) ethmoid and palatine bone.
C) maxillae and vomer.
D) maxillae and palatine bone.
Q4) Where does the parotid duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
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Chapter 15: Anterior Part of Neck
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Q1) For the AP projection of the pharynx and larynx, the central ray should be directed perpendicular to the:
A) thyroid cartilage.
B) laryngeal prominence.
C) cricoid cartilage.
D) jugular notch.
Q2) The roof of the posterior wall of the nasopharynx contains a mass of lymphoid tissue known as the:
A) thymus gland.
B) thyroid gland.
C) pharyngeal tonsil.
D) epiglottis.
Q3) The organ of voice is the:
A) uvula.
B) epiglottis.
C) pharynx.
D) larynx.
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Chapter 16: Abdomen
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Q1) Demonstrating small amounts of intraperitoneal gas in patients with an acute abdomen is often necessary. How long should the patient lie in the left lateral position before the exposure is made?
A) 10 to 20 minutes
B) 30 to 45 minutes
C) Variable, depending on the body habitus
D) Variable, depending on the patient's condition
Q2) Which of the following are clearly shown on a lateral abdomen projection performed with the patient in the dorsal decubitus position?
1)Prevertebral space
2)Air-fluid levels
3)Urinary bladder
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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18
Chapter 17: Digestive System: Alimentary Canal
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Q1) How far is the enema tip inserted into the rectum for a colon examination?
A) No more than 2 inches
B) No more than 3 inches
C) No more than 4 inches
D) No more than 5 inches
Q2) Food and fluid should be withheld for how many hours before a stomach examination?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 12
Q3) How much is the body rotated for the PA oblique projection of the stomach and duodenum?
A) 40 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 60 degrees
D) 40 to 70 degrees
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Chapter 18: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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Q1) The mucosal folds on the inside of the urinary bladder are called:
A) serosa.
B) omenta.
C) rugae.
D) pleura.
Q2) Which decubitus position is commonly used during an IVU examination to demonstrate the ureteropelvic junction?
A) Ventral decubitus
B) Dorsal decubitus
C) L lateral decubitus
D) R lateral decubitus
Q3) How is the central ray positioned to free the bladder neck of superimposition during a female cystourethrogram?
A) 0 degrees
B) 5 degrees caudad
C) 5 degrees cephalad
D) 10 degrees cephalad
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System
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Q1) Parts of the female reproductive system include the:
1)ovaries.
2)uterine tubes.
3)ductus deferens.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) The condition of an undescended testis is termed:
A) ectopic testicle.
B) cryptorchidism.
C) testicular torsion.
D) cryptoscrotalism.
Q3) Radiographic examinations of the male reproductive structures are rarely performed as a result of advances in:
A) computed tomography.
B) nuclear medicine.
C) sonography.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Q1) The zygomatic arches are a part of which bone?
A) Frontal
B) Parietal
C) Temporal
D) Sphenoid
Q2) The petromastoid portion is a part of which bone?
A) Temporal
B) Sphenoid
C) Occipital
D) Ethmoid
Q3) The suture located between the occipital bone and the parietal bones is the:
A) lambdoidal.
B) squamosal.
C) sagittal.
D) corona.
Q4) Which of the sinuses is developed at birth and visible radiographically?
A) Maxillary
B) Ethmoidal
C) Sphenoidal
D) Frontal
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Chapter 21: Mammography
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Q1) The common kVp used in mammography is:
A) 20.
B) 25.
C) 28.
D) 30.
Q2) Which of the following projections of the breast will best demonstrate "milk of calcium"?
A) Craniocaudal
B) Mediolateral
C) Mediolateral oblique
D) Lateromedial oblique
Q3) What percentage of patients in the United States will develop breast cancer during their lifetime?
A) 5%
B) 8%
C) 12%
D) 15%
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Q1) How many pairs of spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord?
A) 14
B) 24
C) 29
D) 31
Q2) The largest part of the brain is the:
A) cerebellum.
B) cerebrum.
C) brainstem.
D) medulla oblongata.
Q3) Which imaging examination is usually performed immediately after a myelogram?
A) MRI
B) NM
C) US
D) CT
Q4) How many fluid-containing cavities make up the ventricular system of the brain?
A) Two
B) Four
C) Six
D) Eight
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Chapter 23: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional Radiography
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Q1) The most widely used method of catheterization for selective angiography is known as the _____ method.
A) Amplatz
B) Stecher
C) modified Seldinger
D) Schüller
Q2) Which of the following compose the circulatory system?
1)Central nervous system
2)Lymphatic system
3)Blood-vascular system
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) What is the injection site for a lower limb venogram?
A) Popliteal vein
B) External iliac vein
C) Common iliac vein
D) Superficial vein in the foot
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Chapter 24: Pediatric Imaging
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Q1) Which body parts can be imaged on pediatric patients using the Pigg-O-Stat immobilizer?
A) Head and neck
B) Chest and abdomen
C) Upper and lower limb
D) Pelvis and lower limbs
Q2) Which of the following is used to evaluate adequate inspiration on a pediatric chest image?
A) Superimposition of anterior and posterior midline structures
B) Visualization of eight to nine posterior ribs
C) Visualization of the intervertebral disk spaces through the heart
D) Anatomy from the trachea to the costophrenic angles is seen
Q3) What is the most common location for an aspirated foreign body?
A) Stomach
B) Esophagus
C) Right side of bronchial tree
D) Left side of bronchial tree
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Chapter 25: Geriatric Radiography
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Q1) A common fracture site for an elderly person with osteoporosis is the:
A) first metatarsal.
B) distal radius.
C) humeral head.
D) olecranon process.
Q2) Which of the following would be common sites for decubitus ulcers?
1)Heel
2)Knee
3)Elbow
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) What system accounts for almost 50% of disability in patients older than age 65?
A) Cardiovascular
B) Gastrointestinal
C) Musculoskeletal
D) Nervous
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27
Chapter 26: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) Which of the following should be available on every mobile radiography machine?
1)Lead apron
2)Radiographic technique chart
3)Measuring caliper
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Mobile radiographic units can have direct digital capability with wired to the unit or wireless.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most grids used for mobile radiography have ratios of:
A) 6:1 or 8:1.
B) 8:1 or 10:1.
C) 10:1 or 12:1.
D) 12:1 or 16:1.
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28
Chapter 27: Surgical Radiography
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Q1) Less frequently used x-ray equipment in the OR should be cleaned:
A) every 3 days.
B) at least once a week.
C) every 2 weeks.
D) once a month.
Q2) What should the radiographer do after removing the cover from the IR?
A) Quickly take it to be processed.
B) Give it to a nonsterile team member.
C) Put it on the floor.
D) Remove gloves before handling it.
Q3) Sterile gowns are considered sterile from shoulder to:
A) cuff on the arms.
B) level of sterile field.
C) waist.
D) knee.
Q4) Reaching over a sterile field is allowed by:
A) both sterile and nonsterile team members.
B) only nonsterile team members.
C) only sterile team members.
D) only the surgeon.
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Chapter 29: Computed Tomography
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Q1) CT detectors are most commonly _____ detectors.
A) ionization (xenon gas)
B) scintillation (solid-state)
C) thermoluminescent
D) phosphorescent
Q2) CT is able to differentiate between tissues with similar densities compared with conventional radiography because of:
A) digital magnification.
B) the use of a computer for data processing.
C) improved contrast resolution.
D) axial slices.
Q3) An array of numbers arranged in a grid of rows and columns is called a:
A) pixel.
B) voxel.
C) matrix.
D) scan profile.
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Chapter 30: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Q1) Gadolinium is a contrast agent used for MRI because it has paramagnetic properties. Compared with iodine contrast, it is:
A) excreted through the bowel.
B) more toxic and has more side effects.
C) less toxic and has fewer side effects.
D) similar in all aspects.
Q2) The rates of relaxation (T1 and T2) of a hydrogen nucleus depend on the:
A) resonant frequency.
B) chemical environment.
C) electron density.
D) signal intensity.
Q3) Spin lattice relaxation (T1) is the release of energy by excited nuclei:
A) as a result of interaction among themselves.
B) to their general environment.
C) according to their precessional frequency.
D) in relation to their resonant frequency.
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Ultrasound
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Q1) If an echo pattern is similar throughout a structure or mass it is termed:
A) heterogeneous.
B) homogeneous.
C) complex.
D) anechoic.
Q2) The velocity of an ultrasound beam is:
A) constant in speed.
B) constant for all solids.
C) determined by the density of material.
D) proportional to frequency cubed.
Q3) A normal liver scan should have a _____ echo pattern.
A) hyperechoic
B) hypoechoic
C) homogeneous
D) heterogeneous
Q4) The principle on which the ultrasound transducer operates is the _____ effect.
A) photoelectric
B) crystalline
C) piezoelectric
D) transducer
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Chapter 32: Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) PET scanning is an examination that can visualize a patient's:
A) physiology.
B) anatomy.
C) soft tissue.
D) bone detail.
Q2) Positron-emitting radionuclides have a:
1)neutron-deficient nucleus.
2)proton-deficient nucleus.
3)similar size to electrons.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The radiotracer for PET scanning is chosen for:
A) studies that will show only anatomy.
B) its long half-life compared with nuclear medicine.
C) its similarity to naturally occurring biochemicals.
D) faster examination times.
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33
Chapter 33: Bone Densitometry
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Q1) Bone-destroying cells are called:
A) osteoblasts.
B) osteoclasts.
C) cancellous.
D) cortical.
Q2) Patient positioning should be exactly the same for all scans because:
A) the images need to look the same over time.
B) the results will be more precise, reflecting a true biologic change.
C) that will allow scans from different manufacturers to be comparable.
D) radiologists want the same positioning to read the images.
Q3) When obtaining patient history for a bone density exam the technologist should obtain the patient's:
1)history of fractures.
2)standing height and weight.
3)insurance information.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Page 34
Chapter 34: Radiation Oncology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24128
Sample Questions
Q1) The linac can produce a beam of electrons of varying energies when:
A) filtration is changed.
B) the target is removed.
C) IMRT is used.
D) simulation is required.
Q2) Port films are taken to:
A) verify location.
B) make blocks.
C) calculate dose.
D) see the tumor.
Q3) Radiation has more effect on cancer cells because _____ than normal cells.
A) they are more highly differentiated
B) a greater percentage of these cells are undergoing mitosis
C) cancer cells undergo more direct interactions
D) it interacts more readily with cancer cells
Q4) The basic principle of cancer treatment with radiation is that radiation:
A) stimulates cancer cells to grow.
B) damages cancer cells but stimulates normal cells.
C) damages cancer cells and normal cells equally.
D) usually damages cancer cells more than normal cells.
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