
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Human Nutrition explores the fundamental principles of nutrition and the role of nutrients in maintaining health and preventing disease. This course examines the digestion, absorption, and metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals, as well as the physiological functions they serve in the body. Students will analyze the impact of nutrition across the lifespan, evaluate dietary needs for different populations, and assess the influence of nutritional choices on health outcomes. Emphasis is placed on current dietary guidelines, nutritional assessment, and the relationship between nutrition, lifestyle, and chronic diseases.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 5th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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23 Chapters
1975 Verified Questions
1975 Flashcards
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Page 2

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Sample Questions
Q1) To be labeled as "healthy," a food must be low in total, saturated, and trans fat, cholesterol, and sodium, and contain at least _____% of the DV for vitamin A, vitamin C, iron, calcium, protein, or fiber.
A)5
B)10
C)15
D)20
Answer: B
Q2) The six diet planning principles are:
A)adequacy, B vitamins, carbohydrates, meat, variety, and portion control.
B)abundance, balance, carbohydrates, moderation, vegetables, and variety.
C)adequacy, balance, kcalorie control, moderation, variety, and nutrient density.
D)abundance, B vitamins, kcalorie control, milk, vegetables, and nutrient density. Answer: C
Q3) Identify and give an example of several factors that influence food choices. Answer: not answered
Q4) List the six principles of diet planning and briefly describe each one. Answer: not answered
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Q1) Outline and trace the path food follows through the digestive tract from one end to the other.
Answer: not answered
Q2) The main function of bile is to:
A)emulsify fats.
B)stimulate the activity of protein digestive enzymes.
C)neutralize the intestinal contents.
D)decrease the acidity of the contents of the stomach.
Answer: A
Q3) The major digestive work in the stomach is the initial breakdown of:
A)starch.
B)proteins.
C)fat.
D)vitamins.
Answer: B
Q4) Describe the role of the stomach in the process of digestion.
Answer: not answered
Q5) Explain what determines the rate of digestion of the energy nutrients.
Answer: not answered
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ are the basic units of all carbohydrates.
A)monosaccharides
B)disaccharides
C)polysaccharides
D)sucrose molecules
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following compounds is a disaccharide?
A)glucose
B)fructose
C)lactose
D)galactose
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following does not come exclusively from plants?
A)glucose
B)maltose
C)fructose
D)galactose
Answer: D
Q4) Describe how fiber-rich foods help with weight control.
Answer: not answered
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fatty acids are packaged with _____ to make a triglyceride.
A)glycerol
B)glycogen
C)glucose
D)sucrose
Q2) Jack is confused about whether to use margarine or butter.Which of the following is the best advice for him?
A)Use margarine instead of butter because it contains no cholesterol and protects against heart disease.
B)Use butter instead of margarine since margarine contains trans-fatty acids, which are harmful.
C)Choose soft or liquid margarine that contains 0 grams of trans fat instead of hard margarine or butter.
D)Eliminate both butter and margarine from your diet.
Q3) Discuss the concept of "good fats" and "bad fats."
Q4) Describe the health effects of omega-3 fatty acids, and recommendations regarding their intake.
Q5) Discuss the potential benefits and risks of taking fish oil supplements.
Q6) Describe the various functions of fat in the human body.
Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) Resistance to disease is dependent largely on the body's:
A)carbohydrates.
B)lipids.
C)proteins.
D)vitamins.
E)minerals.
Q2) Enzymes:
A)are made up of carbohydrate.
B)are essential to all life processes.
C)are altered by the chemical reactions they facilitate.
D)are essential nutrients.
Q3) What nutrition education would you offer a healthy vegan client?
Q4) The DRI committee that reviewed the safety of amino acid supplements was unable to set Tolerable Upper Intake Levels for safe supplement use.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss potential problems with the use of amino acid supplements.
Q6) Describe the role of protein in maintaining the body's acid-base balance.
Q7) Discuss the factors that determine protein quality.What makes a protein "high quality"?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given that EER for women = [354 - (6.91 * age)] + PA * [(9.36 * wt) + (726 * ht)], estimate the energy requirements for Anne, an active 27 year old (PA = 1.27) who is 5 feet 4 inches tall and weighs 130 pounds.
A)1700-1800
B)2300-2400
C)2600-2700
D)3200-3300
Q2) A good indicator of fat distribution on an individual is: A)BMI.
B)body weight.
C)hip circumference.
D)waist circumference.
Q3) The basal metabolic rate slows with increasing age because:
A)the elderly are malnourished.
B)fat mass in the body decreases.
C)digestive efficiency declines.
D)lean body mass diminishes.
Q4) Identify and briefly describe five factors that affect a person's basal metabolic rate.
Q5) Define the thermic effect of food and explain its effect on energy expenditure.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The psychological desire to eat is referred to as:
A)satiety.
B)appetite.
C)hunger.
D)obesity.
Q2) On a sensible weight-loss plan, the _____ are consumed in the largest volumes.
A)vegetables and fruit food groups
B)grains and protein foods groups
C)milk and fruit food groups
D)most energy-dense foods
Q3) The development of excess fat cells is most likely to occur:
A)when you eat a large breakfast.
B)during late childhood and puberty.
C)if you are inactive.
D)around the age of 40.
Q4) Characteristics of individuals with anorexia nervosa include:
A)they come from families of lower economic means.
B)polite, controlled, rigid, unspontaneous behavior.
C)they come from families that value an inner sense of worth.
D)rebellious, uncontrollable behavior.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among the following, the best food sources for the water-soluble vitamins are:
A)butter and vegetable oils.
B)oranges and cereals.
C)sugar and cornstarch.
D)egg yolks and apples.
Q2) The formation of collagen requires an adequate intake of:
A)vitamin K.
B)vitamin E.
C)vitamin C.
D)folate.
Q3) Many of the symptoms of vitamin C deficiency, such as dry scaly skin and failure of wounds to heal, are related to the role of vitamin C in the synthesis of:
A)calcium and iron.
B)thyroxin.
C)collagen.
D)adrenal hormones.
Q4) What vitamin needs special consideration for those eating vegan diets? Explain why and make diet planning recommendations.
Q5) Describe the factors that may interfere with vitamin D synthesis.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Iron is a component of the protein _____, which transports oxygen in the bloodstream.
A)myoglobin
B)transferrin
C)hemosiderin
D)hemoglobin
Q2) Water is involved in all of the following except:
A)regulating body temperature.
B)converting lipids to amino acids.
C)serving as a solvent for minerals and vitamins.
D)acting as a lubricant around joints.
Q3) The UL for sodium intake for adults is set at:
A)1200 mg.
B)1500 mg.
C)2300 mg.
D)3000 mg.
Q4) Describe the major causes of iron deficiency in the U.S.
Q5) Discuss the functions of copper in the body.
Q6) Describe the body's mechanism for regulating water excretion.
Q7) How does fluoride exert a caries-reducing effect?
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a lactating woman's diet is poor, her milk:
A)volume will be normal but the nutrient quality will be poor.
B)will be thin and watery.
C)quality will be maintained at the expense of maternal stores.
D)will contain toxic products.
Q2) During pregnancy, physicians often recommend _____ for healthy-weight women.
A)multivitamin and mineral supplements and weight gain of about 25-35 pounds
B)no vitamin or mineral supplements and weight gain of at least 30 pounds
C)vitamin C supplements and weight gain of about 20 pounds
D)multivitamin and mineral supplements and weight gain of no more than 20 pounds
Q3) Low-carbohydrate diets during pregnancy:
A)help to prevent excess weight gain for the mother.
B)may impair brain development in the fetus.
C)may lead to pre-term labor.
D)aid in preventing gestational diabetes.
Q4) Which of the following is considered a risk of formula feeding an infant?
A)The infant may not receive all of the nutrients he/she needs.
B)Formula may be incorrectly prepared and cause malnutrition and growth failure.
C)Parents may not be aware that some formulas do not meet FDA requirements.
D)Many infants are allergic to formula.
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Q1) A leading cause of pediatric hypertension is:
A)a low intake of whole-grain foods.
B)obesity.
C)excessive sodium intake from soft drink consumption.
D)type 1 diabetes.
Q2) Which obese teenager would be considered a candidate for bariatric surgery?
A)Preston, who has a BMI of 52 and has an average IQ
B)Jacob, who has a BMI of 38 and has reached physical maturity
C)Darla, who has type 2 diabetes and hasn't yet begun to menstruate
D)Cynthia, who has just enrolled in a weight-loss program for the first time due to her BMI of 48
Q3) Nutrients often found lacking in teenage diets include:
A)iron, calcium, and vitamin D.
B)vitamin C, sodium, and protein.
C)fat, iron, and fiber.
D)calcium, zinc, and vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
Q4) A child's brain is not affected by iron deficiency until a blood deficit of this mineral develops.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physical changes of aging that affect nutrition include all of the following except:
A)swallowing disorders.
B)sluggish intestinal motility.
C)diminished vision.
D)increased sense of smell.
Q2) Which food assistance program would most likely improve the intake of fruits and vegetables among low-income older adults?
A)OAA Nutrition Program
B)Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
C)Meals on Wheals
D)Senior Farmers Market Nutrition Program
Q3) Sarcopenia refers to:
A)loss of muscle mass.
B)a vitamin deficiency.
C)bone loss.
D)malnutrition associated with aging.
Q4) Describe factors in many older people's lives that increase the likelihood of iron deficiency.
Q5) Describe possible relationships between cataracts and nutrition.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for Mr.Wilson?
A)impaired physical mobility
B)feeding self-care deficit
C)imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
D)impaired dentition
Q2) List three different methods for obtaining food intake data and describe the major uses, advantages, and limitations of each.
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of nutrition screening?
A)accurate enough to identify nutrition risk
B)varies according to the health care facility
C)may lead to a referral for nutrition care
D)the first step in the nutrition care process
Q4) The nurse reviews the dietitian's note that includes a specific nutrition problem, its etiology, and evidence of the problem.The nurse recognizes this as the:
A)nursing diagnosis.
B)physician's diet order.
C)hospital diet manual.
D)nutrition diagnosis.
Q5) List and describe the steps in the nutrition care process.
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Q1) List five foods that would be appropriate on a high-kcalorie, high-protein diet, and explain why they are included.
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a modified diet?
A)emphasizes a narrow range of foods
B)may be adjusted in consistency
C)may be adjusted in nutrient content
D)can be altered as a patient's condition changes
Q3) The dietitian adjusts the nutrition education plan after learning that the patient is a Native American.She is considering the patient's:
A)learning style.
B)level of literacy.
C)readiness to change.
D)cultural background.
Q4) Patients with diseases of the liver or gallbladder may benefit from a:
A)low-sodium diet.
B)high-kcalorie, high-protein diet.
C)fat-restricted diet.
D)blenderized liquid diet.
Q5) Describe what is included in a diet manual.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following feeding tube placement sites would be the most appropriate for a client who is expected to be on a tube feeding for less than 4 weeks?
A)gastrostomy
B)jejunostomy
C)nasogastric
D)duodenostomy
Q2) How many kcalories would a client receive from an IV solution containing 1000 mL of 50% dextrose and 1200 mL of 7% amino acid solution?
A)1785
B)1942
C)2036
D)2124
Q3) Which of the following trace minerals is not included in a parenteral solution?
A)zinc
B)copper
C)iron
D)selenium
Q4) Name and discuss five metabolic complications that may result from parenteral feedings.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the symptoms and complications associated with SIRS.
Q2) A parenteral feeding should supply no more than _____ milligrams of dextrose per kilogram of body weight per minute.
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
Q3) Overfeeding an acutely stressed patient improves nitrogen balance and decreases lean tissue losses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which amino acid may have beneficial effects on the immune response of postoperative patients?
A)tryptophan
B)tyrosine
C)arginine
D)phenylalanine
Q5) Describe the body's hormonal responses to stress.
Q6) What is a "stress factor"?
Q7) Explain the metabolic effects of corticosteroid drugs.
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Q1) The nurse recognizes that finding the best diet for a patient with dysphagia is often challenging, and the most appropriate foods are:
A)dry foods like crackers.
B)sticky foods like peanut butter.
C)foods with mixed textures like casseroles.
D)soft, cohesive foods like mashed potatoes.
Q2) Due to reduced food intake and nutrient malabsorption, Ms.Wilson will likely require supplements of:
A)vitamin B<sub>12</sub>, iron, and calcium.
B)zinc, magnesium, and iron.
C)vitamin B<sub>6</sub>, folate, and niacin.
D)calcium, iron, and vitamin C.
Q3) Dental caries are caused by:
A)bacteria that produce acids that attack tooth enamel.
B)excessive fluoride intake that attacks tooth enamel.
C)high-fiber foods that cause carbohydrate to stick to teeth.
D)excessive consumption of sugar that eats into teeth.
Q4) Discuss the potential complications of gastritis.
Q5) Describe the nutritional concerns for a patient following bariatric surgery.
Q6) What dietary advice would you give someone who is experiencing GERD?
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Sample Questions
Q1) A side effect of consuming a high-fiber diet is:
A)flatulence.
B)ostomy.
C)bacterial overgrowth.
D)diverticulosis.
Q2) A patient is experiencing a mild case of diarrhea and phones the health clinic to find out how she should treat it.The nurse recommends that she consume all of the following except:
A)yogurt.
B)broth with crackers.
C)a sports drink.
D)a regular carbonated beverage.
Q3) Many lactose-intolerant individuals can tolerate up to 2 cups of milk a day when intake is divided throughout the day and taken with food.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe important components of nutrition management for people with ostomies.
Q5) Discuss the benefits of pre- and probiotics and their mechanisms of action.
Q6) Why are young people with cystic fibrosis short and very lean for their age?
Q7) Describe the dietary restrictions for a patient with celiac disease.
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Q1) Furosemide is a drug often used to treat the symptoms of cirrhosis.It is a(n):
A)appetite stimulant.
B)diuretic.
C)laxative.
D)antiviral.
Q2) Complications of cirrhosis that Mr.Jamison may be facing in the future include all of the following except:
A)ascites.
B)portal hypertension.
C)gastroesophageal varices.
D)kidney cancer.
Q3) Many patients with cirrhosis require medication or insulin to control hyperglycemia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following results when bilirubin accumulates in the bloodstream?
A)jaundice
B)ascites
C)hepatic coma
D)mental disturbances
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Q1) Close monitoring of glucose levels is especially important for the pregnant woman with diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A major cause of death in people with diabetes is: A)neuropathy.
B)cardiovascular disease.
C)infections.
D)gangrene.
Q3) Acetone breath is characteristic of hypoglycemia. A)True
B)False
Q4) Both the blood and the urine can be checked for the presence of ketones. A)True
B)False
Q5) Excessive urine production is called:
A)polydipsia.
B)polyuria.
C)ketonuria.
D)glycosuria.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Weight loss is associated with all of the following except:
A)a decline in blood pressure.
B)a decrease in LDL cholesterol.
C)an increase in triglycerides.
D)a decrease in insulin resistance.
Q2) At a restaurant, Carmen scans the menu for foods that fit the DASH plan.These include:
A)fish entrees.
B)lean poultry.
C)nut butter sandwiches.
D)whole-grain side orders.
E)all of the above
Q3) A patient's lab work shows severe hypertriglyceridemia.The nurse understands that the patient's fat intake should be limited to _____% of kcalories per day in order to prevent dangerous complications.
A)5
B)15
C)20
D)35
Q4) Describe the risk factors for the development of hypertension.
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Q1) The likely cause of Mr.Wilson's chronic kidney disease is:
A)his history of type 1 diabetes.
B)exposure to chemicals in the workplace.
C)his history of smoking.
D)unknown.
Use the following case study to answer questions 58-62.
Mr)Bradley is a 70-year-old man with a long medical history including uncontrolled diabetes mellitus since age 45 who presents to the West Smithtown Dialysis Center with new-onset end-stage kidney disease.Mr.Bradley lives in an assisted living facility where he receives full-time nursing care.As a dialysis nurse, your role is to review the nutrition guidelines with Mr.Bradley, who has diabetic retinopathy and loss of vision.He is a non-ambulatory war veteran, former smoker, and former alcohol abuser whose BMI is normal, though he has lost 3% of his body weight since being diagnosed with kidney failure one month ago.A food frequency questionnaire shows that Mr.Bradley generally meets his recommended intakes of all food groups, but his fiber intake is low, and his dairy foods consumption exceeds the recommendation by double due to his love of milk, ice cream, cheese, and other dairy products.
Q2) Why is kcalorie intake extremely important in the nutrition care of clients with chronic kidney disease?
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Q1) A cancer patient complains that foods just don't taste right.An appropriate recommendation to help the patient handle this problems is:
A)Consume smaller meals, and eat slowly.
B)Cut foods into smaller pieces.
C)Brush your teeth or use mouthwash before you eat.
D)Ask your doctor about appetite-enhancing medications.
Q2) The nurse is teaching a class on cancer prevention.Someone in the audience asks if one's diet affects his or her risk of developing cancer.The nurse makes the following statements.Which one is incorrect?
A)"Citrus fruits may decrease the risk of esophageal cancer."
B)"Fruits and nonstarchy vegetables may reduce the risk of several types of cancer."
C)"Foods rich in folate seem to prevent pancreatic cancer."
D)"Dairy foods have been implicated in many types of cancer."
Q3) Weight gain often occurs in patients with cancer of the:
A)colon.
B)breast.
C)stomach.
D)pancreas.
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