Human Physiology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Human Physiology explores the functions and mechanisms of the human body at the molecular, cellular, tissue, and organ system levels. The course covers foundational concepts such as homeostasis, cellular communication, energy metabolism, and the integration of organ systems. Key physiological systems discussed include the nervous, endocrine, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and musculoskeletal systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding how these systems interact to maintain normal body function, adapt to environmental changes, and respond to disease or injury. The course prepares students for advanced study in health, medical, and biological sciences by providing a comprehensive understanding of human body processes and regulation.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 6th Edition by Barbara Herlihy
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) The distal humerus (arm bone) is
A)closer to the axillary area than to the elbow.
B)closer to the wrist than to the antecubital area.
C)distal to the wrist.
D)closer to the elbow than to the axillary area.
Answer: D
Q2) The sagittal plane
A)is also called the coronal plane.
B)splits the body into a top and bottom.
C)splits the body into front and back.
D)splits the body into right and left.
Answer: D
Q3) Which organ is located in the ventral cavity and thoracic cavity but not in the mediastinum?
A)Lung
B)Liver
C)Stomach
D)Heart
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) An atom has 3 protons,4 neutrons,and 3 electrons; another atom has 3 protons,3 neutrons,and 3 electrons.Which of the following is most descriptive of this pair of atoms?
A)Mixture
B)Cation
C)Electrolyte
D)Isotope
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is most descriptive of the function of an enzyme?
A)Neutralization
B)Ionization
C)Catalyst
D)pH
Answer: C
Q3) What happens when HCl is added to a solution with a pH of 7.45?
A)The pH will be higher than 7.45.
B)The solution will become more alkaline.
C)The [H<sup>+</sup>] of the solution will increase.
D)The pH will be higher than 8.0.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the power or driving force for active transport?
A)ATP
B)Pressure
C)DNA
D)H<sup>+</sup>
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following structures make the rough endoplasmic reticulum look like sandpaper?
A)Ribosomes
B)Globs of cytoplasm
C)ATP
D)Fragments of DNA
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following most accurately describes diffusion?
A)ATP-driven
B)Passive transport
C)Requires a pressure or pushing force
D)Causes solute to move uphill
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents a strand of DNA complementary to TTT CGC GGG TCG?
A)UUU GCG AAA UGC
B)UUU GCG CCC AGC
C)AAA GCG CCC AGC
D)AAA GCG CCC UGC
Q2) Gluconeogenesis
A)increases blood cholesterol.
B)increases urea synthesis.
C)increases blood glucose.
D)causes hypoglycemia.
Q3) Which of the following represents a base sequence of tRNA that will bind to mRNA UUU?
A)UUU
B)AAA
C)TTT
D)CCC
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fomite is a
A)worm.
B)parasite.
C)vector.
D)host.
Q2) Which of the following is called the acid-fast bacillus?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Salmonella typhi
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D)Clostridium tetani
Q3) Tetanus,tuberculosis,and diphtheria are
A)staphylococcal infections.
B)caused by a spirochete.
C)localized infections.
D)bacterial infections.
Q4) Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most effectively treated with an _____ drug.
A)antiviral
B)anthelmintic
C)antibiotic
D)antifungal
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adipose,dense fibrous,areolar,blood,and osseous are all
A)stratified epithelia.
B)connective tissue.
C)glial.
D)fat storing.
Q2) The words visceral and parietal
A)describe pleural and peritoneal membranes.
B)describe two types of glands.
C)refer to connective tissue membranes.
D)are layers of meninges.
Q3) Collagen and elastic fibers are found in the intercellular matrix of _____ tissue.
A)squamous epithelial
B)glandular
C)connective
D)nervous
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hair follicle is
A)the part of the hair that is above the surface of the skin.
B)composed of epithelial cells.
C)composed of dead and keratinized cells.
D)that which we brush,blow dry,curl,and iron.
Q2) The stratum germinativum and the stratum corneum are layers of the A)epidermis.
B)hypodermis.
C)subcutaneous tissue.
D)dermis.
Q3) Both the mammary glands and ceruminous glands
A)are sebaceous glands.
B)are modified sweat glands.
C)are concerned with temperature regulation.
D)secrete earwax.
Q4) What is the effect of shivering?
A)Increases heat production
B)Increases heat loss
C)Causes the blood vessels of the skin to dilate
D)Decreases sweating
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A)Spinal curvatures: cervical,thoracic,lumbar,sacral
B)Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis,kyphosis,lordosis
C)Types of ribs: true,false,floating
D)Types of freely movable joints: hinge,ball-and-socket,and suture
Q2) The zygomatic bone
A)is a cranial bone.
B)articulates with the mandible.
C)holds the upper teeth.
D)is called the cheekbone.
Q3) Which of the following word(s) is (are) related to the ribs?
A)Acetabulum
B)True,false,and floating
C)Supination and pronation
D)Fontanels
Q4) Which of the following is least true of the mandible?
A)Is the lower jaw
B)Forms the TMJ
C)Articulates with the occipital bone
D)Site of attachment for the muscles of mastication
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles that cause movement of the hip attach to both the
A)femur and tibia.
B)sacrum and coxal bone.
C)coxal bone and femur.
D)hip bone and the coxal bone.
Q2) The supinator and pronator muscles
A)have their origin on the sternum and clavicle.
B)act synergistically with the sternocleidomastoid muscles.
C)are located in the lower extremities.
D)change the position of the hand.
Q3) Which of the following is not a facial muscle?
A)Orbicularis oculi
B)Zygomaticus
C)Sternocleidomastoid
D)Frontalis
Q4) An aponeurosis
A)is flat,sheetlike fascia.
B)is composed of connective tissue.
C)forms a site of attachment for skeletal muscle.
D)All of the above are true.
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neuroglia
A)are confined to the peripheral nervous system.
B)include astrocytes,oligodendrocytes,Schwann cells,and ependymal cells.
C)fire action potentials when stimulated.
D)All of the above are true.
Q2) With regard to an action potential,the rapid efflux of K+
A)raises the resting membrane potential to threshold potential.
B)restores the internal negativity of the neuron.
C)causes depolarization.
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) What makes white matter "white"?
A)Cell bodies
B)Neurotransmitters
C)Synapses
D)Myelin
Q4) The occipital lobe
A)is a brain stem structure.
B)performs the "executive" functions.
C)is called the vital center.
D)contains the primary visual cortex.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral
Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) To evaluate this cranial nerve,the person is asked to stick out the tongue and the nurse notes any deviation in the position of the protruded tongue.
A)Trigeminal
B)Hypoglossal
C)Facial
D)Olfactory
Q2) An area of skin innervated by a spinal nerve is called a A)plexus.
B)tract.
C)dermatome.
D)gyrus.
Q3) A surgical patient is given a curare-like drug intravenously,thereby blocking his NM receptors.You would expect this patient to A)become jaundiced.
B)bleed excessively during the postoperative period.
C)require assistance breathing.
D)have restraints on all four extremities to limit movement.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A)Adrenergic receptors: alpha,beta
B)Cholinergic receptors: muscarinic,nicotinic
C)Neurotransmitters: norepinephrine,ACh,dopamine
D)Sympathetic responses: decreased blood pressure,decreased heart rate,anxiety
Q2) A preoperative patient received an antimuscarinic drug (atropine).Which drug-related postoperative consequence is this patient likely to experience?
A)Decreased heart rate
B)Difficult urination
C)Elevated blood pressure
D)Excess salivation
Q3) Vasomotor tone is
A)a vasoconstrictor effect caused by background firing of the sympathetic nerves.
B)a vagally induced peripheral vasodilation.
C)caused by parasympathomimetic drugs.
D)caused by sympatholytic drugs.
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the condition caused by unequal tension exerted by the extrinsic eye muscles?
A)Pink eye
B)Strabismus
C)Glaucoma
D)Cataracts
Q2) Bone-conduction deafness is
A)due to destruction of the organ of Corti.
B)most often caused by constant loud noise.
C)most related to the middle ear.
D)an inner ear disorder.
Q3) The optic disc
A)is densely populated with cones.
B)is densely populated with rods.
C)refracts light.
D)contains no photoreceptors; it is the blind spot.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the posterior pituitary gland called the neurohypophysis?
A)The posterior pituitary gland is an extension of the hypothalamus.
B)The neurohypophysis secretes releasing hormones.
C)The posterior pituitary gland secretes hormones that regulate adenohypophyseal function.
D)The posterior pituitary gland secretes releasing hormones.
Q2) Ketoacidosis is most related to A)adrenocortical insufficiency.
B)Cushing's syndrome.
C)excess fatty acid catabolism.
D)hyperglycemia.
Q3) Excess insulin is most apt to cause A)ketosis. B)hypoglycemia.
C)hypertension.
D)diuresis.
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) With which descriptive word(s) are the terms anisocytosis and poikilocytosis associated?
A)Color and degree of immaturity
B)Granular and agranular
C)Shape
D)Antigenic and hive producing
Q2) What is the most important role of hemoglobin?
A)Transport of bilirubin
B)Regulation of blood pH
C)Regulation of blood glucose
D)Transport of oxygen
Q3) Which anticoagulant is secreted by mast cells (basophils)?
A)Plasmin
B)EPO
C)Vitamin K
D)Heparin
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Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are ventricles "doing" during atrial contraction?
A)Pumping blood into the great vessels
B)Closing their AV valves
C)Relaxing
D)Opening their semilunar valves
Q2) Which of the following is least true of S ?
A)Also known as dupp
B)Heart sound
C)Indicative of a gallop rhythm
D)Heard at the beginning of ventricular relaxation (diastole)
Q3) Which of the following is responsible for the opening and closing of the heart valves?
A)Pressure exerted on the valves as the heart contracts and relaxes
B)Electrical signals arising in the SA node
C)The degree of oxygen concentration of blood in the ventricles
D)The amount of blood in the heart
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Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following most accurately describes the vagus nerve?
A)Fight or flight
B)Norepinephrine
C)Parasympathetic
D)Causes tachycardia
Q2) A very anxious person appears in the ER.He has a heart rate of 160 beats/min and indicates that he has a history of panic attacks.He is prescribed an antianxiety agent and a drug to slow his heart rate.Identify the drug (to slow heart rate).
A)Muscarinic antagonist
B)Beta -adrenergic blocker
C)Sympathomimetic
D)Vagolytic
Q3) Furosemide (Lasix),a potent diuretic,is administered in acute ventricular failure to A)strengthen myocardial contractile force.
B)increase plasma K+ levels.
C)excrete excess water and relieve the edema.
D)relieve pain.
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19
Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels and Special
Circulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth,blood shunts from the aorta to the A)pulmonary artery.
B)pulmonary veins.
C)coronary artery.
D)vena cava.
Q2) The merger of these two arteries forms the basilar artery.
A)Internal carotid arteries
B)Subclavian arteries
C)Vertebral arteries
D)Brachiocephalic arteries
Q3) Which of the following is caused by the vibrations of the blood vessel walls and reflects heart rate?
A)Blood pressure
B)Pulse pressure
C)Pulse
D)Skin turgor
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Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term that refers to the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings?
A)Pulse deficit
B)Cardiac output
C)Stroke volume
D)Pulse pressure
Q2) While "taking" a blood pressure,you record the first Korotkoff sounds as the A)pulse pressure.
B)mean arterial blood pressure.
C)diastolic reading.
D)systolic reading.
Q3) Blood flow is slowest in the A)aorta.
B)capillaries.
C)venules.
D)arterioles.
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Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymph node dissection is most likely to cause
A)Edema
B)Hypoxemia
C)Ischemia
D)Thrombosis
Q2) Why does lymph contain protein?
A)Protein is synthesized by the lymph nodes.
B)Protein leaks out of the capillaries into the tissue spaces and is absorbed into the lymphatic capillaries.
C)The cells that line the lymphatic vessels synthesize protein.
D)Adenoids transport plasma protein into the lymphatic vessels.
Q3) Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a platelet deficiency?
A)Lymphedema
B)A hyperactive spleen
C)Lymphadenopathy
D)Infectious mononucleosis
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22
Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the effect of a massive release of histamine?
A)Jaundice
B)Anemia
C)Thrombosis
D)Wheezing and hypotension
Q2) Which of the following describes the function of macrophages?
A)Phagocytosis and antigen presentation
B)Leukopoiesis and antibody secretion
C)Secretion of histamine and leukotrienes
D)Phagocytosis and anti-inflammatory activity
Q3) Which group is incorrect?
A)First line of defense: skin,mucous membrane,tears,sneezing
B)Specific immunity: B cells,T cells
C)Mechanical barriers: skin,mucous membrane
D)Chemical barriers: tears,saliva,stomach acid,B cells,T cells
Q4) Inflammation is
A)a reaction that is classified as a specific immune response.
B)characterized by redness,heat,swelling,and pain.
C)known as cell-mediated immunity.
D)initiated only by a pathogen.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The diaphragm
A)is the chief muscle of inhalation.
B)is innervated by the phrenic nerve.
C)increases thoracic volume when contracted.
D)All of the above are true.
Q2) Which structure has the thinnest wall?
A)Trachea
B)Bronchi
C)Larynx
D)Alveoli
Q3) What is the primary concern with laryngospasm and swelling of the lips and tongue?
A)Interruption of the negative pressure within the intrapleural space
B)Indication of accumulation of water in the alveoli as in pulmonary edema
C)Acute upper airway obstruction
D)Indication of damage of the phrenic nerve
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The canaliculi,hepatic duct,and cystic duct
A)carry bile.
B)are biliary tree structures.
C)are part of the hepatic portal circulation.
D)Two of the above are true.
Q2) Obstruction of the common bile duct causes
A)pain in the RLQ.
B)GERD.
C)jaundice.
D)lactose intolerance.
Q3) Which of the following does not communicate with the common bile duct?
A)Cystic duct
B)Duodenum
C)Portal vein
D)Hepatic duct
Q4) What is the sphincter that allows food to enter the stomach from the esophagus?
A)Sphincter of Oddi
B)Pyloric sphincter
C)Lower esophageal sphincter
D)Oral sphincter
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucose is not normally excreted in the urine because
A)glucose cannot be filtered.
B)all filtered glucose is reabsorbed.
C)glucose is used up by the metabolizing nephron units.
D)glucose is converted to ammonia in the distal tubule and excreted as urea.
Q2) Which condition is characterized by hematuria and pyuria?
A)Renal failure
B)Diuresis
C)Urinary retention
D)Cystitis
Q3) Which of the following is true of urea?
A)Is an excretable form of nitrogen
B)Is synthesized by the kidneys
C)Is converted to ammonia by converting enzyme in the lungs
D)Is a pancreatic proteolytic enzyme
Q4) The juxtaglomerular apparatus
A)secretes angiotensin in response to a decline in blood pressure.
B)is located within the walls of the collecting ducts.
C)secretes aldosterone.
D)is a blood pressure regulating structure.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition stimulates Kussmaul respirations?
A)Respiratory acidosis
B)Respiratory alkalosis
C)Ketoacidosis
D)Hypocalcemic tetany
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to cause acidosis?
A)Persistent vomiting
B)Accumulation of plasma H+
C)Renal loss of albumin
D)Diuresis
Q3) Which of the following is a buffer pair?
A)PTH,aldosterone
B)ADH,ANF
C)HCO -,H CO
D)Sodium,potassium
Q4) Plasma oncotic pressure
A)is caused primarily by salt (sodium chloride).
B)"pulls" water into the capillaries from the interstitium.
C)pushes water out of the capillaries into the interstitium.
D)increases the flow of lymph.
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) What is the coiled structure that sits on top of the testes and is the place where sperm mature?
A)Scrotum
B)Epididymis
C)Prostate gland
D)Prepuce
Q2) The broad ligament supports the A)prostate gland.
B)testes.
C)breasts.
D)uterus.
Q3) Which of the following always occurs during an erection?
A)Ejaculation
B)Secretion of testosterone
C)Spermatogenesis
D)Engorgement of the erectile tissue of the penis with blood
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28
Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Q1) Which of the following is the first event?
A)Parturition
B)Implantation
C)Placental development
D)Secretion of vernix caseosa
Q2) How is a child with X and Y chromosomes best described?
A)Having Down syndrome
B)Hemophiliac
C)Immature
D)Male
Q3) Who or what determines the gender of the baby?
A)Placenta
B)Zygote
C)Father
D)Mother
Q4) Which of the following is least related to the sex chromosomes?
A)XX
B)XY
C)Autosomes
D)X-linked
Page 29
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