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Human Nutrition and Health explores the fundamental principles of nutrition and their direct impact on human health and well-being. Students learn about the structure and function of nutrients, dietary requirements throughout the life cycle, and the relationship between diet, lifestyle, and chronic disease prevention. The course covers the digestion, absorption, and metabolism of macronutrients and micronutrients, as well as the role of nutrition in supporting immune function and healthy body systems. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based dietary guidelines, nutritional assessment, and the development of healthy eating habits to promote optimal health and prevent nutrition-related disorders.
Recommended Textbook
NUTR 1st Edition by Michelle McGuire
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Q1) Babies require 4 essential dietary lipids to support growth and development, whereas older children and adults require only 2 essential dietary lipids. The lipids required in babies are examples of A) conditionally essential nutrients.
B) nonessential nutrients.
C) unclassified nutrients.
D) phytochemicals.
Answer: A
Q2) A study performed on a group of people who are not asked to change their behaviors in any way is best described as
A) an intervention study.
B) an epidemiologic study.
C) a randomized, controlled study.
D) a double-blind study.
Answer: B
Q3) Both organic and inorganic compounds contain carbon.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the follow statements about the MyPlate food guide is false?
A) MyPlate replaced MyPyramid as the government's official food guide in 2011.
B) The five food groups represented are fruits, vegetables, grains, protein, and dairy.
C) The recommended number of servings is specified on the graphic.
D) It is intended to serve as an online interactive tool to help users determine their food needs.
Answer: C
Q2) When a health care provider draws blood in order to measure someone's vitamin D status, they are performing
A) an anthropometric measurement.
B) a biochemical measurement.
C) a clinical assessment.
D) a dietary assessment.
Answer: B
Q3) Diet recall is a dietary assessment method that utilizes a 3-day food record.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) can be a painful condition causing a burning sensation in the chest. It is caused by
A) a failure of the gastroesophageal sphincter to close completely.
B) a failure of the gastroesophageal sphincter to open completely.
C) a failure of the pyloric sphincter to close completely.
D) poor peristalsis in the esophagus.
Answer: A
Q2) Osmosis differs from simple diffusion because
A) osmosis describes water's movement across membranes, while simple diffusion describes the movement of substances across membranes.
B) in osmosis, water is moving to a high concentration of dissolved substances, while in simple diffusion, substances are moving to an area of lower concentration.
C) There is no difference; they are equivalent.
D) A and B
Answer: D
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Q1) Lactose consists of
A) galactose bound to glucose.
B) galactose bound to fructose.
C) fructose bound to glucose.
D) glucose bound to glucose.
Q2) Glucagon raises blood glucose levels because it
A) stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver.
B) stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver.
C) stimulates insulin receptors on certain cells.
D) All of the above
E) A and B
Q3) The most abundant monosaccharide in the human body is
A) galactose.
B) glucose.
C) fructose.
D) sucrose.
Q4) Dietary fiber is least abundant in fruits, vegetables, and whole-grain foods.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Transcription is
A) the process by which messenger RNA is constructed using DNA as a template.
B) the process of messenger RNA carrying the DNA information out of the nucleus.
C) the process by which a gene is directly converted into a protein.
D) the process by which messenger RNA is directly converted into a protein.
Q2) Amino acids can be used for ATP production.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because they do not consume any animal products, vegans must make extra efforts to include nutrients that are found in animal products but to a much lesser degree, if at all, in plant products. These nutrients are iron, calcium, zinc, and A) vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
B) vitamin C.
C) vitamin K.
D) vitamin
Q4) The American College of Sports Medicine states that athletes require more dietary protein than non-athletes.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Fatty acids are distinguished from one another by their chain length and A) the presence of an alpha end with a carboxylic acid group.
B) the presence of an omega end with a methyl group.
C) the number and positions of double bonds within the molecule.
D) the presence of nitrogen in the carbon chain.
Q2) What hormone instructs the gallbladder to release bile into the duodenum?
A) Gastrin
B) Cholecystokinin
C) Secretin
D) Bile-releasing hormone
Q3) The essential fatty acids are linoleic acid and linolenic acid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most abundant lipids in the human body are
A) fatty acids.
B) triglycerides.
C) cholesterol molecules.
D) phospholipids.
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Q1) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> is found abundantly in plant foods.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fortification and enrichment of foods differ since the process of enrichment
A) adds specific nutrients to specific foods.
B) add nutrients at levels specified by the U.S. Department of Commerce.
C) adds only fat-soluble vitamins to foods.
D) must include the addition of calcium to foods.
Q3) Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea, and death are known as "the four Ds" associated with deficiency of what vitamin?
A) Thiamin
B) Riboflavin
C) Niacin
D) Pantothenic acid
Q4) Dietary supplements may be worth taking when
A) you become an adult and you have stopped growing.
B) you are able to purchase, prepare, and consume a diet that is balanced and adequate.
C) you are changing to a dietary pattern that eliminates animal products.
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Q1) Foods that are low in sodium and rich in potassium include
A) processed meats.
B) fresh fruits.
C) potato chips.
D) pickled vegetables.
Q2) The mineral content of a given food is influenced by all of the following except:
A) soil mineral content.
B) source of the food (animal or plant).
C) processing of the food.
D) vitamin content of the food.
Q3) Condensation reactions are those
A) that require water in order to break a chemical bond.
B) that produce water when chemical bonds are formed.
C) that release water from inside cells into the intercellular fluid.
D) that require water when chemical bonds are formed.
Q4) Calcium is an important mineral for the sole reason that it is incorporated into bones and teeth.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which method uses differences in the ability of lean and adipose tissues to conduct currents to estimate body composition?
A) Underwater weighing
B) Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)
C) Bioelectrical impedance
D) Skinfold thickness
Q2) The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of energy expended per hour in order to carry out basic functions such as breathing and beating of the heart. The BMR makes up approximately _____ percent of the TEE.
A) 20-40
B) 30-50
C) 50-70
D) 70-90
Q3) If a friend of yours wants to lose 15 pounds in 2 weeks on a very-low-calorie diet, what might you suggest is a more realistic goal?
A) Weight loss of one or two pounds per week.
B) Nothing; this is a completely realistic goal.
C) Weight loss of 5 to 6 pounds per week.
D) Reducing caloric intake by only 800 calories per day.
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Q1) Fish consumption is encouraged during pregnancy because of the importance of the omega-3 fatty acid DHA in _____ development; however, the FDA and EPA advise against consumption of fish likely to contain high levels of _____.
A) fetal brain development; lead
B) fetal bone development; arsenic
C) fetal brain development; mercury
D) fetal bone development; mercury
Q2) The mineral required in higher amounts to support hemoglobin synthesis in the mother and baby, as well as the baby's overall growth and development, is
A) iron.
B) calcium.
C) magnesium.
D) copper.
Q3) Cow's milk is recommended for infants starting at six months of age.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Growth refers to cell hypertrophy, while development refers to cell hyperplasia.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Considering the increased incidence of obesity, insulin resistance, and diabetes in our country, following physical activity recommendations would be
A) beneficial because it would promote weight loss.
B) dangerous because people would be at risk for other problems.
C) ineffective since the incidence is too big to impact with physical activity.
Q2) Improvements in body composition, including increased muscle mass, are an outcome of
A) a well-balanced physical fitness regimen.
B) a cardiovascular fitness regimen.
C) endurance and resistance training.
D) All of the above
Q3) Hypertrophy of muscles is achieved in response to
A) regular resistance training.
B) ceasing strength training.
C) infrequent exercise.
D) flexibility sessions once a week.
Q4) ATP production is faster using the oxidative system than using the glycolytic system.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A distinct difference between someone with anorexia nervosa and someone with bulimia nervosa is that
A) someone with anorexia would never purge.
B) someone with bulimia would never exercise excessively.
C) someone with anorexia would not be depressed.
D) None of the above
Q2) Someone with the female athlete triad is likely to be experiencing A) bone growth.
B) heavy menstrual cycles.
C) amenorrhea
D) weight gain.
Q3) People who suffer with muscle dysmorphia are driven to reduce muscle mass.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A hallmark of the female athlete triad is menstrual dysfunction.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Someone with bulimia nervosa will always purge by vomiting.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Moderate alcohol consumption is associated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The alcohol content of hard liquor is greater than that of beer or wine because of a process called
A) fermentation.
B) distillation.
C) proofreading.
D) concentration.
Q3) In consequence of chronic heavy alcohol consumption, cross-tolerance may occur. This refers to
A) a tolerance for many different kinds of alcoholic beverages.
B) a lower responsiveness to certain medications that would normally be processed by the enzymes assisting in alcohol metabolism.
C) an increased responsiveness to other medications that would normally be processed by the enzymes assisting in alcohol metabolism.
D) a reduced tolerance for alcohol when other medications are being processed.
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Q1) When traveling, the only concern travelers should have is with the water contamination.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The only infectious agent known to cause a foodborne illness whose symptoms include disturbances of the eyes, such as doubled or blurred vision, is
A) Staphylococcus aureus.
B) Clostridium botulinum.
C) Listeria monocytogenes.
D) Escherichia coli O157:H7.
Q3) A parasite that can cross the intestinal lining, enter the blood, and live in tissues throughout the body is
A) Trichinella.
B) Giardia intestinalis.
C) Clostridium botulinum.
D) Listeria monocytogenes.
Q4) Acrylamide can be formed and then consumed in French fries and potato chips.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Undernourished children tend to be in the lowest height-for-age percentiles compared with a well-nourished reference group.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order to develop an effective solution to food insecurity, the best solution will require
A) nutritionists to be the leaders in efforts to deliver food and nutritional supplements around the globe so that individuals will be able to affect political and economic issues.
B) policymakers to be the leaders in order to address the political and economic issues so that food can be delivered safely to areas in need.
C) governments to direct peace and economic stability in their countries so that humanitarian organizations can aid in delivering food and nutritional supplements to people in need.
D) nutritionists and policymakers to combine their efforts to ensure that all obstacles are addressed in order to aid malnourished people and ultimately reverse global food insecurity.
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