Human Resource Management Exam Review
Course Introduction
Human Resource Management is an essential discipline that focuses on the strategic and operational functions of managing people within organizations. This course covers key topics such as recruitment and selection, employee training and development, performance management, compensation and benefits, labor relations, workplace diversity, and legal aspects of employment. Through a combination of theoretical frameworks and practical applications, students will gain insight into how effective HR practices contribute to organizational success, employee satisfaction, and compliance with employment laws. The course also explores the challenges faced by HR professionals in todays dynamic business environments, emphasizing the importance of ethical leadership and innovative strategies in managing human capital.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Management Concepts and Skills 12th Edition by Samuel C. Certo
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introducing Modern Management: Concepts and Skills
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true for the management function?
A) It reaches goals by working with and through people.
B) It is a one-time function in an organization.
C) It is a series of continuing and unrelated activities.
D) It involves and concentrates on reaching individual goals.
E) It does not consider the people aspect of organizations.
Answer: A
Q2) Green Energy Inc. (GEI) is involved in obtaining energy from natural resources. As a manager at this organization, Jim must use his resources and strive to be both effective and efficient. To be an effective manager Jim must ________.
A) focus on GEI's monetary resources more than its human resources
B) expand GEI's capital and help the organization's growth, even if that is not their goal
C) update knowledge by organizing training for all managers
D) use GEI's resources to attain the organization's goals
E) maximize the use of GEI's human and capital resources
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Managing: History and Current Thinking
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Q1) The Gilbreths aimed to increase worker efficiency by ________.
A) reducing the number of movements taken to accomplish a task
B) enforcing minimum criteria for the types of workers hired for a job
C) instituting the piece-rate system for remuneration
D) understanding what motivates employees to complete a task
E) encouraging teamwork rather than individual work
Answer: A
Q2) Each manager in an organization possesses certain amounts of authority. For example, the president possesses the most authority; the first-line supervisor, the least. According to Fayol, this is known as ________.
A) unity of command
B) esprit de corps
C) scalability of tenure
D) the scalar chain
E) decentralization
Answer: D
Q3) The primary investigative tool in F.W. Taylor's research was motion study.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Corporate Social Responsibility, Ethics, and Sustainability
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Q1) Adherence to legislated social responsibilities is the minimum standard of social responsibility performance that business managers must achieve.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A firm that is involved in assisting community organizations dedicated to education, charities, and the arts is conducting a social responsibility measurement in the ________ area.
A) problem-solving
B) economic function
C) social investment
D) problem-recognition
E) quality-of-life
Answer: C
Q3) According to the concept of corporate social responsibility, managers should regard societal goals as more important than organizational goals.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Management and Diversity
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Q1) Bill manages a large department with employees from diverse cultural backgrounds. A review of his management style revealed that Bill's informal way of speaking to employees is offensive to some people, who come from cultures where formality and respect are the norm between different organizational levels. This indicates that Bill is at the ________ stage of progress in managing a diverse workforce.
A) unconscious incompetence
B) conscious incompetence
C) conscious competence
D) unconscious competence
E) controlled incompetence
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of bicultural stress?
A) role conflict
B) balanced growth
C) improved skills
D) reverse discrimination
E) pluralism
Q3) Define diversity training. What are the basic components of diversity training?
Q4) How can managers plan, organize, influence, and control to promote diversity?
Q5) How can diversity be promoted through equal employment and affirmative action?
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Chapter 5: Managing in the Global Arena
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Q1) Organizations that operate globally find that ________ are the least expensive to employ.
A) host-country nationals
B) expatriates
C) third-country nationals
D) repatriates
E) migrant workers
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of domestic management?
A) widely disparate economic conditions
B) national markets varying greatly in population and area
C) different national sovereignties
D) markets at different stages of the industrial revolution
E) people living in similar value systems
Q3) A multinational corporation is a company that is primarily based in one country but has continuing transactions in other countries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What can managers do to ensure that management action taken across national borders is ethical?
Q5) Why do managers make foreign investments? What are the risks involved in this?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Management and Entrepreneurship
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Q1) What is entrepreneurial risk? In this context, explain downside loss.
Q2) Social value refers to the basic long-standing needs of society and has little to do with profits.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Information asymmetry refers to an individual's ability to notice and be sensitive to new information about objects, incidents, and patterns of behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is corporate entrepreneurship?
Q5) Entrepreneurship refers to the identification, evaluation and exploitation of opportunities.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Strategic renewal occurs when a firm proactively seeks to create a new product market position that competitors have not recognized.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Define social entrepreneurship.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Principles of Planning
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Q1) When setting objectives, managers should state objectives as specifically as possible because ________.
A) it ensures that employees have explicit directions for what they should do
B) it ensures that employee productivity will vary according to the needs of the situation
C) it allows employees to make inferences about what they should do to accomplish their goals
D) it allows them to set the pace for employees' work
E) it reduces the risk of suboptimization
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a statement of organizational purpose?
A) To increase the company's market share by 20 percent by 2011.
B) To execute all projects in a timely and professional manner.
C) To be the leading provider of professional health care services.
D) To provide our employees with a challenging and rewarding work environment.
E) To build long-lasting customer relationships based on trust.
Q3) Organizational objectives are the targets toward which the management system is directed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How should organization planners be evaluated?
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Chapter 8: Making Decisions
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Q1) An organizational decision-maker who is willing to steal the ideas necessary to make good decisions has a(n) ________ orientation.
A) hoarding
B) egoistic
C) exploitative
D) latent
E) ideal
Q2) What are the disadvantages of group decision-making?
Q3) A disadvantage of the Delphi technique is that ________.
A) it wastes the group's time on wildly impractical ideas
B) it does not provide anonymity to members
C) members tend to constantly redefine the problem itself
D) members are highly susceptible to groupthink
E) members are unable to ask questions of one another
Q4) All decisions are either programmed or non-programmed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is consensus?
Q6) Explain brainstorming as a group decision process.
Q7) Discuss the advantages of group decision-making.
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Chapter 9: Strategic Planning: Strategies, Tactics, and Competitive Dynamics
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Q1) In strategic planning, managers consider the organization as a total unit and ask themselves what must be done in the long term, which is usually ________.
A) three to five years into the future
B) in the coming year
C) one to two years into the future
D) five to ten years from now
E) five to twenty years from now
Q2) Which of the following strategy formulation tools outlines the primary forces that determine competitiveness within an industry and illustrates how those forces are related?
A) Porter's Model for Industry Analysis
B) the BCG Growth-Share Matrix
C) SWOT analysis
D) the GE Multifactor Portfolio Matrix
E) the Delphi technique
Q3) What is tactical planning?
Q4) Briefly discuss the strategic management process.
Q5) What are the main strategy formulation tools of strategic management?
Q6) Compare and contrast strategic and tactical planning.
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Chapter 10: Plans and Planning Tools
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Q1) Briefly discuss the quantitative methods of sales forecasting.
Q2) The sales forecasting method is the most complex method available to managers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The salesforce estimation method is a ________ method of sales forecasting.
A) quantitative
B) focus group
C) hall test
D) survey
E) qualitative
Q4) A policy is a single-use plan that furnishes broad operating guidelines.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is true regarding Gantt charts?
A) time is plotted on the vertical axis
B) does not provide an overview of the use of organizational resources
C) is essentially a bar graph
D) does not establish realistic worker output standards
E) resource to be scheduled is plotted on the horizontal axis
Q6) Explain the qualitative methods of sales forecasting.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of Organizing
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Q1) Explain the concept of span of management, and discuss the factors that influence the appropriateness of the size of an individual's span of management.
Q2) Which of the following is one of Follett's guidelines on coordination?
A) Personal communication should be minimized in coordination.
B) Managers can assume that if their system shows coordination now, it will show coordination in the future.
C) The human element should be minimized in coordination.
D) The communication process is an essential consideration in any attempt to encourage coordination.
E) Coordination can be achieved with least difficulty through vertical relationships.
Q3) Which of the following is one of Follett's guidelines on coordination?
A) Personal communication should be minimized in coordination.
B) Managers can assume that if their system shows coordination now, it will show coordination in the future.
C) The human element should be minimized in coordination.
D) Managers should plan for coordination.
E) Coordination can be achieved with least difficulty through vertical relationships.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Responsibility, Authority, and Delegation
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Q1) Which of the following would be least likely to enhance acceptance of a manager's commands?
A) use of the complete chain of command to issue orders
B) possession of adequate communication channels
C) use of informal communication channels
D) a direct line of communication between manager and subordinate
E) possession of adequate communication skills by the manager
Q2) Which of the following refers to a situation in which more than one individual is responsible for the same activity?
A) job enlargement
B) overlapping responsibility
C) job rotation
D) role ambiguity
E) role conflict
Q3) Line authority is the right to make decisions and to give orders concerning the production-, sales-, or finance-related behavior of subordinates.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the functional similarity method of dividing job activities.
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Chapter 13: Human Resource Management
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Q1) Managers expose themselves to legal prosecution by basing employment decisions on personality tests that are invalid and unreliable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the weaknesses of performance appraisals is that the emphasis is on completing paperwork rather than on critiquing individual performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is an on-the-job training technique that involves moving an individual from job to job to enable the person to gain an understanding of the organization as a whole.
A) Position rotation
B) Declarative learning
C) Coaching
D) Overlearning
E) Sequence learning
Q4) What are the different types of tests used by organizations during the selection process?
Q5) Write a short note on the process of recruitment and its importance.
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Chapter 14: Organizational Change: Stress, Conflict, and Virtuality
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Q1) Attitudes, leadership skills, and communication skills are ________.
A) structural factors
B) technological factors
C) communication factors
D) people factors
E) informative factors
Q2) A structural change ________.
A) works by changing controls that influence organization members
B) ensures appropriate functioning of technology
C) develops the skills of the people
D) increases the division of labor
E) makes the change appealing to employees
Q3) Cost reduction is the most commonly cited reason for designing and implementing virtual offices.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Forcing a solution is an inappropriate approach in an emergency.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the concept of grid organizational development (grid OD).
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Chapter 15: Influencing and Communication
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Q1) One of the characteristics of the grapevine is that it ________.
A) is usually controlled and monitored by managers
B) springs up and is used regularly within the organization
C) usually follows an upward communication channel
D) is heavily influenced by the top executives of an organization
E) exists largely to serve the self-interests of the people within it
Q2) ________ is the destination's reaction to a message.
A) Perception
B) Feedback
C) Channeling
D) Signaling
E) Grapevine
Q3) Gestures, vocal tones, and facial expressions are forms of nonverbal communication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the major characteristics of organizational grapevine?
Q5) What is the importance of non-verbal messages in a communicative process?
Q6) Formal organizational communication is more important that informal organizational communication. Why?
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Chapter 16: Leadership
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Q1) Bryan is the production manager of a small company that manufactures printed circuit boards. Prior to making a decision, Bryan usually asks for information from his subordinates. However, his subordinates are not always informed about the problem at hand. Which of the following VYJ model decision-making styles does Bryan use?
A) AI
B) AII
C) GII
D) CI
E) CII
Q2) The path-goal theory of leadership suggests that the primary activity of a leader is to make desirable and achievable rewards available to organization members who attain organizational goals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A manager who permits the group to make decisions within prescribed limits appears at the center of Tannenbaum and Schmidt leadership continuum and is considered moderately democratic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Motivation
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Q1) A disadvantage of using flextime programs is ________.
A) higher commuting problems
B) decreased tardiness
C) inability to coordinate projects
D) increased absenteeism
E) decreased employee morale
Q2) The theory which stresses on the fact that the perceived value of a reward is determined by both intrinsic and extrinsic rewards is ________.
A) Porter-Lawler theory of motivation
B) equity theory
C) expectancy theory
D) acquired need theory
E) needs-goal theory
Q3) According to Herzberg, ________ influence the degree of job satisfaction.
A) hygiene factors
B) maintenance factors
C) motivating factors
D) Theory X factors
E) factors related to the work environment
Q4) List the process theories of motivation.
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Chapter 18: Groups and Teams
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Q1) A natural result of group solidarity is ________.
A) social loafing
B) exclusion
C) group control
D) groupthink
E) group conflict
Q2) The model of the evolution of informal groups proposed by George Homans suggests that ________.
A) once established, informal groups will resist changes in the formal work group that threaten the satisfaction of the informal group's members
B) informal groups will naturally evolve into problem-solving groups
C) the sentiments and activities that emerge within an informal group rarely result from the sentiments, interactions, and activities that already exist within a formal group
D) managers should refrain from implementing ideas generated from the feedback received from informal groups as they tend to be biased
E) informal groups instituted at the behest of the management are more fruitful from an organizational perspective than ones that naturally evolve
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Chapter 19: Managing Organization Culture
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Q1) An organizational saga is a popular belief or story that has become associated with a person or institution that is considered to illustrate an organization culture ideal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ dimension of organizational culture is an aspect of organizational culture that encourages organization members to integrate spiritual life and work.
A) innovation
B) spirituality
C) quality
D) diversity
E) ethics
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of new recruits during their first year in an organization?
A) exceptionally high productivity rates
B) low incidence of mistakes
C) struggle to fit within the organization
D) greater likelihood to break organizational rules
E) good acquaintance with organization culture
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Chapter 20: Encouraging Creativity and Innovation
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Q1) Creative thinking under extreme time pressure is more likely when people feel as if they are on ________.
A) a shoestring
B) a tight leash
C) a mission
D) an expedition
E) a treadmill
Q2) ________ is defined as that step of the innovation process that puts a new idea to use by end users or customers.
A) Diffusing
B) Inventing
C) Developing
D) Monitoring
E) Integrating
Q3) The reengineering improvements process emphasizes integrating the results of parallel activities instead of linking them.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the importance of creativity in organizations.
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Chapter 21: Controlling, Information, and Technology
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Q1) Factors within an organization that are barriers to organizational goal attainment are called ________.
A) problems
B) propositions
C) symptoms
D) standards
E) yardsticks
Q2) Outline the steps involved in the controlling process.
Q3) Information ________ is defined in terms of how relevant the information is to the decision-making situation the manager faces.
A) appropriateness
B) quality
C) timeliness
D) control
E) quantity
Q4) The information that managers receive heavily influences managerial decision making.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the challenges faced by executives in managing the IS workforce?
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Production and Control
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Q1) ________ is an operational plan of action outlining which goods and services an organization will produce and market.
A) Capacity strategy
B) Product strategy
C) Process strategy
D) Layout strategy
E) Location strategy
Q2) Cost control relates to all organizational costs and emphasizes activities in all organizational areas.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is a plan of action aimed at providing the organization with the right facilities to produce the needed output at the right time.
A) Location strategy
B) Process strategy
C) Product strategy
D) Layout strategy
E) Capacity strategy
Q4) Briefly explain the concept of strategies, systems, and processes.
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