Human Nutrition and Health
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Human Nutrition and Health explores the fundamental principles of nutrition and its critical role in maintaining health and preventing disease across the human lifespan. The course examines the digestion, absorption, and metabolism of macronutrients and micronutrients, as well as the physiological functions and dietary sources of essential nutrients. Students will analyze the impact of nutrition on growth, development, and chronic disease risk, and consider evidence-based dietary recommendations for individuals and populations. The course also addresses current nutrition-related health issues, including obesity, malnutrition, and the influence of lifestyle, culture, and socioeconomic factors on dietary habits and health outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Williams Essentials of Nutrition and Diet Therapy 11th Edition by Eleanor Schlenker
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1210 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best source of nutrients is provided by:
A) specific food combinations.
B) a variety of foods.
C) individual foods.
D) a variety of food supplements.
Answer: B
Q2) The function of Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) is to designate nutrient recommendations for:
A) different ethnic groups.
B) all individuals.
C) most people.
D) most healthy people
Answer: D
Q3) An example of government nutrition policy is:
A) MyPlate Food Guidance System.
B) Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010.
C) Healthy People 2020.
D) Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs).
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Digestion, Absorption, and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria found in the colon are important because they:
A) synthesize important vitamins.
B) complete the process of absorption.
C) synthesize some minerals.
D) finish the process of digestion.
Answer: A
Q2) The valve that controls the passage of chyme from the small intestine into the cecum is called the:
A) ileocecal valve.
B) pyloric valve.
C) cardiac valve.
D) hepatic valve.
Answer: A
Q3) An enzyme secreted by the salivary glands is:
A) pepsin.
B) trypsin.
C) sucrase.
D) amylase.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whole-wheat bread, popcorn, baked beans, bananas, and pears are good sources of:
A) cellulose.
B) gums.
C) collagen.
D) psyllium.
Answer: A
Q2) The type of carbohydrate that helps maintain normal blood glucose levels during fasting periods is:
A) glucose.
B) galactose.
C) dextrins.
D) glycogen.
Answer: D
Q3) The sum of the physical and chemical processes that take place in a living organism to maintain life and produce energy is called:
A) metabolism.
B) digestion.
C) phosphorylation.
D) hydrolysis.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important function of cholesterol is to:
A) form bile salts.
B) break down cell membranes.
C) metabolize carbohydrates.
D) produce vitamin A.
Q2) Pancreatic lipase digests triglycerides by:
A) reducing the surface tension.
B) removing the glycerol.
C) breaking off one fatty acid at a time.
D) removing the cholesterol.
Q3) A compound that is necessary for emulsification of fat in the body is:
A) bile salts.
B) cholecystokinin.
C) chyme.
D) trypsin.
Q4) A characteristic of saturated fats is that they are:
A) mostly found in animal products.
B) liquid at room temperature.
C) composed of many double bonds.
D) found primarily in vegetable products.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of amino acids that are considered indispensable or essential is:
A) 9.
B) 10.
C) 12.
D) 14.
Q2) A person is most likely to have a diet with good protein quality if he or she:
A) has a high protein intake.
B) consumes a variety of foods.
C) uses amino acid supplements.
D) buys high-quality meats.
Q3) A protein that contains all the essential amino acids in the proper proportions is called:
A) simple.
B) indispensable.
C) complete.
D) complementary.
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Chapter 6: Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A health condition that may create a need for administration of vitamin K is:
A) radiation therapy.
B) antibiotic therapy.
C) a bone fracture.
D) pancreatitis.
Q2) The chemical name for vitamin E is:
A) calciferol.
B) retinol.
C) tocopherol.
D) cholecalciferol.
Q3) Hemolytic anemia is treated with increased intake of vitamin:
A) A.
B) D.
C) E.
D) C.
Q4) A deficiency of vitamin A in the body may result in:
A) night blindness.
B) biliary obstruction.
C) alopecia.
D) color blindness.
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Chapter 7: Minerals and Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) Symptoms of impaired sense of taste and smell are sometimes caused by a deficiency of:
A) zinc.
B) chromium.
C) chlorine.
D) magnesium.
Q2) Iron has an important metabolic function in:
A) oxygen transport.
B) thyroxine synthesis.
C) calcium and phosphorus balance.
D) neutralizing gastric secretions.
Q3) Hormones that are involved in maintaining calcium balance in the body include calcitonin, calcitriol, and:
A) thyroxine.
B) parathyroid hormone.
C) insulin.
D) epinephrine.
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Chapter 8: Energy Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Someone with a BMI of 17 would be considered to be:
A) underweight.
B) normal weight.
C) overweight.
D) obese.
Q2) Someone may be considered overweight but not overfat if he or she has a high level of:
A) thyroid-stimulating hormone.
B) muscle tissue.
C) adipose tissue.
D) dietary control.
Q3) An important type of metabolic chemical that is not used up in the reactions it causes is:
A) hormones.
B) enzymes.
C) coenzymes.
D) neurotransmitters.
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Chapter 9: Food Selection and Food Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bovine growth hormone is used by farmers to:
A) increase muscle development in steers.
B) increase milk production in cows.
C) reduce susceptibility of cows to infection.
D) increase the shelf life of milk.
Q2) The first level in Maslow's hierarchy of human needs is:
A) belonging.
B) safety.
C) basic physiologic needs.
D) recognition.
Q3) Foods that contain aspartame (NutraSweet) must include a warning on the label for the safety of individuals with:
A) diabetes.
B) phenylketonuria.
C) high blood pressure.
D) food allergies.
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11
Chapter 10: Community Nutrition: Promoting Healthy Eating
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Sample Questions
Q1) Older adults may have limited access to reasonably priced food because they:
A) refuse to shop in modern supermarkets.
B) may not be able to drive to a larger grocery store.
C) have limited time for food shopping.
D) tend to prefer more expensive foods.
Q2) The stage of change in which an individual is getting ready to commit to change is:
A) precontemplation.
B) contemplation.
C) preparation.
D) action.
Q3) Legumes provide inexpensive sources of:
A) potassium and zinc.
B) beta carotene and vitamin E.
C) monounsaturated fatty acids and calcium.
D) protein and fiber.
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12
Chapter 11: Nutrition During Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a pregnant woman's urine indicates the presence of glycosuria, the woman should be monitored for development of: A) anemia.
B) diabetes.
C) phenylketonuria.
D) hypertension.
Q2) Craving and intake of unusual nonfood substances is known as: A) pica.
B) bulimia.
C) foraging.
D) compulsive eating.
Q3) A personal habit or behavior that should be discouraged during pregnancy is: A) exercise.
B) sexual intercourse.
C) low-fat diet.
D) smoking.
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13
Chapter 12: Nutrition for Normal Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A factor that accounts for wide fluctuations in the metabolic rates of adolescents of the same age is:
A) differences in physiologic age.
B) differences in psychologic development.
C) cultural differences.
D) gender.
Q2) Development is defined as:
A) cell multiplication and cell enlargement.
B) the process by which tissues and organs take on more complex function.
C) the physiologic rather than chronologic age.
D) a stage of physical, mental, emotional, and social maturity.
Q3) The effect of the hormone prolactin is to:
A) stimulate breast development.
B) balance supply and demand of breast milk.
C) stimulate breast milk production.
D) stimulate ejection of milk from the alveoli.
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Chapter 13: Nutrition for Adults: Early, Middle, and Later Years
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Sample Questions
Q1) After age 50, the Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) for calcium increases for: A) women only.
B) men only.
C) neither men nor women.
D) both men and women.
Q2) In older adults, physical activity is important to help maintain their:
A) body weight.
B) iron stores.
C) mental function.
D) muscle mass.
Q3) The Elderly Nutrition Program provides congregate or home-delivered meals for adults who:
A) have low incomes.
B) are age 60 and older.
C) are at risk for malnutrition.
D) have overt malnutrition.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Nutrition and Physical Fitness
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of blood pumped out of the heart during one beat or contraction is called:
A) stroke volume.
B) cardiac output.
C) cardiac rate.
D) tidal volume.
Q2) Amenorrhea in female athletes is associated with:
A) poor absorption of iron.
B) loss of lean body mass.
C) low bone density.
D) ketoacidosis.
Q3) Training and exercise will increase:
A) stroke volume.
B) cardiac rate.
C) blood pressure.
D) arterial volume.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Complexity of Obesity: Beyond Energy Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The factor that contributes most to the success of a diet plan is:
A) fat intake.
B) behavior modification.
C) education.
D) adherence.
Q2) Risk of being overweight is inversely related to intakes of: A) potassium.
B) iron.
C) calcium.
D) sodium.
Q3) Health risks associated with being obese include:
A) sleep apnea.
B) nocturia.
C) food allergies.
D) multiple sclerosis.
Q4) Class 3 obesity is defined as BMI above:
A) 27 kg/m2.
B) 30 kg/m2.
C) 35 kg/m2.
D) 40 kg/m2.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition Assessment and Nutrition Therapy in Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hospitalized patients should be weighed:
A) before breakfast.
B) after breakfast.
C) at the convenience of the staff.
D) at the same time each day.
Q2) Malnutrition may occur during hospitalization if:
A) the nursing staff monitors the amount of food the patient eats.
B) the hospital food is kept warm and nutrients are lost.
C) the patient's family brings the patient food from home.
D) the patient has many tests that prevent him or her from eating meals.
Q3) In a client who is nonambulatory, body height can be assessed by measuring:
A) arm span.
B) body mass index.
C) leg length.
D) elbow breadth.
Q4) The two protein compartments in the body are:
A) essential and nonessential.
B) dispensable and indispensable.
C) free and bound.
D) somatic and visceral.
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Chapter 17: Metabolic Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) A burn that causes reddening and blistering with cell death in the dermis is classified as a:
A) first-degree burn.
B) second-degree burn.
C) third-degree burn.
D) fourth-degree burn.
Q2) An important function of carbohydrates in the postoperative period is to:
A) contribute to tissue repair.
B) provide a source of vitamins.
C) spare protein for tissue synthesis.
D) protect adipose fat reserves.
Q3) The ideal method for estimating energy needs is:
A) Harris-Benedict equations.
B) 20 to 30 kcal/kg ideal body weight per day.
C) daily weight measurements.
D) indirect calorimetry.
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Chapter 18: Drug-Nutrient Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) One way that some drugs can cause mineral depletion is through:
A) increased gastric absorption.
B) increased renal excretion.
C) decreased antibody production.
D) decreased hemoglobin production.
Q2) Absorption of iron is improved by eating foods that are high in:
A) vitamin A.
B) folate.
C) vitamin C.
D) vitamin K.
Q3) The anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin) acts as an antagonist to:
A) vitamin K.
B) pyridoxine.
C) vitamin B .
D) folic acid.
Q4) A type of medication that can stimulate appetite is:
A) diuretics.
B) antihistamines.
C) antipyretics.
D) antibiotics.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nutrition Support: Enteral and Parenteral
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Sample Questions
Q1) One form of protein that is often used in standard enteral nutrition formulas is:
A) denatured.
B) intact.
C) essential.
D) incomplete.
Q2) The most appropriate route of feeding for a client with gastric cancer is via a(n):
A) esophagostomy.
B) gastrostomy.
C) jejunostomy.
D) ileostomy.
Q3) The types of carbohydrate most commonly used in enteral nutrition formulas are: A) polysaccharides and oligosaccharides.
B) glucose polymers.
C) dextrose.
D) monosaccharides.
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Chapter 20: Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The small outpouchings that protrude from the intestinal lumen are called:
A) hernias.
B) lesions.
C) diverticula.
D) ulcers.
Q2) A key component in the etiology of hepatic encephalopathy is:
A) fatty infiltration of the liver.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) high ammonia levels in the systemic circulation.
D) reduced blood flow to the brain.
Q3) The medical term for difficulty in swallowing is: A) pyrosis.
B) polydipsia.
C) dysphagia.
D) dyspepsia.
Q4) The type of diet prescribed for long-term management of diverticular disease is: A) bland.
B) low in fiber.
C) high in fiber.
D) soft.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Heart, Blood Vessels, and Lungs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The class of lipoproteins that has the highest lipid content is:
A) chylomicrons.
B) very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL).
C) low-density lipoprotein (LDL).
D) intermediate-density lipoprotein (IDL).
Q2) Development of coronary heart disease is related to:
A) weakened coronary vessels.
B) chronic alcohol abuse.
C) lack of amino acids.
D) fibrous plaques in coronary vessels.
Q3) The upper limit of normal blood pressure in adults is considered to be:
A) 110/70 mm Hg.
B) 120/80 mm Hg.
C) 130/85 mm Hg.
D) 140/90 mm Hg.
Q4) A localized area of dead tissue is called a(n):
A) atheroma.
B) infarct.
C) embolus.
D) thrombus.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type 2 diabetes in children and adolescents is related to:
A) frequency of snacking.
B) consumption of fast food.
C) overweight and obesity.
D) stress and depression.
Q2) The pancreatic sensors of blood glucose levels are located in the:
A) alpha cells.
B) beta cells.
C) delta cells.
D) juncture points of the alpha, beta, and delta cells.
Q3) The normal range for blood glucose is:
A) 20 to 50 mg/dL.
B) 50 to 100 mg/dL.
C) 70 to 120 mg/dL.
D) 100 to 150 mg/dL.
Q4) The underlying cause of type 1 diabetes is:
A) atherosclerotic damage.
B) enzyme deficiencies that impair digestion.
C) obesity and lack of exercise.
D) an autoimmune attack on insulin-producing cells.
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Chapter 23: Renal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term hematuria refers to:
A) a reduced amount of urine in relation to fluid intake.
B) the presence of blood in the urine.
C) the presence of excess serum proteins in the urine.
D) a complete lack of urinary excretion.
Q2) In patients with CKD, sodium intake does not usually need to be restricted until GFR falls to:
A) 10 mL/min/1.73 m2.
B) 50 mL/min/1.73 m2.
C) 75 mL/min/1.73 m2.
D) 100 mL/min/1.73 m2.
Q3) The factor responsible for development of most urinary tract infections is:
A) high intake of simple sugars.
B) urinary obstruction.
C) chronic renal disease.
D) microorganisms.
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25
Chapter 24: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) One way children become infected with HIV/AIDS is:
A) via the oral-fecal route.
B) through contaminated water supplies.
C) through contact with infected blood during delivery.
D) by living in close contact with an infected adult.
Q2) During the symptomatic stage of AIDS, energy needs may increase by:
A) 20% to30%.
B) 30% to 40%.
C) 40% to 50%.
D) 50% to 60%.
Q3) The HIV virus carries genetic material in the form of:
A) DNA.
B) RNA.
C) reverse transcriptase.
D) integrase.
Q4) The best way to prevent unintentional weight loss is to:
A) avoid regular exercise.
B) maintain an adequate energy intake.
C) follow a high-protein diet.
D) include a variety of foods.
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Chapter 25: Cancer
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Q1) The term stomatitis refers to an inflammation of the: A) liver.
B) stomach.
C) oral mucosa.
D) intestinal mucosa.
Q2) Cancer generally begins with disruptions in:
A) DNA replication.
B) nutritional status.
C) RNA transcription.
D) cell metabolism.
Q3) The type of cancer therapy that can involve the use of radioactive isotopes is: A) surgery.
B) radiation.
C) endoscopy.
D) chemotherapy.
Q4) The systemic effects of cancer may result in: A) edema.
B) jaundice.
C) dehydration.
D) negative nitrogen balance.
Page 27
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