Human Resource Management Exam Review
Course Introduction
Human Resource Management explores the essential strategies and practices involved in effectively managing an organizations human capital. This course covers core topics such as recruitment and selection, training and development, performance appraisal, compensation and benefits, labor relations, and legal aspects of employment. Students will learn how to align workforce planning with organizational goals, foster a positive workplace culture, and navigate contemporary challenges in diversity, ethics, and global HRM. Through case studies and practical applications, the course equips students with the skills necessary to develop, motivate, and retain talent in todays dynamic business environment.
Recommended Textbook
Employment and Labor Law 7th Edition by
Patrick J. Cihon
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22 Chapters
1065 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are individual employee rights?
Answer: Individual employee rights are those rights which are enjoyed by workers as individuals, as against collective rights secured by unionization.
Q2) In the West Coast Hotel Company v. Parrish case, the court found that:
A) the requirement of a fair minimum wage designed so the woman can meet the "very necessities of existence" is a means of protection.
B) It is not in the public interest to safeguard women's health and protect them from unscrupulous employers.
C) the protection of women is not a legitimate end of the exercise of state power.
D) all of the above.
Answer: A
Q3) Briefly describe the Taft-Hartley Act.
Answer: The Taft-Hartley Act is a federal statute which enacted unfair labor practices for which unions might be charged and punished, such as coercing workers to join against their will.
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Chapter 2: Employment Contracts and Wrongful Discharge
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Q1) Identify the case in which the Supreme Court upheld the dismissal of a lawsuit brought by a salesman who was fired for refusing to sell what he insisted to management was an unsafe product?
A) Knox v. Board of School Directors of Susquenita School District
B) Geary v. United State Steel Corporation
C) Asmus v. Pacific Bell
D) Marcus v. KFG Employment Services, Inc
Answer: B
Q2) Employees of public companies are protected from retaliation for engaging in certain whistleblowing activities under:
A) the Occupational Safety and Health Act.
B) the Workers' Compensation Act.
C) the National Labor Relations Act.
D) the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.
Answer: D
Q3) What is META? Explain the importance of Section 3(a) of META.
Answer: META stands for Model Employment Termination Act and Section 3(a) of META prohibits the employers from terminating the employees from employment without having good reasons.
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Chapter 3: Commonly Committed Workplace Torts
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Q1) When a person is protected by _______________, the remarks made will be immune from a defamation suit, if the person has made them in good faith.
A) qualified privilege
B) sovereign immunity
C) strict liability
D) vicarious liability
Answer: A
Q2) If a state recognizes tort of negligent infliction of emotional distress, how will the defendant of that state be liable for damages?
Answer: A defendant may be liable in damages for unreasonable behavior that results in severe emotional harm to the plaintiff, even though the defendant never meant to inflict any harm.
Q3) Defamation by writing is known as:
A) writ.
B) slander.
C) libel.
D) dicta.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Employee Privacy Rights in the 21st Century
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Q1) In Hernandez v. Hillsides, Inc., the court found that the employer intruded upon the employees' reasonable privacy expectations, and the intrusion was:
A) not sufficiently offensive or serious to give rise to liability.
B) sufficiently offensive or serious to give rise to liability.
C) malicious.
D) none of the above.
Q2) One of the express purposes of HIPAA's privacy provisions is to:
A) prevent employers from using PHI for personnel decisions.
B) prevent employers from creating a "firewall" between employees who administer health insurance plans and all other employees.
C) protect employees and applicants who may suffer from physical and mental disabilities.
D) remove many thousands of private employers from HIPAA and its implementing regulations.
Q3) What is the most common way in which employers intrude upon their employee's privacy?
Q4) Elaborate on the policy regarding employee personal files.
Q5) Describe privacy concerns in the context of third-party information request.
Q6) Can employers mandate the policy of genetic testing?
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Chapter 5: The Global Perspective: International
Employment Law and American Immigration Policy
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Q1) Which one of these states is not included in the early entrants of the controversial legal arena?
A) California
B) Texas
C) Alabama
D) Missouri
Q2) What is the Union Network International (UNI)?
Q3) The Alien Tort Claims Act:
A) was active for the last two centuries and was commonly used in supporting jurisdiction in several cases.
B) was enacted in 1889 as part of the original Judiciary Act.
C) is an international statute which provides a cause of action for aggrieved aliens in global courts.
D) is unlikely to have a high impact upon the way U.S. corporations deal with their overseas employees.
Q4) What is the role of U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS)?
Q5) What did France mandate for the first time in the corporate arena in the year 2002?
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Q6) Outline the duties of the International Labor Organization (ILO).
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Chapter 6: Title VII of the Civil Rights Act and Race Discrimination
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Q1) In University and Community College System of Nevada v. Farmer, in order to remedy the racial imbalance, the University of Nevada instituted the:
A) minority bonus policy.
B) Wonderlic Personnel Test.
C) Bennett Comprehension Test.
D) Negative Role Model policy.
Q2) In EEOC v. Dial Corp., after the Work Tolerance Screen (WTS) was adopted:
A) the percentage of new female hires declined.
B) the percentage of new female hires significantly increased.
C) the percentage of new hires from minority groups declined.
D) the percentage of new male hires significantly declined.
Q3) Write a short note on retaliation under Title VII.
Q4) List the three classifications of standards developed by the American Psychological Association for validating job requirements.
Q5) What is bona fide occupational qualification?
Q6) How is seniority defined under Title VII?
Q7) Can the use of the seniority system for employment decisions be protected under Title VII? Provide an illustration for your answer.
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Chapter 7: Gender and Family Issues: Title VII and Other Legislation
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Q1) In Spalding v. University of Washington and A.F.S.C. M.E. v. State of Washington, the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Ninth Circuit held that a plaintiff bringing a Gunther-type claim under Title VII must establish the evidence of:
A) validity of job requirement.
B) comparable worth.
C) disparate treatment.
D) disparate impact.
Q2) The Equal Pay Act's coverage is similar to that of the:
A) National Labor Relation Act.
B) Pregnancy Discrimination Act.
C) Fair Labor Standards Act.
D) Occupational Safety and Health Act.
Q3) In Faragher v. City of Boca Raton, Beth Ann Faragher filed a suit against her supervisors Terry and Silverman, and the City, alleging violations of Title VII and other federal and state laws. She claimed that the harassment by Terry and Silverman:
A) was quid pro quo harassment.
B) was based out of gender discrimination.
C) created a sexually hostile atmosphere.
D) was based on her ethnic origin.
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Chapter 8: Discrimination Based on Religion and National
Origin Procedures Under Title VII
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Q1) What does Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 deal with?
Q2) Complaints by federal of violations of Title VII may choose to pursue the complaint with the:
A) state court.
B) US Supreme court.
C) federal apex court of the state.
D) EEOC or file suit in federal court.
Q3) Write down the provision of section 703(g) of Title VII.
Q4) Section 702(a) provides an exception under Title VII to all:
A) religious associations.
B) non-profit institutes.
C) corporate houses.
D) international organizations.
Q5) In which of the following cases did the EEOC argue that the district court erred in each respect of the decision and finally appealed to the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Fifth Circuit?
A) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission v. City of Arlington
B) Equal Employment opportunity Committee v. Earnest & Young Enterprises, Inc.
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C) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission v. WC&M Enterprises, Inc.
D) Equal Employment Opportunity Committee v. E &M Enterprise, Inc.
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Chapter 9: Discrimination Based on Age
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Q1) Examples of violations of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) do not include:
A) mandatory retirement of workers over age of 55.
B) denial of promotion of a worker age of 50.
C) denial of promotion of a worker age of 55.
D) transfer of a worker age of 30 and under.
Q2) In Astoria Federal Savings & Loan v. Solimino, if the state or local EEO agency has ruled that the employee was not the victim of age discrimination; an individual can file an age discrimination suit in:
A) circuit court.
B) court of appeals..
C) federal court.
D) district court.
Q3) Who are covered under Age Discrimination in Employment Act?
Q4) What are the procedures to file complaint for alleged violation under Age Discrimination in Employment Act?
Q5) What information should employers provide employees in case of a waiver of claims?
Q6) How is the Age Discrimination in Employment Act enforced and administered?
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Chapter 10: Discrimination Based on Disability
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Q1) The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) applies to all of the following individuals or groups except:
A)House of Representatives.
B) U.S. employers operating abroad or controlling foreign corporations.
C) Federal government employers.
D) private and public sector employers with fifteen or more employees.
Q2) In ______________________, the Supreme Court held that an individual who applies for Social Security disability benefits may still be a "qualified individual with a disability" within the meaning of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA).
A) Southeastern Community College v. Davis
B) Albertsons, Inc. v. Kirkingburg
C) Toyota Motor Manufacturing, Kentucky, Inc. v.Williams
D) Cleveland v. Policy Management Systems
Q3) The provisions of the __________________ prohibit discrimination against otherwise qualified individuals with a disability.
A) Civil Rights Act of 1984
B) Fair Labors Standards Act
C) Rehabilitation Act of 1973
D) Executive Order 11246
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Other Eeo and Employment Legislation: Federal and State Laws
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Q1) An employee who attempts to report employer wrongdoing or actions threatening public health or safety to government authorities is called:
A) union member.
B) negotiator.
C) whistle blower.
D) arbitrator.
Q2) Except in those instances where sex may be a BFOQ, all state EEO laws, in terms or conditions of employment, prohibit the discrimination on the basis of:
A) age.
B) gender.
C) sexual orientation.
D) race.
Q3) The federal and state legislation generally prohibits employers from requiring employees to take:
A) honesty tests.
B) polygraph tests.
C) psychometric tests.
D) physical fitness tests.
Q4) What are the requirements of strict scrutiny test?
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Chapter 12: The Rise of Organized Labor and Its Regulatory Framework
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Q1) Section 3 of the Norris-La Guardia Act declares that _____ are contrary to public policy of the United States.
A) ex parte proceedings
B) union boycotts
C) yellow-dog contracts
D) collective bargaining efforts
Q2) Discuss the socialist movement and its political influence.
Q3) The _____ introduced some of the ideas and approaches later incorporated in the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA).
A) Taft-Hartley Act
B) National Industrial Recovery Act
C) Clayton Act
D) Railway Labor Act
Q4) The National Recovery Administration is responsible for administering the codes of fair competition under the:
A) National Industrial Recovery Act.
B) Norris-La Guardia Act.
C) Sherman Act.
D) Taft-Hartley Act.
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Chapter 13: The Unionization Process
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Q1) _____ of the NLRA requires that the union be designated or selected by a majority of the employees in order for the union to become the exclusive bargaining agent.
A) Section 8(a)(3)
B) Section 7
C) Section 2(3)
D) Section 9(a)
Q2) The employee union at the National Steel Supply Company requested their employer to pay the minimum wages and improve the working conditions in the company. The request of the union was refused by the employer. The employer threatened to permanently replace the union members if they go on strike. Subsequently, the union decided to go on strike. This is an example of a(n):
A) unfair labor practice strike.
B) economic strike.
C) whipsaw strike.
D) surveillance strike.
Q3) What is the consequence of filing a decertification petition by an employer?
Q4) While determining the bargaining agent, on what grounds the can the Board decision be appealed in Washington?
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Unfair Labor Practices by Employers and Unions
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Q1) In NLRB v. Brown, Supreme Court held that the employers' attempt to remain open for business using temporary replacements was a measure reasonably related to the legitimate business purpose of preserving the integrity of the multiemployer bargaining unit and has not violated both:
A) Section 8(a)(1) or 8(a)(3).
B) Section 9(a) or Section 10(e).
C) Section 7 or Section 8(b)(3).
D) Section 8(c) Section 8(a)(5).
Q2) Section 8(a) (1) and Section 8(b) (1) of NLRB, prohibits:
A) union organizing campaigns.
B) strikes by employees.
C) coercion and restraint of employees.
D) poll conducted by employers.
Q3) In NLRB v. City Disposal Systems, the Court of Appeals concluded that the Brown's refusal was not a(n) _____ according to Section 7 of the NLRA.
A) concerted activity
B) protected activity
C) unfair labor practice
D) unlawful activity
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Collective Bargaining
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Q1) Section 8(a)(5) requires that the employer bargain with a union that is the representative of its ? employees according to _____.
A) Section 9(a)
B) Section 8(d)
C) Section 8(a)
D) Section 704(a)
Q2) Section 8(d) of the NLRA prohibits any modifications or changes in a collective agreement's provisions relating to _____ during the term of the agreement unless both parties to the agreement consent to such changes.
A) bargaining remedies
B) bargaining unit
C) mandatory bargaining subjects
D) bargaining agent
Q3) The NLRB requires that the prior conditions be restored and any reduction in wages or benefits be ? paid back, if an employer has:
A) refused to furnish information.
B) illegally made unilateral changes.
C) refused to sign an already agreed-upon contract.
D) violated the duty to bargain in good faith.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Picketing and Strikes
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Q1) What are hot cargo clauses?
Q2) Peaceful picketing is protected activity under the:
A) Occupational Safety and Health Act.
B) American Federation for Labor.
C) U. S. Constitution.
D) National Labor Relation Act.
Q3) Pressure tactics include all of the following, except:
A) picketing.
B) bargaining.
C) strikes.
D) patrolling.
Q4) The union members of the National Steel Company decided to hold a strike compelling their employer to increase their wages and medical benefits and provide better insurance and family benefits. This type of strike is called a(n):
A) economic strike.
B) unfair labor practice strike.
C) conventional strike.
D) whipsaw strike.
Q5) Briefly discuss state regulation(s) on picketing.
Q6) Discuss the jurisdictional disputes of Section 8(b)(4)(D).
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Chapter 17: The Enforcement and Administration of the Collective Agreement
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Q1) What conditions should be met by an employer petitioning for bankruptcy protection to reject the collective agreement?
Q2) In Major League Baseball Players Association v. Garvey, the Supreme Court emphasized that even when the court vacates an arbitration award, the court:
A) has a duty to arbitrate that continues after the expiration of the agreement if the grievance arises under the agreement.
B) may refuse to enforce an arbitration award only if the award violates "explicit" public policy.
C) should refuse to enforce an arbitration decision that violates the law.
D) must remand the issue back to arbitration for resolution rather than settling the merits of the dispute.
Q3) How can an employer recover damages for breach of no strike clause even if injunction is not issued?
Q4) In In re AMR CORPORATION, what section of the Bankruptcy Code was at issue?
A) Section 103.
B) Section 301.
C) Section 1113.
D) Section 1114.
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Chapter 18: The Rights of Union Members
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Q1) Some union constitutions provide for review of complaints of alleged mistreatment of union members by the:
A) employers.
B) union leaders.
C) individual employee.
D) government.
Q2) Under which provision of the National Labor Relation Act is improper disciplinary action protected?
Q3) In a wage dispute at Schindler Steels, the union participated in the negotiation without exhibiting favoritism to the employees. The union leadership was appreciative of the management constraints and was willing to renegotiate their demands accordingly. This action of the union is representative of its:
A) adherence to the labor contract.
B) duty of fair representative.
C) adherence to the bargaining agreement.
D) duty of fair labor practice.
Q4) Discuss the list of unfair labor practices that was added to the National Labor Relation Act by the Taft-Hartley Act.
Q5) Who creates the union's duty of fair representation?
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Chapter 19: Public Sector Labor Relations
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Q1) What is the importance of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service?
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the various aspects of the Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA) with regard to representation of bargaining units?
A) It is empowered to determine the appropriateness of a representation unit of federal employees.
B) It undermines the FSLMRA in determining the bargaining unit.
C) It ensures a clear and identifiable community of interest among the employees.
D) It can determine the appropriateness of a unit on various bases.
Q3) What happens when a complaint alleging unfair labor practices is filed with the Federal Labor Relations Authority?
Q4) Describe the Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA).
Q5) The Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Act provides that union dues may be deducted from an employee's pay only if authorized by the: A) company.
B) employee.
C) NLRA.
D) arbitrator.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Occupational Safety and Health
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Q1) When it comes to worker violence or threats of violence, employers have adopted the policies of:
A) compensation.
B) zero-tolerance.
C) compromise.
D) feasibility.
Q2) What are the two main goals of the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
Q3) The authority to promulgate occupational safety and health standards through the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is granted to the:
A) Department of Treasury.
B) Commissioner on Wages.
C) Department of Finance.
D) Secretary of Labor.
Q4) When should citation be an issue? Can the employer challenge a citation?
Q5) How is the Occupational Safety and Health Act administered and enforced?
Q6) What are employers required to provide under the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
Q7) When can variance be sought? What are the kinds of variances?
Q8) Does federal labor law cover illegal immigrants?
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Chapter 21: The Employee's Safety Nets: Unemployment
and Workers' Compensation, Social Security, and Retirement Plans
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Q1) In Ruby v. Sandia Corp., the plaintiff lost:
A) his disability benefits.
B) his pension.
C) his workers' compensation benefits.
D) All of the above.
Q2) Define willful misconduct.
Q3) In Label Systems Corp. v. Aghamohammadi, the defendants were terminated from employment alleging willful and felonious misconduct. The plaintiff filed a three-count complaint against the defendants and the defendants counterclaimed against the plaintiff by filing a third-party complaint. The jury in this case found that the plaintiffs were liable for vexatious litigation. The trial court denied several post-trial motions filed by both parties, awarded Label Systems $19,460.17 in punitive damages, and rendered judgment in accordance with the jury's verdict. The Supreme Court concluded that the trial court did not abuse its discretion by denying the plaintiffs':
A) default judgment.
B) punitive damages.
C) motion to dismiss.
D) motion for remittitur.
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Q4) Explain the three major categories of the Social Security system.
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Chapter 22: The Fair Labor Standards Act
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Q1) Name three kinds of labor that have been found hazardous for minors by the Secretary of Labor.
Q2) What is willful violation?
Q3) Suzy Smart works part-time in the Handi Mart convenience store. The manager at Handi Mart requires that each clerk arrive fifteen minutes prior to the start of the shift so that the clerk going off duty can review the sales figures and cash status with the replacement before leaving, but her extra fifteen minutes of working time was never recorded. Under which act can Suzy and her co-workers sue the store and the manager?
A) The Fair Labor Standards Act
B) The Walsh-Healy Act
C) The Occupational Safety and Health Act
D) The Equal Pay Act
Q4) Employers and employees not covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act are generally subject to:
A) terms and conditions of the bargaining agreement.
B) federal administrative rules and regulations.
C) terms of the labor contract.
D) state laws of United States.
Q5) Explain the term "workweek".
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