Human Physiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Human Physiology is a comprehensive course that explores the functions and mechanisms of the human body's organ systems. Emphasizing the integration of molecular, cellular, and organ-level processes, the course covers topics such as neural and hormonal control, cardiovascular and respiratory dynamics, digestion, kidney function, and homeostatic regulation. Students will gain an understanding of how healthy physiological processes are maintained and learn the foundational principles necessary to recognize and analyze disruptions found in disease. Designed for students pursuing careers in health and life sciences, the course combines theoretical knowledge with practical applications and critical thinking exercises.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology An Integrated Approach 7th Edition by Silverthorn
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adaptive significance is an important concept in physiology because it describes the A) importance of a highly variable external environment.
B) physiological functions that promote an organism's survival.
C) ability of an organism to monitor and restore its internal state to normal conditions when necessary.
D) similarities between ancient and modern marine organisms.
E) parameters necessary to maintain a constant internal environment.
Answer: B
Q2) A placebo is
A) any drug being tested in a clinical trial.
B) any drug in a class of drugs commonly used as pain relievers.
C) a drug or treatment that is expected to have no pharmacological effect.
D) a nutritive and respiratory organ in fetal development.
E) a hole in a cavity wall through which an organ protrudes.
Answer: C
Q3) List all of the errors in Figure 1.1.
Answer: 1.The units of concentration are labeled as M when they should be mg.
2.The x-axis is in decreasing order of concentration.
3.The graph needs a legend.
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Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) During intense exercise our muscles produce lactate and hydrogen ions.Which of the following molecules would be affected by the accumulation of hydrogen ions?
A) cholesterol in the plasma membrane
B) glucose molecules in the adipose tissue
C) DNA in the nucleus
D) the proteins actin and myosin
E) phospholipids in the membrane
Answer: D
Q2) In the equation CO + H O H CO H + HCO , which of these is an acid?
A) HCO
B) H CO
C) H O
D) CO
E) H
Answer: B
Q3) Beta strands are an example of a spatial arrangement of amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) This is the digestive system of a cell, degrading and/or recycling bacterial or organic components.
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) Golgi apparatus
C) lysosomes
D) mitochondria
E) peroxisomes
Answer: C
Q2) Mature nerve and muscle cells are expected to lack which organelle(s)?
A) nucleus
B) endoplasmic reticulum
C) centrioles
D) ribosomes
E) Golgi bodies
Answer: C
Q3) In a pancreatic cell producing digestive enzyme, you would expect to find an elaborate
A) rough endoplasmic reticulum.
B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A molecule positioned on the high-concentration side of a concentration gradient stores ________ energy.
A) chemical
B) potential
C) kinetic
Q2) The reactions of glycolysis occur in the cell's ________; the reactions of the citric acid cycle occur in the ________.
A) cytoplasm, cytoplasm
B) mitochondria, mitochondria
C) cytoplasm, mitochondria
D) mitochondria, cytoplasm
Q3) A molecule that loses electrons during a reaction is
A) reduced.
B) oxidized.
C) dehydrated.
D) hydrated.
Q4) Glucose is phosphorylated to ________ with a phosphate from ________.
Q5) ________ generated in the ________ enter the electron transport system to generate 2.5 ATP molecules.
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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The membrane proteins that catalyze reactions that take place on the external or internal surface of the cell are ________.
Q2) K leaves the cell
A)resting membrane potential
B)hyperpolarization
C)depolarization
D)repolarization
E)more than one of the answers
Q3) Carrier proteins operating at their maximum rate are said to be ________.
Q4) What property of some cell membranes is associated with impermeability to water molecules?
Q5) The three types of gated channels are ________, ________, and ________.
Q6) How are molarity and osmolarity different? What property of salts necessitates this distinction? How does this property affect the behavior of water?
Q7) Diuretics cause the kidneys to produce large amounts of urine.Unfortunately, they can also cause the loss of large quantities of K in the urine.What effect might prolonged use of diuretics have on nerve or muscle cells?
Q8) Explain the term resting membrane potential difference.
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Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
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Q1) Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n)________ that is sensitive to a particular stimulus (variable)and a(n)________ whose activity has an effect on the same stimulus.
Q2) An intracellular signal molecule that translates a signal from a neurotransmitter or hormone into an intracellular response is called a ________.
Q3) Second messenger molecules directly
A) change the regulation of ion channels.
B) increase intracellular calcium concentration.
C) change enzyme activity.
D) change regulation of gene expression.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q4) What is the half-life of a signal?
Q5) An integrating center
A) is the disturbance or change that sets the pathway in motion.
B) is an electrical and/or chemical signal that travels to the effector.
C) evaluates incoming signals and compares it with the setpoint.
D) is the minimum stimulus that must be achieved to set the reflect response in motion.
Q6) Describe the signal molecule derivatives of arachidonic acid.
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) cannot be stored in secretory vesicles
A)peptide hormone
B)steroid hormone
C)amino acid-derived hormone
D)anterior pituitary
E)hypothalamus
F)posterior pituitary
Q2) Each of the following statements concerning peptide hormones is True except one.Identify the exception.
A) Peptide hormones are first synthesized as prohormones.
B) Prohormones can be activated before their release via post-translational modification.
C) Peptide hormones remain in circulation for relatively short periods of time.
D) Peptide hormones in the bloodstream are always bound to carrier proteins.
E) Peptide hormones interact with receptors on the surface of their target cells.
Q3) The adrenal cortex produces a steroid hormone called ________ that controls Na and K homeostasis and another steroid hormone called ________ that controls blood glucose levels.
Q4) The posterior pituitary gland is also known as the ________.
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Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) These CNS glial cells may be a source of treatment for neural degenerative disorders.
A) Schwann cells
B) astrocytes
C) microglia
D) oligodendrocytes
E) ependymal cells
Q2) Ion channel inactivation is
A) closing of the channel in response to decrease in the stimulus.
B) closing of the channel even when the stimulus continues.
C) any type of channel closing.
D) None of the answers are correct.
Q3) The Nernst equation predicts
A) intracellular ion concentrations.
B) extracellular ion concentrations.
C) the membrane potential resulting from all permeable ions.
D) the membrane potential resulting from permeability to a single ion.
E) the threshold membrane potential.
Q4) At a(n)________ synapse, a neurotransmitter is released to affect the postsynaptic cell.
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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) relay station for transfer of information between the cerebrum and cerebellum; coordinates breathing control with other areas
A)medulla oblongata
B)pons
C)midbrain
D)reticular formation
Q2) In vertebrates, the CNS is protected by bony cases, the brain inside the ________, while the spinal cord runs through a canal inside the ________.
Q3) carry primarily efferent signals from the brain
A)gray matter
B)white matter
C)ascending tracts
D)descending tracts
E)propriospinal tracts
Q4) ventral horn
A)structure is composed of gray matter
B)structure is composed of white matter
Q5) Give a brief synopsis of CNS control of movement.
Q6) Describe a lumbar puncture and explain its purpose.
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The loudness or intensity of a sound wave is related to its A) amplitude.
B) frequency.
C) duration.
D) pitch.
Q2) The bones within the middle ear connect the
A) tympanic membrane to the oval window.
B) tympanic membrane to the round window.
C) oval window to the round window.
D) cochlea to the tympanic membrane.
E) cochlea to the oval window.
Q3) The hair cell of the semicircular canal hyperpolarize when the stereocilia are bent A) in any direction.
B) towards the kinocilium.
C) away from the kinocilium.
D) towards the longest stereocilia.
E) Hair cells are not hyperpolarized by bending of the sterocilia.
Q4) Explain how sensory coding and processing allow the central nervous system to communicate information on the four properties of a stimulus.
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Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor Control
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Q1) Autonomic neurotransmitters are synthesized in the ________.
Q2) Explain the use of the terms fight and flight in describing sympathetic motor responses.How does sympathetic activity explain your increased "jumpiness" when you are home alone at night, watching a horror movie on TV?
Q3) The two varieties of adrenergic receptors are ________ and ________.
Q4) Cholinergic muscarinic receptors are found at the ________ in the ANS.
Q5) In a laboratory experiment, adding curare, which binds to acetylcholine receptors, to the solution around a muscle decreases the size of the end-plate potential.Adding prostigmine, an acetylcholinesterase blocker, increases the size of the end-plate potential.Explain why.
Q6) To perform surgery with a minimum of pain for the patient and hassle for the surgeon, a patient may be administered a general anesthetic to prevent sensation and consciousness, as well as a paralytic to prevent reflexive muscle spasms.From what you have learned of motor control, suggest mechanisms by which a paralytic can prevent muscle contraction.With paralytics, what extra measure must be taken to keep the patient alive? Name such a paralytic agent.
Q7) pupil dilation
A)sympathetic agonist
B)parasympathetic agonist
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Chapter 12: Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Within a single fiber, the tension developed during a twitch depends upon the A) amplitude of the action potential.
B) length of the sarcomeres prior to contraction.
C) length of the thick filament.
D) duration of the stimulus.
Q2) the muscle cell membrane
A)muscle fiber
B)fascicle
C)sarcolemma
D)myofibril
E)t-tubules
Q3) ________ is the backup energy molecule that can be rapidly converted to ATP in active skeletal muscle.
A) Protein
B) Glucose
C) Fatty acid
D) Phosphocreatine
Q4) Sketch a graph of the length-tension relationship in a contracting skeletal muscle, and explain its shape in terms of events in the sarcomere.
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Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The flexion reflex
A) prevents a muscle from overstretching.
B) prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension.
C) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus.
D) makes adjustments in other parts of the body in response to a particular stimulus.
E) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex.
Q2) The reflex that complements a withdrawal reflex by making compensatory adjustments on the opposite side of the body receiving the stimulus is the A) stretch reflex.
B) tendon reflex.
C) flexor reflex.
D) crossed extensor reflex.
E) reciprocal reflex.
Q3) Interneurons of the corticospinal tract synapse onto A) visceral efferents.
B) somatic efferents.
C) interneurons of central pattern generators.
Q4) Name the components of a reflex pathway, and describe generally how a reflex works.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) ECGs
A) provide direct information about the heart function.
B) are most useful in diagnosing heart murmurs.
C) show the summed electrical potentials generated by all cells of the heart.
D) have two major components: waves and nodes.
E) measure the mechanical activity of the heart.
Q2) Explain what is meant by the contractility of the heart.How is contractility controlled?
Q3) What are ryanodine receptors? What type of tissue are they present in? Are all ryanodine receptors regulated in the same way? Explain your answer.
Q4) The medical term for heart attack is
A) heart failure.
B) myocardial infarction.
C) heart murmur.
D) fibrillation.
E) heart block.
Q5) List the four types of autorhythmic cells that drive the heartbeat.Draw a sketch of the heart and indicate the location of each type of cell.
Q6) Abnormal patterns of cardiac activity are known as ________.
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Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The matching of blood flow to the changing metabolic needs of a tissue is due to A) neural control.
B) hormonal control.
C) local control.
Q2) Reactive hyperemia is
A) lack of blood flow due to an allergic reaction.
B) increased blood flow following a period of reduced blood flow.
C) increased blood pressure after stress.
D) reflex contraction of smooth muscle in response to stress.
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q3) Stretch-sensitive mechanoreceptors known as ________ are located in some artery walls.
A) nociceptors
B) chemoreceptors
C) baroreceptors
D) elasticeptors
Q4) Tom loves to soak in hot tubs and whirlpools.One day he decides to raise the temperature in his hot tub as high as it will go.After a few minutes in the very warm water, he feels faint, passes out, and nearly drowns.Luckily he is saved by an observant bystander.Explain what happened.
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Q1) Plasma consists of blood minus ________ and ________.
Q2) eosinophils
A)50-70%
B)20-40%
C)2-8%
D)1-4%
E)< 1%
Q3) How does altitude affect blood composition and why? How would athletes' performance be affected if they live, train, and compete at different altitudes? Explain your answer, using different scenarios.Is such training a type of doping? Explain.
Q4) bind(s)with iron in the blood
A)albumins
B)globulins
C)fibrinogen
D)transferrin
E)antibodies
Q5) Plasminogen is activated by an enzyme called ________.
Q6) The condition where the skin and the whites of the eyes appear slightly yellow is called ________.
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Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing
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Q1) The ________ consist of light, spongy tissue whose volume is occupied mostly by air-filled spaces.
Q2) A newborn infant is found dead, abandoned by the road.Among the many questions that the police would like to have answers to is whether the infant was born dead or alive.After an autopsy, the medical examiner tells them that the infant was dead at birth.How could the medical examiner determine this?
Q3) The upper respiratory tract includes all EXCEPT which of the following?
A) nasal cavity
B) lungs
C) trachea
D) larynx
E) mouth
Q4) Premature babies frequently need to be put on a respirator to help them breathe.Why does this become a necessary treatment for many premature babies?
Q5) The ability of a lung to recoil, or recover from stretch, is called ________.
Q6) Julia is breathing 14 times per minute, with a tidal volume of 520 mL and a dead space of 152 mL.Lyle is breathing 15 times per minute, with a tidal volume of 400 mL and a dead space of 175 mL.Which patient has better alveolar ventilation?
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Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Q1) The chloride shift occurs when
A) hydrogen ions leave the red blood cells.
B) hydrogen ions enter the red blood cells.
C) bicarbonate ions enter the red blood cells.
D) bicarbonate ions leave the red blood cells.
E) carbonic acid is formed.
Q2) The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is
A) pulmonary ventilation.
B) external respiration.
C) diffusion.
D) cellular respiration.
E) breathing.
Q3) A molecule that blocks the activity of carbonic anhydrase would
A) interfere with oxygen binding to hemoglobin.
B) cause an increase in blood pH.
C) increase the amount of bicarbonate formed in the blood.
D) decrease the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the plasma.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q4) Diffusion rate is indirectly proportional to ________.
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Chapter 19: The Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) The portion of the nephron that attaches to the collecting duct is the A) loop of Henle.
B) proximal tubule.
C) distal tubule.
D) collecting duct.
E) minor calyx.
Q2) Measurements in a nephron reveal a glomerular hydraulic pressure of 69 mm Hg, and a fluid pressure in the Bowman's capsule of 15 mm Hg.Assuming that the plasma osmotic pressure is 30 mm Hg, and that essentially no plasma proteins are filtered by the glomerulus, what is the net glomerular filtration pressure in this case?
A) -6 mm Hg
B) 24 mm Hg
C) 54 mm Hg
D) 84 mm Hg
E) 114 mm Hg
Q3) Presence of glucose in the urine is evidence of what condition?
Q4) Describe GFR autoregulation, and explain why it is important.
Q5) List and describe the three filtration barriers that substances leaving the plasma must pass through before entering the tubule lumen.
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Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Q1) Renal tubule cells in the kidney medulla are constantly exposed to high extracellular osmolarity.How do they maintain normal cell volume?
A) They synthesize organic solutes as needed to match the osmolarity.
B) They synthesize water molecules through increased metabolism to offset volume loss.
C) They maintain a water-impermeable membrane.
D) They add or remove aquaporins as needed.
Q2) Normal removal of excess water in urine is known as A) diuresis.
B) diuretics.
C) osmotic diuresis.
D) filtration.
Q3) Excess potassium ions are eliminated from the body by the A) sweat glands.
B) kidneys.
C) liver.
D) digestive system.
E) spleen.
Q4) How do kidneys alter urine concentration?
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Q5) What are the two mechanisms of bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule?
Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Q1) In response to the hormone cholecystokinin, the pancreas secretes a fluid that contains
A) enzymes.
B) bicarbonate.
C) bile.
D) only proteinases.
E) only amylase.
Q2) Peyer's patches are characteristic of the A) stomach.
B) esophagus.
C) pancreas.
D) intestine.
E) colon.
Q3) The myenteric plexus is
A) a layer of circular smooth muscle.
B) a layer of longitudinal smooth muscle.
C) a network of neurons.
D) the mucus secreting layer of the digestive tract.
E) primarily composed of connective tissue.
Q4) List the four basic processes of the digestive system, and describe each.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Q1) The most practical way to estimate a person's basal metabolic rate is to measure it when the person is
A) sleeping.
B) resting after a large meal.
C) resting after a 12-hour fast.
Q2) A harmful substance that the liver produces when metabolizing fatty acids is A) ammonia.
B) urea.
C) ketone bodies.
D) rancid fatty acids.
E) beta units.
Q3) An enzyme that digests fats is A) hydrolase.
B) lipase.
C) lyase.
D) ligase.
E) kinase.
Q4) The combination of type 2 diabetes, atherosclerosis, and high blood pressure is called ________.
Q5) The pancreatic hormone that raises blood glucose concentration is ________.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
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Q1) In bone, the calcium phosphate forms crystals of ________.
Q2) Excess secretion of growth hormone during adulthood will cause
A) goiter.
B) exophthalmus.
C) giantism.
D) acromegaly.
E) diabetes.
Q3) Calcitonin may be an appropriate treatment.
A)Addison's disease
B)Cushing's disease
C)Graves' disease
D)Paget's disease
Q4) mental retardation associated with infantile hypothyroidism
A)acromegaly
B)adrenogenital syndrome
C)cretinism
D)dwarfism
E)exophthalmus
Q5) The most important metabolic effect of ________ is protection against ________, crucial to surviving significant stress.
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Chapter 24: The Immune System
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Q1) ________ are clusters of lymphatic nodules located beneath the epithelial lining of the small intestine.
A) Tonsils
B) Adenoids
C) Peyer's patches
D) Immune complexes
E) Lymph nodes
Q2) Neil accidentally ingests a substance that activates the complement cascade in the absence of bound antibodies.This substance would
A) produce a fever.
B) cause extensive cellular damage.
C) increase circulation of lymph.
D) activate blood clotting.
E) prevent inflammation.
Q3) Diffuse lymphoid tissue includes
A) tonsils.
B) GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue).
C) the spleen.
D) tonsils and GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue).
E) tonsils, GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue), and the spleen.
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Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following hormones increase(s)in concentration in the plasma during exercise?
A) cortisol
B) catecholamines
C) insulin
D) cortisol and catecholamines
E) cortisol, catecholamines, and insulin
Q2) How does exercise hyperventilation maintain nearly normal PO and PCO ?
Q3) relative depression of immune system with change from moderate to strenuous exercise
A)increase
B)decrease
C)no change
Q4) With acclimatization, the body begins to do a better job of conserving
A) water only.
B) heat only.
C) salt only.
D) water and heat only.
E) water, heat, and salt.
Q5) Why is the normal baroreceptor reflex absent during exercise?
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) List the components of the uterus, including the layers of the wall.Briefly explain the function of each.
Q2) Identify the False statement.
A) Androgens control the development of reproductive organs in the male fetus.
B) Estrogens control the development of the reproductive organs in the female fetus.
C) Females have one less active chromosome than males.
D) Gametogenesis begins in the female fetus.
E) Meiosis is never completed in most oocytes.
Q3) A zygote with the genotype YO will
A) develop into a male.
B) develop into a female.
C) have Turner's syndrome.
D) have Kleinfelter's syndrome.
E) die.
Q4) What are the characteristics that determine gender (consider genetic, anatomical, hormonal, and other factors)? Is it always the case that genetic, psychological, and physical gender cues indicate the same gender? Explain your answer, citing specific examples of conditions in which there is gender conflict.
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